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  • Question 1 - A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are...

    Correct

    • A 90-year-old man is prescribed spironolactone after his family notices his legs are swollen. What class of drugs does spironolactone belong to?

      Your Answer: Potassium-sparing diuretics

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a renal competitive aldosterone antagonist in a class of drugs called ā€˜potassium-sparing diureticsā€™, that is primarily used to treat fluid build-up due to heart failure, liver scarring, or kidney disease. It is also used in the treatment of high blood pressure, low blood potassium, early-onset puberty, and acne and excessive hair growth in women. Spironolactone inhibits the effect of aldosterone by competing for intracellular aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule cells. This increases the secretion of water and sodium, while decreasing the excretion of potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the...

    Correct

    • What is the percentage of bone calcium that is freely exchangeable with the extracellular fluid that is available for buffering changes in the calcium ion balance?

      Your Answer: 1%

      Explanation:

      Around 1% of calcium in the body is available for buffering changes in calcium ion balance. These are mainly derived from the bone that are freely exchangeable with extracellular fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      201.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which...

    Incorrect

    • Different portions of the renal tubule have varying degrees of water permeability. Which of the following renal sites is characterised by low water permeability under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: Proximal tubule

      Correct Answer: Thick ascending limb of the loop of HenlƩ

      Explanation:

      Within theĀ nephronĀ of theĀ kidney, theĀ ascending limb of the loop of HenleĀ is a segment of theĀ loop of HenleĀ downstream of theĀ descending limb, after the sharp bend of the loop. Both the thin and the thick ascending limbs of the loop of HenlĆ© have very low permeability to water. Since there are no regulatory mechanisms to alter its permeability, it remains poorly permeable to water under all circumstances. Sodium and chloride are transported out of the luminal fluid into the surrounding interstitial spaces, where they are reabsorbed. Water must remain behind because it is not reabsorbed, so the solute concentration becomes less and less (the luminal fluid becomes more dilute). This is one of the principal mechanisms (along with diminution of ADH secretion) for the production of a dilute, hypo-osmotic urine (water diuresis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.

      The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.

      The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CHOP

      Explanation:

      CHOP is the acronym for a chemotherapy regimen used in the treatment of non-Hodgkinā€™s lymphoma, comprising cyclophosphamide, hydroxyrubicin (adriamycin), vincristine and prednisone. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker should be requested to aid in the confirmation of the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is used as a tumour marker. CEA test measures the amount of this protein that may appear in the blood of some people who have certain types of cancers especially cancer of the colon and rectal cancer. It may also be present in the pancreas, breast, ovary or lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Incorrect

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - From which of the following cells is heparin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following cells is heparin produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mast cells

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a natural highly-sulphated glycosaminoglycan that has anticoagulant functions. It is produced by the body basophils and mast cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where? ...

    Incorrect

    • Bile salt reuptake principally occurs where?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the ileum

      Explanation:

      90 – 95% of the bile salts are absorbed from the small intestine (mostly terminal ileum and then excreted again from the liver. This is known as the enterohepatic circulation. The entire pool recycles twice per meal and approximately 6 to 8 times per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain....

    Incorrect

    • The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:

      Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone

      Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone

      Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone

      Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl who presented with a clinical picture of type I hypersensitivity reaction with eosinophilia is most likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver flukes

      Explanation:

      Usually a parasitic infection will be associated with a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

      Amyloid deposition will not cause an immune reaction.

      Organic dust will lead to a type III hypersensitivity reaction.

      Cell mediated as well as humoral immune mechanism play a part in syphilis, but they are do not specifically cause a type I reaction.

      Malaria is cause by plasmodium and is not cause of a hypersensitivity reaction.

      Atopic dermatitis will not be accompanied by eosinophilia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old patient presenting with squamous cell carcinoma of the anal canal was brought in to the oncology ward for chemotherapy. In which of the following lymph nodes of this patient would you likely find metastases?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac

      Explanation:

      The efferent lymphatics from the anal canal proceed to the internal iliac lymph nodes. This would most likely form the site of enlargement in the lymphatics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mostly likely cause of prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPPT) ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heparin therapy

      Explanation:

      The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) or activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is an indicator for measuring the efficacy of both the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway. Prolonged aPTT may indicate: use of heparin, antiphospholipid antibody and coagulation factor deficiency (e.g., haemophilia). Deficiencies of factors VIII, IX, XI and XII and rarely von Willebrand factor (if causing a low factor VIII level) may lead to a prolonged aPTT correcting on mixing studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep...

