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  • Question 1 - You evaluate a 30-year-old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of HIV. She inquires...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of HIV. She inquires about her diagnosis and has some questions for you.
      Choose from the options provided below the ONE CD4 count that indicates advanced HIV disease (also referred to as AIDS).

      Your Answer: 200 cells/mm3

      Explanation:

      A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3. In individuals diagnosed with HIV, the CD4 count is typically monitored every 3-6 months. It is important to note that the CD4 count can fluctuate on a daily basis and can be influenced by the timing of the blood test as well as the presence of other infections or illnesses.

      When the CD4 count falls below 350 cells/mm3, it is recommended to consider starting antiretroviral therapy. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of advanced HIV disease, also known as AIDS defining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason for admitting this patient?

      Your Answer: Age under 16

      Correct Answer: Previous successful inpatient detox

      Explanation:

      NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      113.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a dry cough that has been going...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a dry cough that has been going on for a week. He also complains of muscle aches, fatigue, and a sore throat. In the past day, he has developed diarrhea and a mild throbbing headache. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 37.8°C, and faint crackles are heard at the base of his lungs.

      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection from Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features commonly associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection include a flu-like illness that occurs before respiratory symptoms, fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs typically develop later in the course of the illness. It is worth noting that Mycoplasma pneumoniae is frequently linked to the development of erythema multiforme and can also be a cause of Steven-Johnson syndrome. The rash associated with erythema multiforme is characterized by multiple red lesions on the limbs that develop into target lesions a few days after the rash first appears.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      115.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You assess a patient with a significantly elevated potassium level.
    What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient with a significantly elevated potassium level.
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, can be caused by various factors that are not related to drug use. These include conditions such as renal failure, where the kidneys are unable to properly regulate potassium levels, and excess potassium supplementation. Other non-drug causes include Addison’s disease, a condition characterized by adrenal insufficiency, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. Renal tubular acidosis, specifically type 4, can also lead to hyperkalaemia. Additionally, conditions like rhabdomyolysis, burns and trauma, and tumour lysis syndrome can contribute to elevated potassium levels. Acidosis, an imbalance in the body’s pH levels, is another non-drug cause of hyperkalaemia.

      On the other hand, certain medications have been associated with hyperkalaemia. These include ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, beta-blockers, digoxin, and suxamethonium. These drugs can interfere with the body’s potassium regulation mechanisms and lead to increased levels of potassium in the blood.

      In contrast, there are also conditions that result in low levels of potassium, known as hypokalaemia. Bartter’s syndrome, a rare inherited defect in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, is characterized by hypokalaemic alkalosis and normal to low blood pressure. Type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis are other conditions that cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, type 4 renal tubular acidosis leads to hyperkalaemia. Gitelman’s syndrome, another rare inherited defect, affects the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney and causes a metabolic alkalosis with hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia.

      Lastly, excessive consumption of liquorice can result in a condition called hypermineralocorticoidism, which can lead to hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      71.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 42-year-old man with a history of kidney stones presents with left flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of kidney stones presents with left flank pain and a high temperature. You diagnose him with acute pyelonephritis.
      Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: Fever is unusual

      Correct Answer: The gallbladder fills with pus, which is usually sterile initially

      Explanation:

      Acute cholecystitis occurs when a stone becomes stuck in the outlet of the gallbladder, causing irritation of the wall and resulting in chemical cholecystitis. This leads to the accumulation of pus within the gallbladder, which is typically sterile at first. However, there is a possibility of secondary infection with enteric organisms like Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp.

      The clinical features of acute cholecystitis include severe pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium, which can radiate to the back and lasts for more than 12 hours. Fevers and rigors are often present, along with common symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Murphy’s sign is a useful diagnostic tool, as it has a high sensitivity and positive predictive value for acute cholecystitis. However, its specificity is lower, as it can also be positive in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis.

      In cases of acute cholecystitis, the white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated. AST, ALT, and ALP may also show elevation, but they can often be within the normal range. Bilirubin levels may be mildly elevated, but they can also be normal. If there is a significant increase in AST, ALT, ALP, and/or bilirubin, it may indicate the presence of other biliary tract conditions such as ascending cholangitis or choledocholithiasis.

      It is important to note that there is some overlap in the presentation of biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis. To differentiate between these diagnoses, the following list can be helpful:

      Biliary colic:
      – Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
      – Fever: Absent
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Normal
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
      – Bilirubin: Normal

      Acute cholecystitis:
      – Pain duration: More than 12 hours
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Positive
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
      – Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevated

      Ascending cholangitis:
      – Pain duration: Variable
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      86.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A middle-aged man is brought in by ambulance, having collapsed. There is currently...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man is brought in by ambulance, having collapsed. There is currently a summer heatwave, and he has a suspected diagnosis of heat stroke.
      Which of the following statements regarding heat stroke is FALSE?

      Your Answer: Antipyretics (e.g. paracetamol) should be administered at the earliest opportunity

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a systemic inflammatory response, where the core body temperature exceeds 40.6°C. It is accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. Heat stroke occurs when the body’s ability to regulate temperature is overwhelmed by a combination of excessive environmental heat, excessive heat production from metabolic processes (usually due to exertion), and inadequate heat loss.

      It is important to consider other clinical conditions that can cause an increased core temperature. Sepsis can present similarly and should be ruled out. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome should be excluded in patients taking phenothiazines or other antipsychotics. Serotonin syndrome should be considered and excluded in patients taking serotonergic medications such as SSRIs. Malignant hyperthermia should be considered in patients with a recent history of general anesthesia. Screening for recreational drug use, particularly cocaine, amphetamines, and ecstasy, is also recommended.

      Antipyretics, such as paracetamol, aspirin, and NSAIDs, do not have a role in the treatment of heat stroke. They work by interrupting the change in the hypothalamic set point caused by pyrogens, which is not the case in heat stroke where the hypothalamus is overwhelmed but functioning properly. In fact, antipyretics may be harmful in patients who develop complications in the liver, blood, and kidneys, as they can worsen bleeding tendencies.

      Benzodiazepines, like diazepam, can be beneficial in patients experiencing agitation and/or shivering. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases of agitation, paralysis may be necessary.

