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  • Question 1 - Can you rephrase the question to ask for the term that refers to...

    Incorrect

    • Can you rephrase the question to ask for the term that refers to the transfer of genetic material without it being written in the DNA?

      Your Answer: Anticipation

      Correct Answer: Epigenetic

      Explanation:

      Epigenetics is the study of alterations in gene expression that occur due to factors other than changes in the DNA sequence. These modifications can persist throughout the lifespan of a cell and even be passed down to future generations, but they do not involve any changes to the actual DNA sequence of the organism. Essentially, epigenetic changes can impact a cell, organ, of individual without directly affecting their genetic code, and can have an indirect effect on how the genome is expressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which reflex involves the motor component of cranial nerve VII? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which reflex involves the motor component of cranial nerve VII?

      Your Answer: Jaw jerk reflex

      Correct Answer: Corneal reflex

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is not included in the evaluation of the Edinburgh...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not included in the evaluation of the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale?

      Your Answer: Thoughts to self-harm

      Correct Answer: Thoughts to harm the baby

      Explanation:

      Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS)

      The Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale (EPDS) is a 10-item self-report questionnaire designed to screen for postnatal depression in primary care settings. It should only be used to assess a women’s mood over the past seven days and cannot be used to diagnose depression. The EPDS excludes some symptoms common in the perinatal period, such as tiredness and irritability, as they do not differentiate between depressed and non-depressed postnatal women. Women are asked to select one of four responses that most closely represents how they have felt over the past seven days. Scores for the 10 items are added together, with a score of 0-9 indicating a low likelihood of depression, 10-12 indicating a moderate likelihood, and 13 of more indicating a high likelihood. The statements include feelings of happiness, sadness, anxiety, and thoughts of self-harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In what type of epilepsy is it most common to experience an aura?...

    Incorrect

    • In what type of epilepsy is it most common to experience an aura?

      Your Answer: Absence

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      This question is presented in two variations on the exam, with one implying that auras are primarily linked to temporal lobe epilepsy and the other to complex partial seizures. In reality, partial seizures are most commonly associated with auras compared to other types of seizures. While partial seizures can originate in any lobe of the brain, those that arise in the temporal lobe are most likely to produce an aura. Therefore, both versions of the question are accurate.

      Epilepsy and Aura

      An aura is a subjective sensation that is a type of simple partial seizure. It typically lasts only a few seconds and can help identify the site of cortical onset. There are eight recognized types of auras, including somatosensory, visual, auditory, gustatory, olfactory, autonomic, abdominal, and psychic.

      In about 80% of cases, auras precede temporal lobe seizures. The most common auras in these seizures are abdominal and psychic, which can cause a rising epigastric sensation of feelings of fear, déjà vu, of jamais vu. Parietal lobe seizures may begin with a contralateral sensation, usually of the positive type, such as an electrical sensation of tingling. Occipital lobe seizures may begin with contralateral visual changes, such as colored lines, spots, of shapes, of even a loss of vision. Temporal-parietal-occipital seizures may produce more formed auras.

      Complex partial seizures are defined by impairment of consciousness, which means decreased responsiveness and awareness of oneself and surroundings. During a complex partial seizure, a patient is unresponsive and does not remember events that occurred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder, currently on medication, experiences a low white blood cell count after developing a sore throat. Which antipsychotic medication is most likely responsible for these side effects?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of white cell count and differential is necessary for all patients receiving clozapine due to the risk of neutropenia and fatal agranulocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - At what age does puberty need to begin for it to be considered...

    Correct

    • At what age does puberty need to begin for it to be considered precocious in girls?