    Incorrect

    • An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep pneumoniae are added to a solution of leukocytes with a substance added to enhance the process of phagocytosis. What is this substance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complement C3b

      Explanation:

      C3b is cleaved from C3 complement with the help of the enzyme C3- convertase. It binds to the cell surface of the offending substance and opsonizes it. This makes it easy for the phagocytes to detect and eliminate them.

      IgM does not act as an opsonin but igG does.

      Selectins aid leukocytes to bind to the endothelial surfaces.

      C5a is a chemo-attractant and histamine a vasodilator.

      NADPH oxidises offending substance after phagocytosis within the macrophage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum is the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is formed by S1,2,4 anterior branches. It gives off the inferior haemorrhoid nerve before dividing terminally into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris or the penis. Thus, it is the principal motor and sensory nerve of the perineum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Incorrect

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old women had developed a darker complexion following a vacation to India. She had no erythema or tenderness. Her skin colour returned to normal over a period of 1 month. Which of the these substances is related to the biochemical change mentioned above?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine

      Explanation:

      The tanning process can occur due to UV light exposure as a result of oxidation of tyrosine to dihydrophenylalanine with the help of the tyrosinase enzyme within the melanocytes. Hemosiderin can impart a brown colour due to breakdown of RBC but its usually due to a trauma and is known as haemochromatosis.

      Lipofuscin gives a golden brown colour to the cell granules not the skin.

      Homogentisic acid is part of a rare disease alkaptonuria, with characteristic black pigment deposition within the connective tissue.

      Copper can impart a brown golden colour, but is not related to UV light exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen: ...

    Incorrect

    • Point of entry of the vagal trunk into the abdomen:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal hiatus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is located in the muscular part of the diaphragm a T10 and is above, in front and a little to the left of the aortic hiatus. It transmits the oesophagus, the vagus nerves and some small oesophageal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the...

    Incorrect

    • The blood-brain barrier is a membrane that separates the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS). Which of the following statements regarding the bloodā€“ brain barrier is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It breaks down in areas of brain that are infected

      Explanation:

      The bloodā€“brain barrier is a membrane that controls the passage of substances from the blood into the central nervous system. It is a physical barrier between the local blood vessels and most parts of the central nervous system and stops many substances from travelling across it. During meningitis, the bloodā€“brain barrier may be disrupted. This disruption may increase the penetration of various substances (including either toxins or antibiotics) into the brain. A few regions in the brain, including the circumventricular organs, do not have a bloodā€“brain barrier.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above...

    Incorrect

    • Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above and below the incision to block the nerves supplying the thoracic wall. This wall is innervated by?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intercostal nerves

      Explanation:

      Intercostal nerves are the ventral primary rami of spinal nerves T1ā€“T11. They give branches which supply the thoracic wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen...

    Incorrect

    • During cardiac catheterisation, if the blood sample from the catheter shows an oxygen saturation of 70%, and the pressure ranging from 12 to 24 mm Hg, it implies that the catheter tip is located in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery

      Explanation:

      Normal values for various parameters are as follows:

      Systolic arterial blood pressure (SBP): 90ā€“140 mmHg.

      Diastolic arterial blood pressure: 60ā€“90 mmHg.

      Mean arterial blood pressure (MAP): SBP + (2 Ɨ DBP)/3 (normal range: 70-105 mmHg).

      Right atrial pressure (RAP): 2ā€“6 mmHg.

      Systolic right ventricular pressure (RVSP): 15ā€“25 mmHg.

      Diastolic right ventricular pressure (RVDP): 0ā€“8 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery pressure (PAP): Systolic (PASP) is 15-25 mmHg and Diastolic (PADP) is 8ā€“15 mmHg.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP): 6ā€“12 mmHg.