      There are various cooling techniques recommended for the treatment of heat stroke, but currently, there is limited conclusive evidence on the most effective approach. Some possible methods include simple measures like consuming cold drinks, using fans, applying ice water packs, and spraying tepid water. Cold water immersion therapy can be helpful, but it requires the patient to be stable and cooperative, making it impractical for very sick patients. Advanced cooling techniques, such as cold IV fluids, surface cooling devices (SCD), intravascular cooling devices (ICD), and extracorporeal circuits, may be used for sicker patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      80.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are getting ready to administer Propofol to a patient for cardioversion and...

    Correct

    • You are getting ready to administer Propofol to a patient for cardioversion and anticipate a potential side effect. What is a common adverse reaction associated with Propofol?

      Your Answer: Hypotension

      Explanation:

      Propofol often leads to hypotension as a common side effect. Other common side effects of Propofol include apnoea, arrhythmias, headache, and nausea with vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Procedural sedation is commonly used by emergency department (ED) doctors to minimize pain and discomfort during procedures that may be painful or distressing for patients. Effective procedural sedation requires the administration of analgesia, anxiolysis, sedation, and amnesia. This is typically achieved through the use of a combination of short-acting analgesics and sedatives.

      There are different levels of sedation, ranging from minimal sedation (anxiolysis) to general anesthesia. It is important for clinicians to understand the level of sedation being used and to be able to manage any unintended deeper levels of sedation that may occur. Deeper levels of sedation are similar to general anesthesia and require the same level of care and monitoring.

      Various drugs can be used for procedural sedation, including propofol, midazolam, ketamine, and fentanyl. Each of these drugs has its own mechanism of action and side effects. Propofol is commonly used for sedation, amnesia, and induction and maintenance of general anesthesia. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine that enhances the effect of GABA on the GABA A receptors. Ketamine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is used for dissociative sedation. Fentanyl is a highly potent opioid used for analgesia and sedation.

      The doses of these drugs for procedural sedation in the ED vary depending on the drug and the route of administration. It is important for clinicians to be familiar with the appropriate doses and onset and peak effect times for each drug.

      Safe sedation requires certain requirements, including appropriate staffing levels, competencies of the sedating practitioner, location and facilities, and monitoring. The level of sedation being used determines the specific requirements for safe sedation.

      After the procedure, patients should be monitored until they meet the criteria for safe discharge. This includes returning to their baseline level of consciousness, having vital signs within normal limits, and not experiencing compromised respiratory status. Pain and discomfort should also be addressed before discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45 year old man presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness....

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness. The patient describes a sensation of the room spinning around him and a constant ringing in his ears. He mentions feeling nauseated and experiencing a decrease in his hearing ability. These symptoms began an hour ago, but he had a similar episode earlier in the week that lasted for 2-3 hours. The patient did not seek medical attention at that time, thinking the symptoms would resolve on their own. There is no significant medical history to note. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are within normal range, and his cardiovascular and respiratory systems appear normal. The ears appear normal upon examination with an otoscope. Rinne's test reveals that air conduction is greater than bone conduction in both ears, while Weber's test shows lateralization to the right ear. When asked to march on the spot with his eyes closed, the patient stumbles and requires assistance to maintain balance. No other abnormalities are detected in the cranial nerves, and the patient's limbs exhibit normal power, tone, and reflexes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      One type of brainstem infarction is characterized by the presence of complete deafness on the same side as the affected area. This condition is unlikely to be caused by a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke due to the patient’s age and absence of risk factors. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) causes brief episodes of vertigo triggered by head movements. On the other hand, vestibular neuronitis (also known as vestibular neuritis) causes a persistent sensation of vertigo rather than intermittent episodes.

      Further Reading:

      Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and low frequency hearing loss. The exact cause of the disease is unknown, but it is believed to be related to excessive pressure and dilation of the endolymphatic system in the middle ear. Meniere’s disease is more common in middle-aged adults, but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally.

      The clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that can last from minutes to hours. These attacks often occur in clusters, with several episodes happening in a week. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure. Nystagmus and a positive Romberg test are common findings, and the Fukuda stepping test may also be positive. While symptoms are typically unilateral, bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests can be used to help diagnose Meniere’s disease. In Rinne’s test, air conduction should be better than bone conduction in both ears. In Weber’s test, the sound should be heard loudest in the unaffected (contralateral) side due to the sensorineural hearing loss.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms often resolve within 5-10 years, but most patients are left with some residual hearing loss. Psychological distress is common among patients with this condition.

      The diagnostic criteria for Meniere’s disease include clinical features consistent with the disease, confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry, and exclusion of other possible causes.

      Management of Meniere’s disease involves an ENT assessment to confirm the diagnosis and perform audiometry. Acute attacks can be treated with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and hospital admission may be necessary in some cases. Betahistine may be beneficial for prevention of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      182.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male intravenous drug user who frequently visits the emergency department presents with abdominal pain. Upon examination, the patient exhibits clinical signs of jaundice. The patient reveals that he was diagnosed with hepatitis B approximately 10 months ago but did not follow up on the recommended treatment. You decide to repeat his hepatitis serology.

      What findings would be anticipated in a patient with chronic hepatitis B infection?

      Your Answer: Anti-HBc positive and HBsAg positive

      Explanation:

      In a patient with chronic hepatitis B, the typical serology results would show positive anti-HBc and positive HBsAg. This indicates that the patient has a long-term infection with hepatitis B. The presence of IgG anti-HBc indicates that the infection will persist for life, while IgM anti-HBc will only be present for about 6 months.

      If a patient has positive anti-HBs but all other serological markers are negative, it suggests that they have been previously immunized against hepatitis B. On the other hand, if a patient has positive anti-HBs along with positive anti-HBc, it indicates that they have developed immunity following a past infection.

      In the case of an acute hepatitis B infection that has been cleared more than 6 months ago, the serology results would typically show positive anti-HBc but negative HBsAg. This indicates that the infection has been successfully cleared by the immune system.

      Further Reading:

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.

      Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.

      Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.

      In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.

      Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      121.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease comes in with...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease comes in with a fever, abdominal pain, ascites, and worsening hepatic encephalopathy. The doctor suspects spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. Which ONE statement is correct regarding this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patients should be administered broad-spectrum antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a sudden bacterial infection of the fluid in the abdomen. It typically occurs in patients with high blood pressure in the portal vein, and about 70% of cases are seen in patients with severe liver disease. In any given year, around 30% of patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen will develop SBP.

