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  • Question 1 - Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Human Papillomavirus has been is implicated in the development of genital warts as well as, head and neck, anogenital and cervical cancers, with the most important high-risk strains being 16 and 18. Over 50% of women worldwide are thought to possess antibodies against various strains of HPV after natural infection. Many infections are asymptomatic and are cleared within 2 years. Several vaccines have been formulated against HPV, one of which is Gardasil, a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types 6,11, 16,18.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old lady comes to your clinic complaining of a brownish vaginal discharge that has been bothering her for the previous three months. Atrophic vagina is seen on inspection.

      Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia infection

      Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer should always be the first diagnosis to rule out in a 65-year-old lady with brownish vaginal discharge. The inquiry focuses on the most likely source of the symptoms, rather than the most significant diagnosis to explore.
      Blood typically causes the dark hue of vaginal discharge. The uterine cavity or the vagina can both be the source of bleeding. Only 5-10% of postmenopausal women with vaginal bleeding were found to have endometrial cancer. Around 60% of the women had atrophic vaginitis.

      Urogenital atrophy is caused by oestrogen insufficiency in postmenopausal women. Urogenital atrophy can cause the following symptoms:
      – Dry vaginal skin
      – Vaginal inflammation or burning
      – Vaginal lubrication is reduced during sexual activity.
      – Vulvar or vaginal pain, as well as dyspareunia (at the introitus or within the vagina)
      – Vaginal or vulvar bleeding (e.g. postcoital bleeding. fissures)
      – Vaginal discharge from the cervix (leukorrhea or yellow and malodorous)
      – A vaginal bulge or pelvic pressure
      – Symptoms of the urinary tract (e.g. urinary frequency, dysuria, urethral discomfort, haematuria).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Correct Answer: 1.50%

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis Gravidarum effects around 0.3-2% of Pregnancies. It causes imbalances of fluid and electrolytes, disturbs nutritional intake and metabolism, causes physical and psychological debilitation and is associated with adverse pregnancy outcome, including an increased risk of preterm birth
      and low birthweight babies. The aetiology is unknown however various potential mechanisms have been proposed including an association with high levels of serum human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG), oestrogen and thyroxine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman is planning to conceive and comes for your advice. She has a history of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy and has been stable on sodium valproate. Despite your full explanations about the risks of the teratogenicity of antiepileptic drugs, she insists she wants to be a mother and asks you to guide her.

      Among the following which would be the most appropriate advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Switch to lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Continue sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      As they respond differently to different drugs, a thorough distinguishing must be done between the two major groups of epilepsies while approaching a woman, who wishes to become pregnant while on antiepileptic drugs.

      Partial epilepsies will respond to most of the antiepileptic drugs, but in case of idiopathic generalized epilepsies, especially in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy, seizure can be controlled only with a reasonably low dose of sodium valproate. Although lamotrigine may be helpful but substitution of sodium valproate with lamotrigine is not the right choice. This is because lamotrigine is not as effective as sodium valproate and will sometimes worsens myoclonic seizures in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.

      Topiramate and levetiracetam are found to be effective in idiopathic generalized epilepsy, while carbamazepine, phenytoin and gabapentin may worsen some seizure types, especially in myoclonic and absence seizures. For some women with idiopathic generalized epilepsies, there will be no effective alternative to sodium valproate as cessation of sodium valproate will lead to recurrence of the generalized seizures, especially juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Hence, it is not advisable to discontinue the drug in auch patients.

      On the other hand, sodium valproate have the highest reported teratogenicity potential among antiepileptic drugs and the Australian Pregnancy Register has reported the risk to be as high as 16% if used in first trimester. Sodium valproate should be avoided in women of reproductive age and if a patient on the medication is willing to become pregnant, she should be well informed about the risk of teratogenicity and the decision must be left to her. If she decides to accept the risks and continue with pregnancy, the lowest possible effective dose should be prescribed to her.

