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  • Question 1 - What is accurate about the diagnosis and categorization of personality disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is accurate about the diagnosis and categorization of personality disorders?

      Your Answer: The DSM-5 uses the term emotionally and unstable personality disorder to describe individuals lacking a stable identity and who have unstable relationships with others

      Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder is recognised as a separate and distinct personality disorder within the DSM-5

      Explanation:

      The DSM-5 includes a distinct classification for narcissistic personality disorder.

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

      UK Epidemiology

      The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is a true statement about the neocortex? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the neocortex?

      Your Answer: It contains both pyramidal and nonpyramidal cells

      Explanation:

      The Cerebral Cortex and Neocortex

      The cerebral cortex is the outermost layer of the cerebral hemispheres and is composed of three parts: the archicortex, paleocortex, and neocortex. The neocortex accounts for 90% of the cortex and is involved in higher functions such as thought and language. It is divided into 6-7 layers, with two main cell types: pyramidal cells and nonpyramidal cells. The surface of the neocortex is divided into separate areas, each given a number by Brodmann (e.g. Brodmann’s area 17 is the primary visual cortex). The surface is folded to increase surface area, with grooves called sulci and ridges called gyri. The neocortex is responsible for higher cognitive functions and is essential for human consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the term that describes the process when a teenager strongly holds...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term that describes the process when a teenager strongly holds onto their own beliefs and adopts few of their parents' values and practices?

      Your Answer: Assimilation

      Correct Answer: Separation

      Explanation:

      Assimilation refers to the process in which immigrants adopt the practices and values of their new culture while abandoning their own cultural heritage. Marginalization, on the other hand, occurs when immigrants neither adopt the new culture nor retain their own cultural values, resulting in social exclusion and isolation. These two outcomes are on opposite ends of the spectrum in terms of the degree of adoption and retention of cultural values.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What psychological process is referred to by the term 'cocktail party effect'? ...

    Correct

    • What psychological process is referred to by the term 'cocktail party effect'?

      Your Answer: Focussed attention in presence of multiple stimuli

      Explanation:

      The term phatic communication is used to describe casual conversation. The ‘cocktail party effect’ is the ability to concentrate on one person’s voice in any setting, such as a classroom, sports game, of coffee shop, even if there is a lot of background noise.

      The Cocktail Party Effect: Selective Attention in Noisy Environments

      The cocktail party effect is a phenomenon that allows individuals to selectively focus on a single conversation in a noisy environment, while ignoring other competing conversations. This feature of selective attention is particularly useful in social situations, such as parties, where multiple conversations are taking place simultaneously. For instance, if you are conversing with a friend at a noisy party, you can effectively tune out the surrounding noise and concentrate on your friend’s conversation. This ability to filter out irrelevant information and focus on relevant information is a crucial aspect of human cognition. It enables us to navigate complex social environments and engage in meaningful interactions with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What distinguishing characteristics indicate a diagnosis of dissociative non-epileptic attacks (pseudoseizures) instead of...

    Incorrect

    • What distinguishing characteristics indicate a diagnosis of dissociative non-epileptic attacks (pseudoseizures) instead of generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Correct Answer: Gradual onset of episode

      Explanation:

      The presence of a gradual onset may indicate non-epileptic attacks, while other symptoms suggest genuine generalised tonic clonic seizures. Additional characteristics of pseudoseizures include a higher incidence in females (8:1), a history of previous illness behavior, and childhood physical and/of sexual abuse. Diagnosis can be challenging, but video EEG can be a useful tool in confirming the presence of pseudoseizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia exhibits significant thought disorder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia exhibits significant thought disorder and unpredictable conduct. He is presently residing in a shelter for the homeless and has been observed to have inadequate self-maintenance and social abilities. Based on this information, which subtype of schizophrenia according to ICD-10 is indicated?

      Your Answer: Simple

      Correct Answer: Hebephrenic

      Explanation:

      Hebephrenic schizophrenia is a type of schizophrenia that is classified in the ICD-10 as having a greater emphasis on thought disorder than hallucinations, with erratic of disorganized behavior being prominent. The DSM-IV equivalent is disorganized schizophrenia. Catatonic schizophrenia is characterized by abnormalities in psychomotor function. Paranoid schizophrenia is characterized by paranoid delusions and auditory hallucinations. Simple schizophrenia is not a suitable option because it is a subtype of schizophrenia that is characterized by a decline in functioning as the only clear symptom. Undifferentiated schizophrenia refers to a presentation of schizophrenia that does not fit into a specific subtype.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of these is not a typical symptom of epilepsy in the temporal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is not a typical symptom of epilepsy in the temporal lobe?