      SBP can present with a wide range of symptoms, so it’s important to be vigilant when caring for patients with fluid buildup in the abdomen, especially if there is a sudden decline in their condition. Some patients may not show any symptoms at all.

      Common clinical features of SBP include fever (80% of cases), abdominal pain (70% of cases), worsening or unexplained confusion due to liver dysfunction, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and bowel obstruction.

      There are several factors that increase the risk of developing SBP, including severe liver disease (Child-Pugh class C), gastrointestinal bleeding, urinary tract infection, excessive growth of bacteria in the intestines, presence of indwelling lines such as central venous catheters or urinary catheters, previous episodes of SBP, and low levels of protein in the fluid buildup in the abdomen.

      To diagnose SBP, a procedure called abdominal paracentesis is performed to collect fluid from the abdomen. The following findings on fluid analysis strongly suggest SBP: total white blood cell count in the fluid greater than 500 cells/µL, total neutrophil count in the fluid greater than 250 cells/µL, lactate level in the fluid higher than 25 mg/dL, pH of the fluid below 7.35, and presence of bacteria on Gram-stain.

      Patients with SBP should be admitted to the hospital and treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The preferred antibiotic is an intravenous third-generation cephalosporin, such as Ceftriaxone. If the patient is allergic to beta-lactam antibiotics, ciprofloxacin can be considered as an alternative. Administration of intravenous albumin has been shown to reduce the risk of kidney failure and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      92.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness, and sensitivity to light. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 124, blood pressure 86/43, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 95%, and temperature 39.5oC. She has recently developed a rash of small red spots on her legs that do not fade when pressed.
      What is the MOST suitable next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give IV benzylpenicillin 1.2 g

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg

      Explanation:

      In a child with a non-blanching rash, it is important to consider the possibility of meningococcal septicaemia. This is especially true if the child appears unwell, has purpura (lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter), a capillary refill time of more than 3 seconds, or neck stiffness. In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      In this particular case, the child is clearly very sick and showing signs of septic shock. It is crucial to administer a single dose of benzylpenicillin without delay and arrange for immediate transfer to the nearest Emergency Department via ambulance.

      The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin based on age are as follows:
      – Infants under 1 year of age: 300 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children aged 1 to 9 years: 600 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children and adults aged 10 years or older: 1.2 g of IM or IV benzylpenicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You...

    Correct

    • A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
      Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following features is LEAST indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer: Focal seizures

      Explanation:

      NICE has emphasized that certain indications and manifestations may indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of fever. For instance, symptoms such as neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle, decreased level of consciousness, and convulsive status epilepticus are suggestive of bacterial meningitis. On the other hand, NICE has identified focal seizures and focal neurological signs as the most indicative of herpes simplex encephalitis. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      101
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her hiking guide following...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old is brought to the emergency department by her hiking guide following a mountain hike. The guide informs you that the patient had been resting for a few minutes when the left side of her face drooped and her speech became incomprehensible. On examination, you observe dysphasia, a left-sided facial droop, and weakness of the left arm. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 92 bpm
      Blood pressure: 128/80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate: 18 bpm
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on air
      Temperature: 36.9°C

      What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis following CT exclusion of cerebral haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber

      Explanation:

      Henry’s law describes the correlation between the quantity of dissolved gas in a liquid and its partial pressure above the liquid. According to Henry’s law, the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas above the liquid. In the case of nitrogen narcosis, as the patient descends deeper into the water, the pressure increases, causing more nitrogen to dissolve in the bloodstream. As the patient ascends, the pressure decreases, leading to a decrease in the amount of dissolved nitrogen and improvement in symptoms.

      Further Reading:

      Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.

      Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.

      Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.

      Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.

      Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.

      Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      122.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after developing severe tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient rates the severity as 10/10 on the visual analogue scale. You note the patient is prescribed medication for hypertension but the patient admits she rarely takes her tablets. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 180/88 mmHg
      Pulse rate 92 bpm
      Respiration rate 22 rpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. You prescribe antihypertensive therapy. What is the target systolic blood pressure in this patient?

      Your Answer: 120-140 mmHg

      Correct Answer: 100-120 mmHg

      Explanation:

      To manage aortic dissection, it is important to lower the systolic blood pressure to a range of 100-120 mmHg. This helps decrease the strain on the damaged artery and minimizes the chances of the dissection spreading further. In this patient, symptoms such as tearing chest pain and a widened mediastinum on the chest X-ray are consistent with aortic dissection.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Gout is becoming more prevalent in Western societies due to various factors, including...

    Correct

    • Gout is becoming more prevalent in Western societies due to various factors, including longer lifespans, high protein diets, and an increasing occurrence of metabolic syndrome.

      Which of the following conditions is not typically associated with metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Gout is a form of arthritis that causes a swollen, tender, red, and hot joint. Initially, it was believed to primarily affect wealthy individuals due to dietary connections, but it is now becoming more prevalent and is estimated to impact around 1-2% of the Western population. This increase may be attributed to longer lifespans and changes in our eating habits. Additionally, there is a positive correlation between the rising rates of metabolic disease and gout.

      While gout commonly affects the metatarsal-phalangeal joint of the big toe (approximately 50% of cases), it can also impact other joints such as the fingers, wrists, knees, and ankles. The pain experienced during an episode is often excruciating, and these episodes typically last about a week. Approximately half of the patients experience a recurrence within a year.

      Hyperuricemia is the underlying cause of gout. Uric acid, a byproduct of purine metabolism, is typically eliminated through the kidneys. However, in about 90% of cases, hyperuricemia occurs due to the under-excretion of urate, while the remaining 10% is caused by overproduction. Elevated urate levels increase the likelihood of crystal formation. Measuring uric acid levels in the blood can be misleading, as some individuals with high levels do not develop gout, and levels can be normal during an attack. The crystallization process is complex and more likely to occur in cooler temperatures (which is why the feet are often affected, and symptoms worsen at night), during acidosis, and when there are rapid fluctuations in uric acid levels.