      If the dose of sodium valproate has been reduced to minimum during pregnancy to reduce the possible teratogenesis, it is recommended to re-establish the prepartum effective dose before the onset of labor. This is because, it is the time with increased risk for seizures, especially in patients with idiopathic generalised epilepsy who are very sensitive to sleep deprivation. Valproate therapy is found to be safe during breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to a gynaecologist with a complaint of abnormal vaginal bleeding, usually postcoital. On pelvic examination, the cervix of was found to be of an unusually bright red colour and its texture was rougher than normal. Which of the following will you choose as the next step in the management of this condition?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Cervical smear (2nd line)

      Explanation:

      Before considering invasive procedures, a cervical smear must first be performed. Antibiotics can only be given when inflammation has been confirmed and culture results have identified the organism causing the inflammation. Endometrial ablation, colposcopy and vaginal US are all invasive procedures that are not relevant in the immediate management of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up.
      On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm.
      which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.

      For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.

      A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
      – Dating errors which is the most common cause
      – Twin pregnancy
      – Gestational diabetes
      – Polyhydramnios
      – Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient who undergoes a medical abortion at 10 weeks gestation, what advice would you give regarding Rhesus Anti-D Immunoglobulin?

      Your Answer: All RhD Negative women should receive Anti-D IgG

      Correct Answer: All RhD-negative women who are not alloimmunized should receive Anti-D IgG

      Explanation:

      The Rhesus status of a mother is important in pregnancy and abortion. The exposure of an Rh-negative mother to Rh antigens from a positive foetus, will influence the development of anti-Rh antibodies. This may cause problems in subsequent pregnancies leading to haemolysis in the newborn. Rh Anti RhD- globulin is therefore given to non-sensitised Rh-negative mothers to prevent the formation of anti-Rh antibodies within 72 hours following abortion. Anti RhD globulin is not useful for already sensitized, or RhD positive mothers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      41.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The resting pulse in pregnancy is: ...

    Correct

    • The resting pulse in pregnancy is:

      Your Answer: Increased by 10 to 15 bpm

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy cardiac output increases by 30 to 50%. As a result, the resting pulse speeds up from a normal of about 70 bpm to 80 or 90 bpm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came for the advice about contraception. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer: She can use COCP with oestrogen 50ug and progesterone higher dose

      Correct Answer: She can use COCP

      Explanation:

      There are no interactions between the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, medroxyprogesterone injections or levonorgestrel implants and the AEDs valproic acid (sodium valproate), vigabatrin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, tiagabine, levetiracetam, zonisamide, ethosuximide and the benzodiazepines. So she can use COCP along with Sodium valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old G2P1 woman who is at 30 weeks gestational age presented to the medical clinic for a routine OB visit. Upon history taking, it was noted that her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and was delivered 10 years ago. At 40 weeks then, she had a normal vaginal delivery and the baby weighed 3.17kg.
      In her current pregnancy, she has no complications and no significant medical history. She is a non-smoker and has gained about 11.3 kg to date. She also declined any testing for Down syndrome even if she is of advanced maternal age.

      Upon further examination and observation, the following are her results:
      Blood pressure range has been 100 to 120/60 to 70
      Fundal height measures only 25 cm

      Which of the following is most likely the reason for the patient’s decreased fundal height?

      Your Answer: Fetal growth restriction

      Explanation:

      A fundal height measurement is typically done to determine if a baby is small for its gestational age. The measurement is generally defined as the distance in centimetres from the pubic bone to the top of the uterus. The expectation is that after week 24 of pregnancy the fundal height for a normally growing baby will match the number of weeks of pregnancy — plus or minus 2 centimetres.

      A fundal height that measures smaller or larger than expected — or increases more or less quickly than expected — could indicate:
      – Slow fetal growth (intrauterine growth restriction)
      – A multiple pregnancy
      – A significantly larger than average baby (fetal macrosomia)
      – Too little amniotic fluid (oligohydramnios)
      – Too much amniotic fluid (polyhydramnios).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      70.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Hypemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies? ...

    Correct

    • Hypemesis gravidarum occurs in what percentage of pregnancies?