      Your Answer: Déjà vu phenomena

      Correct Answer: Visual aura

      Explanation:

      – Visual aura is not expected in temporal lobe epilepsy
      – Visual aura may occur in occipital seizures
      – Temporal lobe epilepsy is characterized by automatisms, altered consciousness, déjà vu, complex partial seizures, and olfactory hallucinations
      – Occipital epilepsy can cause visual phenomena and headaches
      – Occipital epilepsy should be differentiated from migraine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the relationship between depression and the HPA axis?

      Your Answer: Major depression is associated with hyposecretion of cortisol

      Correct Answer: Major depression is associated with increased levels of corticotropin-releasing factor in the CSF

      Explanation:

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the duration of time it takes for half of the olanzapine...

    Incorrect

    • What is the duration of time it takes for half of the olanzapine to be eliminated from the body?

      Your Answer: 2 hours

      Correct Answer: 30 hours

      Explanation:

      Given that olanzapine is a once daily medication, it is reasonable to estimate its half-life to fall within the range of 20-30 hours. As it happens, the actual half-life of olanzapine is 30 hours.

      Antipsychotic Half-life and Time to Steady State

      Antipsychotic medications are commonly used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Understanding the half-life and time to steady state of these medications is important for determining dosing and monitoring their effectiveness.

      Aripiprazole has a half-life of 75 hours and takes approximately 2 weeks to reach steady state. Olanzapine has a half-life of 30 hours and takes about 1 week to reach steady state. Risperidone has a half-life of 20 hours when taken orally and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Clozapine and Amisulpride both have a half-life of 12 hours and take 2-3 days to reach steady state. Ziprasidone has a shorter half-life of 7 hours and takes 2-3 days to reach steady state. Quetiapine has the shortest half-life of 6 hours and also takes 2-3 days to reach steady state.

      Knowing the half-life and time to steady state of antipsychotic medications can help healthcare providers determine the appropriate dosing and frequency of administration. It can also aid in monitoring the effectiveness of the medication and adjusting the treatment plan as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What condition primarily impacts females? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition primarily impacts females?

      Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Rett syndrome

      Explanation:

      Genetic Conditions and Their Features

      Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:

      – Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
      – Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
      – Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
      – Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
      – Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
      – Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
      – Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
      – Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
      – Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
      – Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
      – Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
      – Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
      – Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
      – Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
      – Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
      – Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
      – Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
      – Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
      – Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.

      It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old male patient is admitted to your inpatient ward after intentionally overdosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male patient is admitted to your inpatient ward after intentionally overdosing on his newly prescribed interferon medication for a neurological condition. During your physical assessment, you shine a penlight into his right eye and observe both pupils constricting. However, shining the light into his left eye does not elicit a response.
      Which cranial nerve may be affected by this observation?

      Your Answer: III

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      The pupils are innervated by both sides of the midbrain and respond to ambient light levels. If there is an optic nerve lesion, the non-damaged nerve becomes dominant and both pupils respond to ambient light from that nerve. A helpful mnemonic for remembering the cranial nerves and their functions is OOOTTAFVGVAH for the nerves and SSMMBMBSBBMM for their functions. To recall the innervation of the extraocular muscles, one can use SO4 LR6. The optic nerve is II, oculomotor is III and supplies all extraocular muscles except for the superior oblique and lateral rectus, trochlear is IV and innervates the superior oblique muscle for depression and intorsion, trigeminal is V and supplies sensory information and muscles of mastication, and abducens is VI and controls the lateral rectus muscle of the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In which context is the anglepoise lamp sign observed? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which context is the anglepoise lamp sign observed?

      Your Answer: Ambitendency

      Correct Answer: Mitgehen

      Explanation:

      – Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
      – Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
      – These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
      – Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which condition is linked to tardive dyskinesia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is linked to tardive dyskinesia?

      Your Answer: Ataxic dysarthria

      Correct Answer: Hyperkinetic dysarthria

      Explanation:

      Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.

      Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.

      Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.

      Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.

      Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.

      Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is a true statement about multiple sclerosis? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about multiple sclerosis?