      Diagnosing gout is primarily based on clinical evaluation. If there is a rapid onset of severe pain, swelling, and tenderness that reaches its peak within 6-12 hours, accompanied by redness, it strongly suggests crystal inflammation. The presence of monosodium urate crystals in synovial fluid or tophi confirms the diagnosis. When these crystals are examined under polarized light, they exhibit negative birefringence. Since gout symptoms can be mistaken for septic arthritis, if there is uncertainty in the diagnosis and the joint has been aspirated, it should also be sent for gram-staining.

      Tophi are painless, hard lumps that develop when hyperuricemia persists for an extended period. They often appear on the elbows and ears.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old construction worker comes in with intense pain in his left eye...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old construction worker comes in with intense pain in his left eye following an incident at the job site where a significant amount of cement dust entered his left eye.
      Which of the following long-term complications is the LEAST probable to develop?

      Your Answer: Open-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Cement contains lime, which is a powerful alkali, and this can cause a serious eye emergency that requires immediate treatment. Alkaline chemicals, such as oven cleaner, ammonia, household bleach, drain cleaner, oven cleaner, and plaster, can also cause damage to the eyes. They lead to colliquative necrosis, which is a type of tissue death that results in liquefaction. On the other hand, acids cause damage through coagulative necrosis. Common acids that can harm the eyes include toilet cleaners, certain household cleaning products, and battery fluid.

      The initial management of a patient with cement or alkali exposure to the eyes should be as follows:

      1. Irrigate the eye with a large amount of normal saline for 20-30 minutes.
      2. Administer local anaesthetic drops every 5 minutes to help keep the eye open and alleviate pain.
      3. Monitor the pH every 5 minutes until a neutral pH (7.0-7.5) is achieved. Briefly pause irrigation to test the fluid from the forniceal space using litmus paper.

      After the initial management, a thorough examination should be conducted, which includes the following steps:

      1. Examine the eye directly and with a slit lamp.
      2. Remove any remaining cement debris from the surface of the eye.
      3. Evert the eyelids to check for hidden cement debris.
      4. Administer fluorescein drops and check for corneal abrasion.
      5. Assess visual acuity, which may be reduced.
      6. Perform fundoscopy to check for retinal necrosis if the alkali has penetrated the sclera.
      7. Measure intraocular pressure through tonometry to detect secondary glaucoma.

      Once the eye’s pH has returned to normal, irrigation can be stopped, and the patient should be promptly referred to an ophthalmology specialist for further evaluation.

      Potential long-term complications of cement or alkali exposure to the eyes include closed-angle glaucoma, cataract formation, entropion, keratitis sicca, and permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore throat, fever, altered voice, and difficulty opening her mouth. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a peritonsillar abscess and decide to perform a needle aspiration. What is a well-known complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Accidental puncture of internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery is situated approximately 2.5 cm behind and to the side of the tonsil. When performing an aspiration procedure for a peritonsillar abscess, there is a risk of puncturing this artery. In the UK, it is common for emergency department doctors to refer the task of draining a peritonsillar abscess to the on-call ENT team due to their lack of familiarity and experience with the procedure. It is worth noting that Lemierre’s syndrome, which is infective thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein, is a complication of deep neck infections and not directly related to the aspiration procedure.

      Further Reading:

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a collection of pus that forms between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles. It is often a complication of acute tonsillitis and is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The exact cause of a peritonsillar abscess is not fully understood, but it is believed to occur when infection spreads beyond the tonsillar capsule or when small salivary glands in the supratonsillar space become blocked.

      The most common causative organisms for a peritonsillar abscess include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobic organisms. Risk factors for developing a peritonsillar abscess include smoking, periodontal disease, male sex, and a previous episode of the condition.

      Clinical features of a peritonsillar abscess include severe throat pain, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), fever, headache, drooling of saliva, bad breath, painful swallowing, altered voice, ear pain on the same side, neck stiffness, and swelling of the soft palate. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation, but imaging scans such as CT or ultrasound may be used to assess for complications or determine the best site for drainage.

      Treatment for a peritonsillar abscess involves pain relief, intravenous antibiotics to cover for both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, intravenous fluids if swallowing is difficult, and drainage of the abscess either through needle aspiration or incision and drainage. Tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence. Complications of a peritonsillar abscess can include sepsis, spread to deeper neck tissues leading to necrotizing fasciitis or retropharyngeal abscess, airway compromise, recurrence of the abscess, aspiration pneumonia, erosion into major blood vessels, and complications related to the causative organism. All patients with a peritonsillar abscess should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old artist returns from a vacation in Thailand with a severely painful...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old artist returns from a vacation in Thailand with a severely painful and red right eye. The symptoms appeared rapidly within a day, and the eye now has excessive mucopurulent discharge and swelling of the eyelid. During the examination, tender pre-auricular lymphadenopathy is observed on the right side. Upon further inquiry, the patient confesses to having visited a sex worker during their trip to Thailand.

      Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this individual?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Sexually transmitted eye infections can be quite severe and are often characterized by prolonged mucopurulent discharge. There are two main causes of these infections: Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoea. Differentiating between the two can be done by considering certain features.

      Chlamydia trachomatis infection typically presents with chronic low-grade irritation and mucous discharge that lasts for more than two weeks in sexually active individuals. It may also be accompanied by pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. This type of infection is usually unilateral but can sometimes affect both eyes.

      On the other hand, Neisseria gonorrhoea infection tends to develop rapidly, usually within 12 to 24 hours. It is characterized by copious mucopurulent discharge, eyelid swelling, and tender preauricular lymphadenopathy. This type of infection carries a higher risk of complications, such as uveitis, severe keratitis, and corneal perforation.

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, it appears that they are more consistent with a Neisseria gonorrhoea infection. The rapid onset, copious discharge, and tender preauricular lymphadenopathy are indicative of this type of infection.

      Treatment for gonococcal conjunctivitis in adults is typically based on limited research. However, a study has shown that all 12 patients responded well to a single 1 g intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone, along with a single episode of ocular lavage with saline.

      In summary, sexually transmitted eye infections can be caused by either Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoea. Differentiating between the two is important in order to provide appropriate treatment. The patient in this case exhibits symptoms that align more closely with a Neisseria gonorrhoea infection, which carries a higher risk of complications. Treatment options for gonococcal conjunctivitis are limited, but a single injection of ceftriaxone has shown positive results in previous studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      65.8
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  • Question 19 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being discovered confused and drowsy by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level. Upon reviewing the salicylate result, you initiate a urinary alkalinisation protocol. Which metabolic imbalance is linked to urinary alkalinisation and necessitates careful monitoring?

