-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
What is the number of half-lives needed for a drug to be eliminated by 97% from the body?
Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
What is the accurate statement about the post-injection syndrome linked with olanzapine embonate?
Your Answer: The risk is increased in young females
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Although the occurrence of the post-injection syndrome is rare, patients must still be observed for three hours after receiving the depot injection.
, coma, respiratory depression (rare)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
What is the most common condition associated with psychogenic polydipsia?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
In which phase does the process of genetic recombination occur?
Your Answer: Anaphase II
Correct Answer: Prophase I
Explanation:Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.
During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.
In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.
Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
If there is no plasma assay available for the drug, measuring prolactin levels may be helpful in verifying adherence to which of the following?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Elevated serum prolactin levels are a known side effect of Risperidone. Similarly, Amisulpride, Haloperidol, Paliperidone, and Sulpiride are also antipsychotics that can cause increased prolactin levels. However, Aripiprazole, Clozapine, Olanzapine, and Quetiapine are typically not associated with elevated prolactin levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
What database is most suitable for finding scholarly material that has not undergone official publication?
Your Answer: CINAHL
Correct Answer: SIGLE
Explanation:SIGLE is a database that contains unpublished of ‘grey’ literature, while CINAHL is a database that focuses on healthcare and biomedical journal articles. The Cochrane Library is a collection of databases that includes the Cochrane Reviews, which are systematic reviews and meta-analyses of medical research. EMBASE is a pharmacological and biomedical database, and PsycINFO is a database of abstracts from psychological literature that is created by the American Psychological Association.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
The ependyma fuse with which of the following to from the choroid plexus?
Your Answer: Tentorium cerebella
Correct Answer: Tela choroidea
Explanation:The choroid plexus produces the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain. It consists of modified ependymal cells. Tela choroidea is a region of pia mater of the meninges and underlying ependyma that’s a part of the choroid plexus. It is a very thin layer of the connective tissue of pia mater that overlies and covers the ependyma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What is the average number of digits that individuals can remember in the digit span forwards test?
Your Answer: 9 +/- 1
Correct Answer: 7 +/- 2
Explanation:The Magical Number Seven, Plus of Minus Two: Some Limits on Our Capacity for Processing Information
Miller’s (1956) study focused on the limits of our short-term memory capacity, specifically in regards to our ability to recall sequences of numbers. The digit span test, which involves repeating back increasingly longer sequences of numbers both forwards and backwards, is used to measure this capacity. Miller found that the normal range for Digit Span forward was a maximum span of 7±2 digits. This study highlights the limitations of our short-term memory and the importance of understanding these limitations in various contexts, such as education and cognitive psychology.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
Which enzyme converts L-DOPA to dopamine?
Your Answer: DOPA decarboxylase
Explanation:Tyrosine is converted to L-DOPA by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase. L-DOPA is then converted to dopamine by the enzyme dopa decarboxylase.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A child collapses onto their stomach with just a light touch on their back, even though they were instructed to resist the touch. What is the observed behavior?
Your Answer: Vorbeigehen
Correct Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:Automatic obedience is a term used to describe the act of obeying without conscious thought. Mitgehen is a related term that describes an exaggerated form of automatic obedience. It is important to be aware of other German terms such as Gedankenlautwerden, which refers to the experience of hearing one’s own thoughts out loud, Gegenhalten, which is when a patient resists passive movements with equal force, and Schnauzkrampf, a facial grimace often seen in catatonic patients. Another term to be aware of is Vorbeigehen/vorbeireden, which is observed in Ganser syndrome and refers to giving approximate answers to questions. For example, a patient may answer 14 when asked how many fingers a man has.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to refer to individuals with a certain chromosomal abnormality as super-males?
Your Answer: 48 XXXY
Correct Answer: 47 XYY
Explanation:XYY Syndrome
XYY Syndrome, also known as Jacobs’ Syndrome of super-males, is a genetic condition where males have an extra Y chromosome, resulting in a 47, XYY karyotype. In some cases, mosaicism may occur, resulting in a 47,XYY/46,XY karyotype. The error leading to the 47,XYY genotype occurs during spermatogenesis of post-zygotic mitosis. The prevalence of XYY Syndrome is as high as 1:1000 male live births, but many cases go unidentified as they are not necessarily associated with physical of cognitive impairments. The most common features are high stature and a strong build, and fertility and sexual development are usually unaffected. In the past, XYY Syndrome was linked to aggressiveness and deviance, but this is likely due to intermediate factors such as reduced IQ and social deprivation. XYY Syndrome is best thought of as a risk factor rather than a cause. There is an increased risk of developmental disorders such as learning difficulties, ASD, ADHD, and emotional problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
Who was the first theorist to describe imprinting?
Your Answer: Spalding
Explanation:The idea of filial imprinting was initially observed in domestic chickens by Douglas Spalding in the 1800s, and later discussed by Heinroth before being made well-known by Lorenz. Additionally, Immelmann discussed sexual imprinting, while Westermarck introduced the concept of reverse sexual imprinting, which suggests that individuals who spend their early years in close proximity are less likely to be sexually attracted to each other later in life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Where are the cell bodies to the preganglionic neurons located?