      Your Answer: 1.50%

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting experienced in 80% of pregnancies Hyperemesis gravidarum (HG) is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting which affects around 1.5% of women. Caused by high levels HCG. Definitions vary but most consider it to be defined by severe nausea and vomiting associated with weight loss greater than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight with metabolic disturbance (typically dehydration and/or ketosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks...

    Correct

    • A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness.

      As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care.

      Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?

      Your Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.

      Explanation:

      Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.

      In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.

      An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.

      A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.

      A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      66.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - How long does involution of the uterus take after parturition? ...

    Correct

    • How long does involution of the uterus take after parturition?

      Your Answer: 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      In the period immediately after the delivery of the placenta, known as the puerperium, the female reproductive system begins to undergo some physiological changes to return to a non-pregnant state. One of these changes is uterine involution. The myometrium contracts, constricting blood vessels which impedes blood flow. It is thought that the uterine tissues then undergo apoptosis and autophagy. It takes about 4-6 weeks for the uterus to decrease is size from about 1 kg to 60 grams.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disorder is characterized by an abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and include a complete and partial mole. It is characterized by persistently elevated BHCG levels after pregnancy and on ultrasound a snow storm appearance. These appear as anechoic areas on ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section?

      Your Answer: Diamorphine should be avoided for post-op analgesia if mother plans to breastfeed

      Correct Answer: Uterine closure can be in 1 or 2 layers

      Explanation:

      Closure of the uterus should be performed in either single or double layers with continuous or interrupted sutures. The initial suture should be placed just lateral to the incision angle, and the closure continued to a point just lateral to the angle on the opposite side. A running stitch is often employed and this may be locked to improve haemostasis. If a second layer is used, an inverting suture or horizontal suture should overlap the myometrium. Once repaired, the incision is assessed for haemostasis and ‘figure-of-eight’
      sutures can be employed to control bleeding. Peritoneal closure is unnecessary. Abdominal closure is performed in the anatomical planes with high strength, low reactivity materials, such as polyglycolic acid or polyglactin. Diamorphine is advised for intra and post op analgesia and oxytocin is advised to reduce blood loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      54.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer: She should aim to have a pre-pregnancy HbA1c of <48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as ...

    Correct

    • Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is classed as

      Your Answer: Adenomyosis

      Explanation:

      Endometrial tissue found within the myometrium is Adenomyosis. If endometrial tissue is found at a distant site to the uterus it is termed endometriosis. Fibroids are smooth muscle tumours (Leiomyoma’s) sometimes called myoma’s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately ...

    Incorrect

    • Maternal blood flow through the uterine artery at term is approximately

      Your Answer: 300ml/min

      Correct Answer: 750ml/min

      Explanation:

      Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term, with 80 per cent of the blood distributed to the intervillous spaces of the placentae, and 20 per cent to the uterine myometrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long? ...

    Incorrect

    • Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?

      Your Answer: 7-14 days

      Correct Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Afterpains may continue for 2-3 days (so none of the above). Breastfeeding may intensify pain due to stimulation of Oxytocin which causes uterine contractions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone? ...

    Correct

    • Galactopoiesis is maintained by which hormone?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The production of milk is regulated by the hormone Prolactin. Oxytocin on the other hand is responsible for the let down reflex that occurs during breast feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress,...

    Incorrect

    • Three days after a lower uterine Caesarean section delivery (LSCS) for fetal distress, a 24-year-old woman develops fever with a temperature of 37.9°C. Intraoperative notes show that she was administered one dose of prophylactic antibiotics. She had been afebrile during the post-partum period until today.

      Which is the least likely cause of her fever?

      Your Answer: An abdominal wound infection.

      Correct Answer: A deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

      Explanation:

      This question is about the differential diagnoses that should be considered if a patient presents with postpartum fever. The work-up for such patients would usually involve vaginal swabs, midstream urine culture and sensitivity and an ultrasound scan of the wound to look for any presence of a haematoma. LSCS is a major surgery and one common cause of puerperal fever would be surgical site infection. It is not surprising that women who deliver via LSCS are at higher risk of developing post-partum fever compared to those who deliver vaginally. Other common causes include endometritis and UTI. Ultrasound examination of the pelvic deep venous system and the legs would also be done to look for any thrombosis. Deep vein thrombosis can occur due to immobility, however it is unlikely to present with fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You...