      Your Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Urinary alkalinisation, which involves the intravenous administration of sodium bicarbonate, carries the risk of hypokalaemia. It is important to note that both alkalosis and acidosis can cause shifts in potassium levels. In the case of alkalinisation, potassium is shifted from the plasma into the cells. Therefore, it is crucial to closely monitor the patient for hypokalaemia by checking their potassium levels every 1-2 hours.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      66.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old man with a known history of heart disease presents due to...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man with a known history of heart disease presents due to a general decline in his health. He complains of feeling extremely tired and has been experiencing occasional heart palpitations over the past few days. A complete set of blood tests, including a venous gas, have been sent to the laboratory, revealing a potassium level of 7.3 mmol/l. An ECG is performed, which shows abnormal, wide QRS complexes.
      What is the initial treatment that should be administered first?

      Your Answer: IV calcium chloride

      Explanation:

      This patient has been diagnosed with severe hyperkalemia and is showing significant ECG changes. The top priority in this situation is to protect the heart. It is recommended to administer 10 ml of 10% calcium chloride immediately over a period of 2-5 minutes. Calcium helps counteract the harmful effects of hyperkalemia on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane and preventing unwanted depolarization.

      Hyperkalemia is a commonly encountered electrolyte disorder, affecting up to 10% of hospitalized patients. It is typically caused by an increase in potassium release from cells or impaired excretion by the kidneys. The main causes of hyperkalemia include renal failure, certain medications (such as ACE inhibitors, ARBs, potassium-sparing diuretics, and NSAIDs), tissue breakdown (as seen in conditions like tumor lysis, rhabdomyolysis, and hemolysis), metabolic acidosis (often associated with renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis), and endocrine disorders like Addison’s disease.

      ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalemia include a prolonged PR interval, peaked T-waves, widening of the QRS complex, reduced or absent P wave, sine wave pattern, AV dissociation, asystole, and bradycardia. It is important to note that the severity of ECG changes may not always correlate with the actual serum potassium levels in a patient.

      The treatment approach for hyperkalemia depends on its severity. Mild hyperkalemia is defined as a potassium level of 5.5-5.9 mmol/L, moderate hyperkalemia as 6.0-6.4 mmol/L, and severe hyperkalemia as >6.5 mmol/L.

      For mild hyperkalemia, the focus should be on addressing the underlying cause and preventing further increase in serum potassium levels. This may involve adjusting medications or dietary changes. If treatment is necessary, potassium exchange resins like calcium resonium can be used to remove potassium from the body.

      In cases of moderate hyperkalemia, the goal is to shift potassium from the extracellular space into the cells. This can be achieved by administering insulin and glucose intravenously. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in this situation. Potassium exchange resins should also be considered, and dialysis may be necessary.

      Severe hyperkalemia without ECG changes requires immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      1.3
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  • Question 21 - A 6 month old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 month old girl is brought into the emergency department with a history of being submerged in the pool while swimming with her parents. One of the parents explains that the child was floating on a pool noodle when a wave hit, causing the child to fall off the noodle. The child was not wearing any flotation devices and it took approximately 1 minute to find and rescue her from the water. Your consultant mentions that the child's diving reflex would have been activated. Which of the following statements accurately describes the diving reflex?

      Your Answer: Stimulated by increased pressure on the tympanic membrane during submersion

      Correct Answer: Results in peripheral vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The diving reflex occurs when the face comes into contact with cold water, leading to apnoea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction. This response helps decrease the workload on the heart, lower oxygen demand in the heart muscle, and ensure adequate blood flow to the brain and vital organs. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is responsible for transmitting sensory information, while the vagus nerve (CN X) primarily controls the motor response. This reflex is more prominent in young children and is believed to contribute to their improved survival rates in prolonged submersion in cold water.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      151.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car crash and sustains severe facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car crash and sustains severe facial injuries. Facial X-rays and CT scans show the presence of a Le Fort I fracture.
      What is the most probable cause of this injury?

      Your Answer: A force through the lower maxilla

      Correct Answer: A force directed in a downward direction against the upper teeth

      Explanation:

      Le Fort fractures are intricate fractures of the midface, which involve the maxillary bone and the surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the separation of the pterygomaxillary due to trauma. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening situations and disfigurement.

      The causes of Le Fort fractures vary depending on the type of fracture. Common mechanisms include motor vehicle accidents, sports injuries, assaults, and falls from significant heights. Patients with Le Fort fractures often have concurrent head and cervical spine injuries. Additionally, they frequently experience other facial fractures, as well as neuromuscular injuries and dental avulsions.

      The specific type of fracture sustained is determined by the direction of the force applied to the face. Le Fort type I fractures typically occur when a force is directed downward against the upper teeth. Le Fort type II fractures are usually the result of a force applied to the lower or mid maxilla. Lastly, Le Fort type III fractures are typically caused by a force applied to the nasal bridge and upper part of the maxilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe left eye pain and loss of...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe left eye pain and loss of vision in the left eye. After conducting a comprehensive examination and measuring the intraocular pressure, you diagnose her with acute closed-angle glaucoma.
      Which of the following statements about acute closed-angle glaucoma is correct?

      Your Answer: intraocular pressures are often greater than 30 mmHg

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is a medical emergency in the field of ophthalmology. It occurs when the iris bows forward and blocks the fluid access to the trabecular meshwork, which is located at the entrance to Schlemm’s canal. As a result, the intraocular pressure rises and leads to glaucomatous optic neuropathy.

      The main clinical features of acute closed-angle glaucoma include severe eye pain, loss of vision or decreased visual acuity, congestion and redness around the cornea, corneal swelling, a fixed semi-dilated oval-shaped pupil, nausea and vomiting, and preceding episodes of blurred vision or seeing haloes.

      The diagnosis can be confirmed by tonometry, which measures the pressure inside the eye. The normal range of intraocular pressure is 10-21 mmHg, but in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is often higher than 30 mmHg. Goldmann’s applanation tonometer is commonly used in hospitals for this purpose.