      Your Answer: The mean age of onset is between 20 and 40

      Explanation:

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following neuropsychological assessments does not evaluate cognitive function? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neuropsychological assessments does not evaluate cognitive function?

      Your Answer: ADAS

      Correct Answer: Cornell Scale

      Explanation:

      Familiarity with neuropsychological scales is necessary for the MRCPsych exams, including knowledge of the purpose of the test, whether it requires a trained observer, and the approximate duration of the test. For example, the Cornell scale assesses depression in dementia, while the Alzheimer’s disease assessment scale (ADAS) consists of eleven sections for cognitive function and ten for non-cognitive functions, taking 45 minutes with a trained observer. The abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) takes three minutes and is scored out of ten, while the clock drawing test takes two minutes and is often used in conjunction with the MMSE as a screening tool for mild-moderate dementia. The MMSE is a widely used scale with a maximum score of 30.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cognitive Assessment
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the accurate statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of medications used in geriatric...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement regarding the pharmacokinetics of medications used in geriatric patients with mental health conditions?

      Your Answer: Biological half life is the time taken for the activity of the drug to decrease by half

      Correct Answer: In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is proportional to drug concentration

      Explanation:

      Elimination kinetics refers to the process by which drugs are removed from the body. In first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the plasma concentration of the drug. This is because clearance mechanisms, such as enzymes, are typically not saturated and drug clearance is observed to be a linear function of the drug’s concentration. A constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time.

      The half-life of a drug is the time it takes for the plasma concentration to decrease by half. The rate of elimination is influenced by factors such as renal and hepatic function, as well as drug interactions.

      Drug distribution is influenced by factors such as plasma protein binding, tissue perfusion, permeability of tissue membranes, and active transport out of tissues. The volume of distribution is a measure of the extent to which a drug is distributed throughout the body. It is calculated as the quantity of drug administered divided by the plasma concentration.

      Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins can displace each other, leading to an increase in the free plasma concentration. This can result in increased drug effects of toxicity.

      In some cases, a loading dose may be necessary to achieve therapeutic levels of a drug more quickly. This is particularly true for drugs with a long half-life, as it can take a longer time for the plasma levels of these drugs to reach a steady state. An initial loading dose can help to shorten the time to reach steady state levels.

      Overall, understanding elimination kinetics is important for optimizing drug dosing and minimizing the risk of adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a pathological characteristic observed in individuals with Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a pathological characteristic observed in individuals with Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Hypophosphorylated amyloid-beta

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphorylated tau

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What factor indicates a negative...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. What factor indicates a negative outcome?

      Your Answer: Good premorbid personality

      Correct Answer: Gradual onset

      Explanation:

      A slow and steady development indicates a negative outcome, while all other factors suggest a positive prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Aetiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What gene is thought to be abnormal in individuals diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis?...

    Incorrect

    • What gene is thought to be abnormal in individuals diagnosed with tuberous sclerosis?

      Your Answer: APP

      Correct Answer: TSC1

      Explanation:

      Rett syndrome is caused by mutations in the MeCP2 gene.

      Tuberous Sclerosis: A Neurocutaneous Syndrome with Psychiatric Comorbidity

      Tuberous sclerosis is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the brain, and is associated with significant psychiatric comorbidity. This neurocutaneous syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern with a high penetrance rate of 95%, but its expression can vary widely. The hallmark of this disorder is the growth of multiple non-cancerous tumors in vital organs, including the brain. These tumors result from mutations in one of two tumor suppressor genes, TSC1 and TSC2. The psychiatric comorbidities associated with tuberous sclerosis include autism, ADHD, depression, anxiety, and even psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid...

    Correct

    • What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid potential complications?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Pseudocholinesterase Deficiency

      Pseudocholinesterase deficiency, also known as butyrylcholinesterase deficiency, is a medical condition that can lead to increased sensitivity to certain drugs. This condition affects approximately 1 in 3200 to 1 in 5000 people, with higher prevalence in certain populations such as the Persian Jewish community and Alaska Natives. Interestingly, this condition does not cause any noticeable symptoms until an abnormal drug reaction occurs.

      It is important for individuals with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid certain drugs, including donepezil, galantamine, procaine, succinylcholine, and pilocarpine. By avoiding these drugs, individuals with this condition can reduce their risk of experiencing adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What factor would increase the likelihood of serotonin syndrome in an individual who...