      Left atrial pressure (LAP): 6ā€“12 mmHg.

      Thus, the given value indicates that the position of catheter tip is likely to be in the pulmonary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125...

    Incorrect

    • The anatomical dead space in a patient with low oxygen saturation, is 125 ml, with a tidal volume of 500 ml and pa(CO2) of 40 mm Hg. The dead space was determined by Fowler's method. If we assume that the patient's lungs are healthy, what will his mixed expired CO2 tension [pE(CO2)] be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 mmHg

      Explanation:

      According to Bohrā€™s equation, VD/VT = (pA(CO2) āˆ’ pE(CO2))/pA(CO2), where pE(CO2) is mixed expired CO2 and pA(CO2) is alveolar CO2pressure. Normally, the pa(CO2) is virtually identical to pA(CO2). Thus, VD/VT = (pa(CO2)) āˆ’ pE(CO2)/pa(CO2). By Fowlerā€™s method, VD/VT= 0.25. In the given problem, (pa(CO2) āˆ’ pE(CO2)/pa(CO2) = (40 āˆ’ pE(CO2)/40 = 0.25. Thus, pE(CO2) = 30 mmHg. If there is a great perfusion/ventilation inequality, pE(CO2) could be significantly lower than 30 mm Hg, and the patientā€™s physiological dead space would exceed the anatomical dead space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these substances is secreted by pericytes in the juxtaglomerular cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renin

      Explanation:

      The juxtaglomerular cells synthesise, store and secrete the enzyme renin in the kidney. They are specialised smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole that delivers blood to the glomerulus and thus play a critical role in the reninā€“ angiotensin system and so in renal autoregulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old male patient was admitted to the hospital due to recurrent fever for the past 2 weeks. The patient claimed that he is an intravenous drug user. Following work up, the patient was diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which is the most likely organism responsible for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial endocarditis is a fulminant illness lasting over days to weeks (<2weeks). It is most likely due to Staphylococcus aureus especially in intravenous drug abusers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman develops severe hypoxaemia with petechial rash and confusion following...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman develops severe hypoxaemia with petechial rash and confusion following a fracture to her left femur. Which is the most probable cause of these symptoms in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fat embolism

      Explanation:

      Fat embolismĀ is a life-threatening form of embolism in which the embolus consists of fatty material or bone marrow particles that are introduced into the systemic venous system. It may be caused by long-bone fractures, orthopaedic procedures, sickle cell crisis, parenteral lipid infusion, burns and acute pancreatitis. Patients with fat embolism usually present with symptoms that include skin, brain, and lung dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that...

    Incorrect

    • The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following arteries would most likely be injured if a surgeon accidentally tore this ligament?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short gastric

      Explanation:

      The short gastric arteries arise from the end of the splenic arteries and form five to seven branches. The short gastric arteries inside the gastrosplenic ligament from the left to the right, supply the greater curvature of the stomach. The hepatic artery proper runs inside the hepatoduodenal ligament. The right gastric artery and the left gastric artery are contained in the hepatogastric ligament. The caudal pancreatic artery branches off from the splenic artery and supplies the tail of the pancreas. The middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. The splenic artery does not travel in the gastrosplenic ligament and so it would not be damaged by a tear to this ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of...

    Incorrect

    • Etoposide is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of different types of cancer. Which of the following is the correct indication for this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung cancer

      Explanation:

      Etoposide phosphate is an inhibitor of the enzyme topoisomerase II. It is used as a form of chemotherapy for malignancies such as lung cancer, testicular cancer, lymphoma, non-lymphocytic leukaemia and glioblastoma multiforme. Side effects are very common and can include low blood cell counts, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhoea, hair loss, and fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • During uterogrowth, the second pharyngeal arch gives rise to which structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle

      Explanation:

      The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:

      Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:

      Stapes,

      Temporal styloid process,

      Stylohyoid ligament, and

      Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.

      Muscles:

      Muscles of face

      Occipitofrontalis muscle

      Platysma

      Stylohyoid muscle

      Posterior belly of Digastric

      Stapedius muscle

      Auricular muscles

      Nerve supply: Facial nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pathology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Physiology (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Passmed