      Management of acute closed-angle glaucoma should include providing pain relief, such as morphine, and antiemetics if the patient is experiencing vomiting. Intravenous administration of acetazolamide 500 mg is recommended to reduce intraocular pressure. Treatment with a topical miotic, like pilocarpine 1% or 2%, should be initiated approximately one hour after starting other measures, as the pupil may initially be paralyzed and unresponsive.

      On the other hand, chronic open-angle glaucoma is a more common presentation than acute closed-angle glaucoma. It affects approximately 1 in 50 people over the age of 40 and 1 in 10 people over the age of 75. In this condition, there is a partial blockage within the trabecular meshwork, which hinders the drainage of aqueous humor and gradually increases intraocular pressure, leading to optic neuropathy. Unlike acute closed-angle glaucoma, chronic open-angle glaucoma does not cause eye pain or redness. It presents gradually with a progressive loss of peripheral vision, while central vision is relatively preserved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old man presents with frequent urination and excessive thirst. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents with frequent urination and excessive thirst. He has a history of bipolar affective disorder, which has been effectively managed with lithium for many years.

      You schedule blood tests for him, and the results are as follows:

      Na: 150 mmol/L (135-147 mmol/L)
      K: 3.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5 mmol/L)
      Urea: 9.5 mmol/L (2.0-6.6 mmol/L)
      Creatinine: 127 mmol/L (75-125 mmol/L)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is a condition where the body is unable to produce concentrated urine. It is characterized by excessive thirst, increased urination, and constant need to drink fluids. There are two main types of diabetes insipidus: cranial (central) and nephrogenic.

      Cranial diabetes insipidus occurs when there is a deficiency of vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone. This hormone helps regulate the amount of water reabsorbed by the kidneys. In patients with cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output can be as high as 10-15 liters per day. However, with adequate fluid intake, most patients are able to maintain normal sodium levels. The causes of cranial diabetes insipidus can vary, with 30% of cases being idiopathic (unknown cause) and another 30% being secondary to head injuries. Other causes include neurosurgery, brain tumors, meningitis, granulomatous disease (such as sarcoidosis), and certain medications like naloxone and phenytoin. There is also a very rare inherited form of cranial diabetes insipidus that is associated with diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy, nerve deafness, and bladder atonia.

      On the other hand, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus occurs when there is resistance to the action of vasopressin in the kidneys. Similar to cranial diabetes insipidus, urine output is significantly increased in patients with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Serum sodium levels can be maintained through excessive fluid intake or may be elevated. The causes of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus include chronic renal disease, metabolic disorders like hypercalcemia and hypokalemia, and certain medications like long-term use of lithium and demeclocycline.

      Based on the history of long-term lithium use in this particular case, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      84.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You review a 62-year-old woman who presents with vaginal discharge. She has been...

    Correct

    • You review a 62-year-old woman who presents with vaginal discharge. She has been experiencing these symptoms for the past six weeks and describes the discharge as having a slight odor. The patient is not sexually active and has never had a similar discharge before. Additionally, she reports a single episode of visible blood in her urine one week ago but has not experienced any further episodes or discomfort while urinating.

      What would be the MOST SUITABLE next course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Organise a direct access ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      According to the latest NICE guidance, it is recommended that women aged 55 and over with unexplained symptoms of vaginal discharge should undergo a direct access ultrasound scan to assess for endometrial cancer. This recommendation applies to women who are experiencing these symptoms for the first time or who have thrombocytosis, haematuria (blood in the urine), visible haematuria, low haemoglobin levels, or high blood glucose levels. For more information, please refer to the NICE referral guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      145.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department after being bitten...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department after being bitten by a stray dog. The patient has three small puncture wounds and mentions slight bleeding from both puncture wounds after the initial bite that ceased after applying pressure for 10 minutes. The patient inquires about the necessity of antibiotics. What is the most suitable reply?

      Your Answer: Issue a prescription for a 3 day course of co-amoxiclav

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to administer prophylactic oral antibiotics to individuals who have experienced a cat bite that has broken the skin and cause bleeding. For patients over one month of age, co-amoxiclav should be prescribed for a duration of 3 days. In cases where the patient is allergic to penicillin, a combination of metronidazole and doxycycline should be given for 3 days. If the wound shows signs of infection, the antibiotic treatment should be extended to 5 days.

      Prophylactic oral antibiotics may also be considered for individuals with a cat bite that has broken the skin but has not caused bleeding, especially if the wound is deep.

      Debridement, the removal of dead tissue, should be considered for wounds that are damaged, have abscess formation, lymphangitis, severe cellulitis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, necrotising fasciitis, or infected bite wounds that are not responding to treatment. Additionally, individuals who are systemically unwell should also undergo debridement.

      Antibiotics should also be considered for other animal bites, such as dog bites, that have broken the skin and cause bleeding.

      Further Reading:

      Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.

      Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.

      When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.

      Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.

      The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.

      Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.

      Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      126.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, as the ECG machine has indicated 'anterior infarction' in its comments.

      Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute anterior STEMI?

      Your Answer: V3-V4

      Explanation:

      The leads V3 and V4 represent the anterior myocardial area.

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      89.7
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  • Question 28 - You review a 72-year-old man who is currently on the Clinical Decision Unit...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 72-year-old man who is currently on the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) after undergoing surgery for a hip fracture that occurred as a result of a fall. He informs you that he experienced the onset of menopause in his early 50s. His primary care physician recently arranged for a DEXA scan, and you have obtained the results from the CDU computer. The scan reveals a T-score of -3.0 standard deviations. Upon reviewing his medical history and family history, you discover that his father suffered a hip fracture in his early 60s, and the patient himself has a body mass index of 21 kg/m2.

      Which SINGLE statement regarding this case is true?