      Your Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Puberty

      Puberty is a natural process that occurs in both boys and girls. The age range for the onset of puberty is between 8-14 years for females and 9-14 years for males, with the mean age of onset being 11 years for girls and 12 years for boys. The duration of puberty is typically 3-4 years. The onset of puberty is marked by the appearance of secondary sex characteristics, such as breast development in females and testicular enlargement in males. These characteristics evolve over time and are rated into 5 stages according to Tanner’s criteria. The sequence of events differs between boys and girls, with the onset of breast development (thelarche) generally preceding the onset of the first period (menarche) by around 2 years in girls. The pubertal growth spurt occurs during stages 3 to 4 in most boys and during stages 2 and 3 in girls. Precocious puberty, which occurs earlier than usual, is more common in girls than in boys. The age of onset of puberty in girls has been decreasing over time, with environmental factors such as nutrition potentially playing a role in this trend.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - How can the triad of impairments in autism be described? ...

    Correct

    • How can the triad of impairments in autism be described?

      Your Answer: Wing

      Explanation:

      Autism: A Brief History

      The term autism was first coined in 1911 by Eugen Bleuler to describe individuals with schizophrenia who had cut themselves off as much as possible from any contact with the external world. In 1926, Grunya Sukhareva attempted to delineate autism spectrum disorders as distinct diagnostic entities, referring to them as schizoid personality disorder. However, her work remained largely unknown until 1996.

      The first widely publicized use of the term autism to describe a distinct condition was in 1943 by Leo Kanner, who referred to it as autistic disturbance of affective contact. Kanner suggested that autism may be a manifestation of childhood schizophrenia and that it was characterized by an inability to related to themselves in the ordinary way to people and situations from the beginning of life. In 1944, Hans Asperger published descriptions of four cases of a condition he termed der autistichen psychopathie, which he regarded as a limitation of social relationships.

      In 1980, infantile autism was included in the DSM-III under a new category of pervasive developmental disorders. Lorna Wing redefined Asperger Syndrome in 1981, proposing a triad of impairments in social interaction, communication, and imaginative activities. In 2000, the DSM-IV utilized the umbrella category of pervasive developmental disorders, with five main subcategories. Finally, in 2013, the DSM-5 combined the subcategories into a single label of autism spectrum disorder, asserting that autism is a single disorder on a wide spectrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which symptom is unlikely to be the first one noticed in a person...

    Correct

    • Which symptom is unlikely to be the first one noticed in a person with normal pressure hydrocephalus?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Headache and other symptoms commonly associated with hydrocephalus may not be present in normal pressure hydrocephalus due to the fact that intracranial pressure does not typically remain elevated.

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is one of the fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia according to Bleuler? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia according to Bleuler?

      Your Answer: Mannerisms

      Correct Answer: Autism

      Explanation:

      Bleuler identified autism as a key symptom of schizophrenia.

      Historical Classification of Schizophrenia

      The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Philippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.

      In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’

      Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.

      In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What cognitive ability is assessed by Raven's Progressive Matrices? ...

    Incorrect

    • What cognitive ability is assessed by Raven's Progressive Matrices?

      Your Answer: Executive dysfunction

      Correct Answer: Intelligence

      Explanation:

      Intelligence Test: Raven’s Progressive Matrices

      The Raven’s Progressive Matrices (RPM) test is designed to measure general intelligence without the use of verbal language. The test consists of a series of items where the participant is required to identify the missing pattern in a sequence. The difficulty level of the items increases progressively, which demands greater cognitive capacity to encode and analyze the patterns.

      There are three versions of the RPM test, each designed for different age groups and abilities. The Coloured Progressive Matrices is intended for younger children and special groups, while the Stanford Progressive Matrices is suitable for individuals aged 6 to 80 years old with average intelligence. The Advanced Progressive Matrices is designed for above-average adolescents and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      129.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 7-year-old girl who presents with facial features such as a flat and broad head, a prominent forehead, heavy brows, up-slanting eyes, a depressed nasal bridge, and a wide mouth with a fleshy and inverted central portion of the upper lip. Additionally, you observe short and broad hands, short stature, a hoarse deep voice, speech delay, and hearing loss. During follow-up, you notice a predominance of various self-injurious behaviors, including self-biting, head-banging, and picking sores. The patient also exhibits self-hugging behavior. What is your preferred diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cornelia de Lange syndrome