Your Answer: Forebrain
Correct Answer: Midbrain
Explanation:The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are located in the lateral grey column of the spinal cord and in the motor nuclei of the 3rd, 7th, 9th and 10th cranial nerves. These cranial nerves take origin from the midbrain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A teenage male patient with a first episode of schizophrenia is interested in discussing long-term treatment options. He expresses concern about potential sexual side-effects and states that he would discontinue therapy if they were to occur. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sexual Dysfunction: Causes, Risks, and Management
Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of antipsychotic medication, with the highest risk associated with risperidone and haloperidol due to their effect on prolactin levels. Clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, aripiprazole, asenapine, and lurasidone are associated with lower rates of sexual dysfunction. The Arizona Sexual Experiences Scale (ASEX) can be used to measure sexual dysfunction before and during treatment. Management options include excluding other causes, watchful waiting, dose reduction, switching to a lower risk agent, adding aripiprazole, considering an antidote medication, of using sildenafil for erectile dysfunction. It is important to address sexual dysfunction to improve quality of life and medication adherence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Who coined the term 'dementia praecox' in the field of psychiatry?
Your Answer: Karl Jaspers
Correct Answer: Emil Kraepelin
Explanation:Emil Kraepelin is credited with establishing modern scientific psychiatry and coining the term dementia praecox, while Aaron Beck is known as the pioneer of cognitive therapy. Carl Jung founded analytical psychotherapy, and Eugen Bleuler is recognized for introducing the term schizophrenia to replace dementia praecox. Additionally, Karl Jaspers was a psychiatrist and existential philosopher.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- History Of Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
Which allele is believed to have a protective effect against Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer: APOE5
Correct Answer: APOE2
Explanation:APOE3 is considered to have a neutral effect on the risk of developing certain health conditions.
Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
Which of the following accurately defines a pseudohallucination? Please rephrase the question slightly and maintain the paragraph spacing.
Your Answer: A hallucination experienced beyond the normal sensory field
Correct Answer: A hallucination without the quality of a normal percept
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations are often distinguished from true hallucinations by their lack of a genuine perceptual quality, although this distinction can be challenging to apply in practice. True hallucinations can be induced by illicit drug use. extracampine hallucinations, which are typically visual and occur outside of the normal sensory field, are considered true hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are not exclusive to schizophrenia and can manifest in various sensory modalities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
What is the more commonly used name for Trisomy 13 syndrome?
Your Answer: Downs syndrome
Correct Answer: Patau syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Features
Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:
– Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
– Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
– Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
– Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
– Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
– Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
– Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
– Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
– Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
– Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
– Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
– Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
– Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
– Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
– Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
– Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
– Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
– Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old female with long-standing epilepsy experiences severe hyponatremia. What medication is the probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Tiagabine
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug that is used to treat seizures and nerve pain. However, it can also cause some major systemic side effects. These include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can be quite severe in some cases. Another potential side effect is hyponatremia, which is a condition where the blood sodium levels become too low. This can cause symptoms such as confusion, seizures, and even coma in severe cases.
Carbamazepine can also cause skin reactions such as rash and pruritus (itching). These can range from mild to severe and may require medical attention. Finally, fluid retention is another potential side effect of carbamazepine. This can cause swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet, and may also lead to weight gain.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes carbamazepine will experience these side effects. However, if you do experience any of these symptoms, it is important to speak with your doctor right away. They may be able to adjust your dosage of switch you to a different medication to help alleviate these side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the Addenbrooke's cognitive examination (ACE-III)?
Your Answer: Attention is tested by asking the client to spell the word WORLD backwards
Correct Answer: The ACE-III takes approximately 20 minutes to complete
Explanation:The ACE-III is a tool used to evaluate for dementia, but it does not screen for delirium. A diagnosis of dementia is typically made if the score falls between 82-88 out of 100. The original ACE included the MMSE, which allowed for a score to be calculated. However, some items on the MMSE, such as repeating the phrase no ifs, ands, of buts and spelling words backwards, were found to be problematic and have since been replaced. Therefore, it is no longer possible to derive an MMSE score from the ACE.
The Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Exam: A Brief Screening Tool for Dementia
The Addenbrooke’s cognitive examination (ACE) is a cognitive screening tool developed to detect dementia and differentiate Alzheimer’s dementia from frontotemporal dementia. It was created to address the limitations of the MMSE, which lacked sensitivity for frontal-executive dysfunction and visuospatial defects. The ACE is a brief test that takes 15-20 minutes to administer and is divided into five domains: attention and orientation, memory, verbal fluency, language, and visuospatial abilities. The total score is based on a maximum score of 100, with higher scores indicating better cognitive functioning.