      Your Answer: She has osteopenia

      Correct Answer: She has osteoporosis and ideally should be started on a combination of treatment such as alendronate and calcichew D3 forte

      Explanation:

      Fragility fractures occur when a person experiences a fracture from a force that would not typically cause a fracture, such as a fall from a standing height or less. The most common areas for fragility fractures are the vertebrae, hip, and wrist. Osteoporosis is diagnosed when a patient’s bone mineral density, measured by a T-score on a DEXA scan, is -2.5 standard deviations or below. This T-score compares the patient’s bone density to the peak bone density of a population. In women over 75 years old, osteoporosis can be assumed without a DEXA scan. Osteopenia is diagnosed when a patient’s T-score is between -1 and -2.5 standard deviations below peak bone density. Risk factors for fractures include a family history of hip fractures, excessive alcohol consumption, and rheumatoid arthritis. Low bone mineral density can be indicated by a BMI below 22 kg/m2, untreated menopause, and conditions causing prolonged immobility or certain medical conditions. Medications used to prevent osteoporotic fractures in postmenopausal women include alendronate, risedronate, etidronate, and strontium ranelate. Raloxifene is not used for primary prevention. Alendronate is typically the first-choice medication and is recommended for women over 70 years old with confirmed osteoporosis and either a risk factor for fracture or low bone mineral density. Women over 75 years old with two risk factors or two indicators of low bone mineral density may be assumed to have osteoporosis without a DEXA scan. Other pharmacological interventions can be tried if alendronate is not tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      253.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She is brought to the resus area of your Emergency Department by a blue light ambulance. A trauma call is initiated, and a primary survey is conducted. She is stable hemodynamically, and the only abnormality found is a severely swollen and deformed left thigh area. An X-ray is taken, which shows a fracture in the proximal femoral shaft. The child is experiencing significant pain, and you decide to apply skin traction to immobilize the fracture. You also plan to administer a dose of intranasal diamorphine.
      The child weighs 12 kg. What is the appropriate dose of intranasal diamorphine to administer?

      Your Answer: 1.5 mg

      Explanation:

      Femoral shaft fractures are quite common among children and have a significant impact on both the child and their family. It is important to carefully examine children with these fractures for any associated injuries, such as soft-tissue injury, head trauma, or additional fractures. In fact, up to 40% of children who experience a femoral shaft fracture due to high-energy trauma may have these associated injuries. Additionally, a thorough neurovascular examination should be conducted.

      Rapidly immobilizing the limb is crucial for managing pain and limiting further blood loss from the fracture. For distal femoral shaft fractures, well-padded long leg splints with split plaster casts can be applied. However, for more proximal shaft fractures, long leg splints alone may not provide adequate control. In these cases, skin traction is a better option. Skin traction involves attaching a large foam pad to the patient’s lower leg using spray adhesive. A weight, approximately 10% of the child’s body weight, is then applied to the foam pad and allowed to hang over the foot of the bed. This constant longitudinal traction helps keep the bone fragments aligned.

      When children experience severe pain, it is important to manage it aggressively yet safely. Immobilizing the fracture can provide significant relief. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine recommends other pain control measures for children, such as intranasal diamorphine (0.1 mg/kg in 0.2 ml sterile water), intravenous morphine (0.1-0.2 mg/kg), and oral analgesia (e.g., paracetamol 20 mg/kg, max 1 g, and ibuprofen 10 mg/kg, max 400 mg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      99.3
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness and numbness in his legs...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness and numbness in his legs for the past several days. Additionally, he has been feeling breathless during walking. He recently went on a vacation where he had diarrhea, and a stool culture confirmed an infection with Campylobacter jejuni.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) affects approximately 1-2 individuals per 100,000 annually and is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral nervous system, including the autonomic system. The most common initial symptom is weakness in the hands or feet, often accompanied by pain and tingling sensations as the paralysis spreads. Miller Fisher syndrome, a variant of GBS, is characterized by a triad of symptoms: ataxia, areflexia, and ophthalmoplegia.

      Due to the potential serious consequences of autonomic involvement, such as fluctuations in blood pressure and cardiac arrhythmias, patients with GBS are typically hospitalized. As the diaphragm becomes paralyzed and swallowing becomes difficult, patients may require ventilation and nasogastric feeding.

      GBS is an autoimmune disease that usually develops within three weeks of an infection. The leading cause is Campylobacter jejuni, followed by Epstein-Barr virus, cytomegalovirus, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. While the patient’s immune response effectively targets the initial infection, it also mistakenly attacks the host tissue.

      Symptoms of GBS typically peak around four weeks and then gradually improve. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, which confirms the presence of areflexia and progressive weakness in the legs (and sometimes arms). Nerve conduction studies and lumbar puncture can also aid in diagnosis, with the latter often showing elevated protein levels and few white blood cells.

      Treatment for GBS is primarily supportive, with the use of immunoglobulins to shorten the duration of the illness being common. Plasma exchange may also be utilized, although it has become less common since the introduction of immunoglobulin therapy.

      Approximately 80% of patients with GBS make a full recovery, although this often requires a lengthy hospital stay. The mortality rate is around 5%, depending on the availability of necessary facilities such as ventilatory support during the acute phase. Additionally, about 15% of patients may experience some permanent disability, such as weakness or pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      50.3
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old woman came in ten days ago with a fever, tenderness in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman came in ten days ago with a fever, tenderness in the suprapubic area, and discharge from the vagina. The doctors diagnosed her with pelvic inflammatory disease and started her on antibiotics. She initially got better, but now she is back with intense pain in her lower abdomen and a temperature of 39.5°C.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tubo-ovarian abscess

      Explanation:

      This patient is highly likely to have developed a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA), which is a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease. TOA occurs when a pocket of pus forms in the fallopian tube and/or ovary. If the abscess ruptures, it can lead to sepsis and become life-threatening.

      The initial imaging modality of choice is transabdominal and endovaginal ultrasound. This imaging technique often reveals multilocular complex retro-uterine/adnexal masses with debris, septations, and irregular thick walls. These masses can be present on both sides.

      Urgent hospital admission is necessary, and the usual management involves draining the abscess and administering intravenous antibiotics. The abscess drainage can be guided by ultrasound or CT scanning.

      In some cases, laparotomy or laparoscopy may be required to drain the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      58.7
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  • Question 32 - A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a truck that had veered onto the sidewalk where the patient was standing. The patient has a significant bruise on the back of her head and seems lethargic.

      You are worried about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following physical signs suggest elevated ICP?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Vomiting after a head injury should raise concerns about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Signs of elevated ICP include vomiting, changes in pupil size or shape in one eye, decreased cognitive function or consciousness, abnormal findings during fundoscopy (such as blurry optic discs or bleeding in the retina), cranial nerve dysfunction (most commonly affecting CN III and VI), weakness on one side of the body (a late sign), bradycardia (slow heart rate), high blood pressure, and a wide pulse pressure. Irregular breathing that may progress to respiratory distress, focal neurological deficits, and seizures can also be indicative of elevated ICP.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      76.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She has...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She has been experiencing chills and feeling unwell and is worried about the potential of having an infection. She informs you that she is currently prescribed an antibiotic as a preventive measure against neutropenic sepsis.
      Which of the subsequent antibiotic classes is utilized for this specific purpose?