    Incorrect

    • While evaluating a 33-year-old woman for infertility, you diagnose a bicornuate uterus. You explain that additional testing is necessary because of the woman's increased risk of congenital anomalies in which system?

      Your Answer: Tracheoesophageal

      Correct Answer: Urinary

      Explanation:

      Bicornuate uterus is associated with an increased chance of urinary tract anomalies. Urinary tract anomalies were present in about 23.6% of cases of bicornuate uterus patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - At what gestational age does the luteo-placental shift occur? ...

    Correct

    • At what gestational age does the luteo-placental shift occur?

      Your Answer: 6-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Luteo-placental shifts occurs around 6-8 week when the placenta takes over from the corpus luteum as the main producer of oestrogen and progesterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).

    When she presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman has been taking Microgynon (oral contraceptive pill [OCP]).

      When she presents for a repeat prescription, her BP is 160/100 mmHg.

      She mentions that she would like to stop the OCP in six months so that she can conceive.

      What is the most suitable advice for this woman?

      Your Answer: Continue the OCP unchanged, but add methyldopa as a hypotensive agent, as this could be continued during a subsequent pregnancy.

      Correct Answer: Cease the OCP, use condoms for contraception, and reassess the BP in three months.

      Explanation:

      The woman’s blood pressure was elevated at her visit; therefore she should be advised to immediately cease the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) so that the hypertension can resolve without the need for any hypotensive treatment. The blood pressure can then be reassessed in three months. Alternative, non-hormonal birth control methods such as condoms should be used instead.

      If her high blood pressure does not resolve, any medication that would be commenced to reduce her blood pressure should be one that is safe to continue when she becomes pregnant.

      It is inappropriate to continue the OCP even at a lower dosage or in combination with a hypotensive agent.

      Methyldopa has been evaluated and used for treatment of hypertension during pregnancy. There is no clinical evidence to suggest that it causes harm to the foetus or neonate.

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are not approved for use in pregnancy as they have been associated with fetal death in utero. Other antihypertensive agents such as beta-blockers and diuretics are also problematic in pregnancy and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      82.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman visits your office seeking oral contraceptive guidance. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 and is pleased with the results. She is married with two children, does not smoke, and is in good health.

      Her blood pressure is 150/100mmHg, according to your examination. The blood pressure remains the same after 20 minutes.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Use an OCP with lower doses of oestrogen

      Correct Answer: Start her on progestogen-only pills (POPs)

      Explanation:

      The progestogen-only pill (POP) is a contraceptive option for women who have high blood pressure either induced by use of combined oral pills or due to other causes; as long as it is well controlled and monitored. Combined oral contraception (COC) and Depo-Provera have been implicated in increased cardiovascular risk following use. High blood pressure has been theorized to be the critical path that leads to this increased risk. POP is the recommended method for women who are at risk of coronary heart disease due to presence of risk factors like hypertension.

      Stopping OCP will risk in the patient getting pregnant. Cessation of oestrogen usually reverses the blood pressure back to normal, Hence, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      48.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very foul smell. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: Phenotypically they are female but with undeveloped breasts

      Correct Answer: They have no uterus

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?...

    Correct

    • What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device

      Explanation:

      Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

      If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.

      Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.

      Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.

      Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).

      The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography (CTG)?

      Your Answer: Fetal hypoxia

      Explanation:

      Repetitive late decelerations can be caused by fetal hypoxia which results in constriction of the vessels to circulate blood from the peripheries to more important organs of the body like the brain and heart etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of...

    Correct

    • During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?

      Your Answer: Occiput

      Explanation:

      A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/8) 13%
Clinical Management (5/9) 56%
Obstetrics (4/6) 67%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Embryology (0/2) 0%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Passmed