The ACE has been shown to be a valid tool for detecting dementia, with two cut-off points often used depending on the required sensitivity and specificity. A score of less than 88 has 100% sensitivity for detecting dementia, while a score of less than 82 has 93% sensitivity and 100% specificity. It has also been useful in differentiating dementia from pseudo dementia and detecting cognitive impairment in atypical Parkinson syndromes. However, while the test has shown 100% sensitivity and specificity in studies, its performance may vary in clinical practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
Which of the following is not an inducer of the Cytochrome P450 system?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Cytochrome P450 is an important enzyme system involved in drug metabolism. Certain substances can either increase or decrease the activity of this system. Smoking, alcohol, barbiturates, carbamazepine, Phenytoin, and St John’s Wort are known to induce the activity of cytochrome P450. On the other hand, chlorpromazine, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), and grapefruit juice are known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
In which of the following therapeutic approaches are the three flawed processes 'traps, snags, and dilemmas' identified?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive analytical therapy
Explanation:Mentalisation therapy is a psychotherapy approach that is particularly helpful for individuals with borderline personality disorder. It is psychodynamically-oriented and focuses on helping individuals develop the ability to mentalise, of understand their own and others’ thoughts, feelings, and intentions. This therapy approach aims to improve interpersonal relationships and reduce impulsive and self-destructive behaviors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
What is the breakdown product of serotonin?
Your Answer: 5-Aminoglycine
Correct Answer: 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid
Explanation:Serotonin: Synthesis and Breakdown
Serotonin, also known as 5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT), is synthesized in the central nervous system (CNS) in the raphe nuclei located in the brainstem, as well as in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract in enterochromaffin cells. The amino acid L-tryptophan, obtained from the diet, is used to synthesize serotonin. L-tryptophan can cross the blood-brain barrier, but serotonin cannot.
The transformation of L-tryptophan into serotonin involves two steps. First, hydroxylation to 5-hydroxytryptophan is catalyzed by tryptophan hydroxylase. Second, decarboxylation of 5-hydroxytryptophan to serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine) is catalyzed by L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase.
Serotonin is taken up from the synapse by a monoamine transporter (SERT). Substances that block this transporter include MDMA, amphetamine, cocaine, TCAs, and SSRIs. Serotonin is broken down by monoamine oxidase (MAO) and then by aldehyde dehydrogenase to 5-Hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
From which substance is gamma-aminobutyric acid synthesized?
Your Answer: Glutamate
Explanation:Glutamate is the precursor for the synthesis of GABA.
Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the placebo effect?
Your Answer: The lower the placebo response rate the more difficult it is to power studies to show treatment effects
Correct Answer: The placebo response is greater in mild rather than severe illness
Explanation:The placebo response rate is on the rise in published studies, which is believed to be due to a larger number of patients with less severe forms of illness participating in these studies.
Understanding the Placebo Effect
In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.
Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.
The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.
It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A team of scientists aimed to examine the prognosis of late-onset Alzheimer's disease using the available evidence. They intend to arrange the evidence in a hierarchy based on their study designs.
What study design would be placed at the top of their hierarchy?Your Answer: Expert opinion
Correct Answer: Systematic review of cohort studies
Explanation:When investigating prognosis, the hierarchy of study designs starts with a systematic review of cohort studies, followed by a cohort study, follow-up of untreated patients from randomized controlled trials, case series, and expert opinion. The strength of evidence provided by a study depends on its ability to minimize bias and maximize attribution. The Agency for Healthcare Policy and Research hierarchy of study types is widely accepted as reliable, with systematic reviews and meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials at the top, followed by randomized controlled trials, non-randomized intervention studies, observational studies, and non-experimental studies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
What is the opioid system modulator that is prescribed to decrease alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: Acamprosate
Correct Answer: Nalmefene
Explanation:Nalmefene is a medication that affects the opioid system by partially activating the κ receptor and blocking the μ and σ receptors. It is believed to reduce the pleasurable effects of alcohol by targeting the mesolimbic system and opioid receptors, helping individuals decrease their alcohol consumption.
Acamprosate works by targeting NMDA and GABA receptors, which can reduce the urge to drink alcohol.
Disulfiram inhibits the enzyme acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which is involved in breaking down alcohol. If someone drinks alcohol while taking disulfiram, they may experience a severe and potentially deadly reaction due to the buildup of acetaldehyde. Disulfiram is typically used by individuals who have stopped drinking and want to maintain their sobriety.
Naltrexone is a medication that blocks opioid receptors and can be used to treat both opioid and alcohol addiction.
Naloxone is a short-acting medication that blocks opioid receptors and is used in emergency situations to treat opioid overdose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following scenarios would indicate that there is no linkage based on the LOD score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: -3
Explanation:Linkage and LOD Scores in Genetics
In genetics, when genes are located close to each other on a chromosome, they tend to be inherited together and are referred to as linked genes. Conversely, genes that are far apart of located on different chromosomes are inherited independently and are said to follow independent assortment. To determine the relative distance between two genes, scientists can analyze the offspring of an organism that displays two strongly linked traits and calculate the percentage of offspring where the traits do not co-segregate.
To determine if there is evidence for linkage between two genes, scientists use a statistical method called the LOD score (logarithm of the odds). A LOD score of >3 is considered significant evidence for linkage, while a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. The LOD score is calculated by comparing the likelihood of the observed data under the assumption of linkage to the likelihood of the data under the assumption of independent assortment. The LOD score provides a measure of the strength of evidence for linkage between two genes and is widely used in genetic research.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)