    Incorrect

    • What factor would increase the likelihood of serotonin syndrome in an individual who is taking an SSRI medication?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What cell type plays a significant role in the formation of the blood-brain...

    Incorrect

    • What cell type plays a significant role in the formation of the blood-brain barrier?

      Your Answer: Microglia

      Correct Answer: Astrocyte

      Explanation:

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signals in the brain? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signals in the brain?

      Your Answer: Serotonin

      Correct Answer: Glutamate

      Explanation:

      Glutamate is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signaling in the brain.

      Glutamate: The Most Abundant Neurotransmitter in the Brain

      Glutamate is a neurotransmitter that is found in abundance in the brain. It is always excitatory and can act through both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. This neurotransmitter is believed to play a crucial role in learning and memory processes. Its ability to stimulate neurons and enhance synaptic plasticity is thought to be responsible for its role in memory formation. Glutamate is also involved in various other brain functions, including motor control, sensory perception, and emotional regulation. Its importance in the brain makes it a target for various neurological disorders, including Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which ion channel blockade is believed to be the primary cause of the arrhythmogenic potential of tricyclic antidepressants?

      Your Answer: Chloride

      Correct Answer: Sodium

      Explanation:

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - What is the definition of transcription? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of transcription?

      Your Answer: The process where there is a change in a base pair sequence in DNA

      Correct Answer: The process where messenger RNA is produced from DNA

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 27 - An adolescent boy attends a counseling session for an assessment. His school counselor...

    Incorrect

    • An adolescent boy attends a counseling session for an assessment. His school counselor believes him to be struggling with identity issues and in need of support.
      He is accompanied by his mother who shares that they recently moved to the United States from Mexico. From his mother, you learn that he has been struggling to fit in with his peers and feels disconnected from his Mexican heritage. He has been trying to adopt American customs and has been avoiding speaking Spanish.
      Which approach to acculturation is implied?

      Your Answer: Assimilation

      Correct Answer: Separation

      Explanation:

      She has maintained her home culture and not assimilated into the dominant culture, which is known as separation.

      Multiculturalism is the coexistence of various cultural of ethnic groups within a shared social and political framework. Acculturation is the process of cultural and psychological change that occurs when different cultural groups come into contact with each other. Canadian psychologist John Berry identified four paths to acculturation: assimilation, integration, separation, and marginalization. Assimilation involves giving up one’s home culture and adopting the dominant culture, while integration involves maintaining one’s home culture while also embracing the dominant culture. Separation involves maintaining one’s home culture while being isolated from the dominant culture, and marginalization involves giving up one’s home culture and failing to related properly to the dominant culture. There is a cultural debate regarding assimilation and multiculturalism, with two forms of assimilation recognized: total assimilation, which involves the obliteration of the non-dominant culture, and melting pot assimilation, which refers to a less extreme version where a new form of the dominant culture emerges. Laissez-faire multiculturalism refers to multiculturalism that occurs without planning, such as the existence of Chinatowns in most cities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which option is not included in Vaillant's categories of defence mechanisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not included in Vaillant's categories of defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Immature

      Correct Answer: Depressive

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 29 - A 70-year-old man, who is being treated for psychotic depression, arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man, who is being treated for psychotic depression, arrives at the emergency department in a state of confusion. He has a fever and is tachycardic. During the examination, it is observed that he has generalised muscular rigidity in his extremities, which is present throughout all ranges of movement. Additionally, he displays signs of tremors. What medication is the most probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      This is a case of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which is primarily associated with the use of antipsychotic medications. The key features of NMS include mental status changes, muscular rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability, typically presenting as tachycardia. Mental state changes are often the first symptom to appear.

      Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 30 - You are requested to assess a young patient on the gastroenterology ward who...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a young patient on the gastroenterology ward who has recently developed auditory hallucinations. The patient has abnormal liver function tests and a past medical history of excessive alcohol consumption. Which antipsychotic medication would you recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (9/10) 90%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (1/1) 100%
Social Psychology (2/2) 100%
Classification And Assessment (3/3) 100%
Psychopharmacology (7/7) 100%
Genetics (3/3) 100%
Neurological Examination (1/1) 100%
Cognitive Assessment (1/1) 100%
Aetiology (1/1) 100%
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