      Your Answer: Fluoroquinolones

      Explanation:

      According to the latest guidelines from NICE, it is recommended that adult patients who are undergoing treatment for acute leukaemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumours and are expected to experience significant neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy, should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone such as ciprofloxacin (500 mg taken orally twice daily) during the period when neutropenia is expected. This is to help prevent the occurrence of neutropenic sepsis, a serious infection that can occur in cancer patients with low levels of neutrophils.

      Reference:
      NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      82.5
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  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of a painful throat, high...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of a painful throat, high temperature, diarrhea, and muscle aches. Her temperature today is 38.6°C. Approximately 8 months ago, she began misusing intravenous drugs and acknowledges sharing needles. During the examination, you confirm the existence of lymph node swelling in the neck and armpits. Additionally, she has developed a widespread rash consisting of small raised bumps on her chest and abdomen.

      Select from the options below the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Explanation:

      This man is at high risk of contracting HIV due to his history of intravenous drug abuse and sharing needles. If a patient has a flu-like illness and a history of risk factors, it is important to suspect that they may be experiencing an HIV seroconversion illness.

      Around 20-60% of individuals who contract HIV go through a seroconversion illness. This typically occurs within 1 to 6 weeks after exposure and presents with symptoms similar to the flu. Common clinical features include fever, malaise, myalgia, pharyngitis, diarrhea, headaches, maculopapular rash, lymphadenopathy, and neuralgia.

      During this stage of the disease, antibody tests will show negative results. However, a diagnosis of HIV can still be made by conducting a P24 antigen test or measuring HIV RNA levels. CD4 and CD8 counts are usually within the normal range at this stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      64.5
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  • Question 35 - A 72-year-old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a nosebleed that began...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a nosebleed that began 2 hours ago. The patient reports taking two daily tablets to manage hypertension, and their blood pressure was deemed satisfactory during their last health check 3 months ago.

      What would be the most suitable initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Advise the patient to pinch the cartilaginous part of nose whilst leaning forwards

      Explanation:

      To control nosebleeds, it is recommended to have the patient sit upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Apply firm pressure to the cartilaginous part of the nose, just in front of the bony septum, and hold it for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The FAST scan shows cardiac tamponade. If left untreated, expanding cardiac tamponade can lead to which of the following arrhythmias?

      Your Answer: Pulseless electrical activity

      Explanation:

      If a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury has an expanding cardiac tamponade that is left untreated, it can potentially lead to pulseless electrical activity.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with central heavy...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department with central heavy chest pain that began 10 hours ago while the patient was sitting down watching television. The patient has previously refused treatment for high cholesterol and stage 1 hypertension. Physical examination reveals a mildly elevated blood pressure of 156/94 mmHg, but is otherwise unremarkable. The ECG shows ST depression and T wave inversion in leads V1-V3. Initial troponin results are negative, and a second high sensitivity troponin assay performed 3 hours later also returns negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Unstable angina

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between unstable angina and other acute coronary syndromes can be done by looking at normal troponin results. If serial troponin tests come back negative, it can rule out a diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Unstable angina is characterized by myocardial ischemia occurring at rest or with minimal exertion, without any acute damage or death of heart muscle cells. The patient in question shows ECG and biochemical features that align with this definition. Vincent’s angina, on the other hand, refers to an infection in the throat accompanied by ulcerative gingivitis.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      105.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 72-year-old woman comes in with a history of passing fresh red blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She is experiencing low blood pressure, and her shock index is calculated to be 1.4.

      Which initial investigation is recommended for hospitalized patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeding who are in a state of hemodynamic instability?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Correct Answer: CT angiography

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).

      For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      86.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
    Which...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumoniae pneumonia.
      Which of the following is NOT a recognized complication of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection does not have a connection with infective endocarditis. However, it is associated with various extra-pulmonary complications. These include skin conditions such as erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. In the central nervous system, it can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome, meningitis, encephalitis, optic neuritis, cerebellar ataxia, and cranial nerve palsies. Gastrointestinal symptoms may include anorexia, nausea, diarrhea, hepatitis, and pancreatitis. Hematological complications can manifest as cold agglutinins, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection can also cause pericarditis and myocarditis. Rheumatic symptoms such as arthralgia and arthritides may occur, and acute glomerulonephritis can affect the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and itchy right eye. On examination, there is mild redness of the conjunctiva, and small bumps are visible on the inside of the eyelid. The eyelid is swollen, and there are a few small red spots on the white part of the eye. The eye is watery, and there is no pus. He recently had a mild cold. You diagnose him with viral conjunctivitis.
      According to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: The child should be excluded from school until the infection has resolved

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing viral conjunctivitis, it’s important to reassure the patient that most cases are self-limiting and don’t require antimicrobial treatment. In fact, viral conjunctivitis usually resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, there are some self-care measures that can help ease symptoms. These include cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water, applying cool compresses around the eye area, and using lubricating drops or artificial tears. It’s also important to avoid prescribing antibiotics if possible.

      It’s crucial to inform the person that infective conjunctivitis is contagious and they should take steps to prevent spreading the infection to their other eye and other people. This includes washing hands frequently with soap and water, using separate towels and flannels, and avoiding close contact with others, especially if they are a healthcare professional or child-care provider. It’s worth noting that the infection can be contagious for up to 14 days from onset. It’s important to provide written information to the patient, explain the red flags for an urgent review, and advise them to seek further help if symptoms persist beyond 7 days. If the person returns with symptoms of conjunctivitis, it may be necessary to consider sending swabs for viral PCR and bacterial culture, as well as prescribing empirical topical antibiotics if they haven’t already been prescribed. If symptoms persist for more than 7-10 days after initiating treatment, it may be necessary to discuss with or refer to ophthalmology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      92.6
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (3/4) 75%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Surgical Emergencies (0/2) 0%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Cardiology (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (4/4) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/2) 50%
Maxillofacial & Dental (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (0/1) 0%
Pain & Sedation (1/1) 100%
Oncological Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Passmed