      Correct Answer: Smith-Magenis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Smith-Magenis syndrome is characterized by a behavioural phenotype that often involves severe self harm, but it is distinguished by a unique behaviour known as self-hugging. The syndrome is caused by a deletion on chromosome 17 (17p11.2) and is estimated to occur in one out of every 25,000 births. Due to its prevalence and distinct features, Smith-Magenis syndrome is frequently tested on the Royal College examinations and is important to understand in detail.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is a component of the hypothalamus in terms of neuroanatomy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a component of the hypothalamus in terms of neuroanatomy?

      Your Answer: Putamen

      Correct Answer: Mammillary bodies

      Explanation:

      The striatum is composed of the caudate nucleus and putamen, which are part of the basal ganglia. The basal ganglia is the largest subcortical structure in the brain and consists of a group of grey matter nuclei located in the subcortical area. In contrast, the mammillary bodies are small round bodies that are part of the hypothalamus and play a crucial role in the Papez circuit as a component of the limbic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following runs in the upper part of the falx cerebri?

      Your Answer: Tentorium cerebella

      Correct Answer: Superior sagittal sinus

      Explanation:

      Falx cerebri is a sickle cell fold of dura between the two hemispheres. Its posterior part blends with the superior part of the tentorium cerebelli. The superior sagittal sinus runs in its upper fixed margin, the inferior sagittal sinus in the free concave margin and the straight sinus along its attachment to the tentorium cerebelli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been...

    Correct

    • What term describes the increase in standardised intelligence test scores that has been observed over time?

      Your Answer: Flynn effect

      Explanation:

      The Dunning-Kruger effect refers to a phenomenon where individuals with lower levels of skill of knowledge tend to overestimate their abilities, leading them to believe they are more competent than they actually are.

      The Flynn Effect is the term used to describe the increase in standardised intelligence test scores over time. Research conducted by Flynn showed that IQ scores increased by 13.8 points between 1932 and 1978, which equates to a 0.3-point increase per year of approximately 3 points per decade. More recent studies have also supported the Flynn effect, with IQ score gains observed between 1972 and 2006. This means that an individual is likely to achieve a higher IQ score on an earlier version of a test than on the current version. In fact, the test will overestimate an individual’s IQ score by an average of 0.3 points per year between the year in which the test was normed and the year in which the test was administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication? ...

    Correct

    • What is an example of a common antipsychotic medication?

      Your Answer: Sulpiride

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the personality trait that is not included in the big five?

      Your Answer: Agreeableness

      Correct Answer: Carefulness

      Explanation:

      The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is an exocannabinoid? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an exocannabinoid?

      Your Answer: Anandamide

      Correct Answer: Delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol

      Explanation:

      The Endocannabinoid System and its Role in Psychosis

      The endocannabinoid system (ECS) plays a crucial role in regulating various physiological functions in the body, including cognition, sleep, energy metabolism, and inflammation. It is composed of endogenous cannabinoids, cannabinoid receptors, and proteins that transport, synthesize, and degrade endocannabinoids. The two best-characterized cannabinoid receptors are CB1 and CB2, which primarily couple to inhibitory G proteins and modulate different neurotransmitter systems in the brain.

      Impairment of the ECS after cannabis consumption has been linked to an increased risk of psychotic illness. However, enhancing the ECS with cannabidiol (CBD) has shown anti-inflammatory and antipsychotic outcomes in both healthy study participants and in preliminary clinical trials on people with psychotic illness of at high risk of developing psychosis. Studies have also found increased anandamide levels in the cerebrospinal fluid and blood, as well as increased CB1 expression in peripheral immune cells of people with psychotic illness compared to healthy controls. Overall, understanding the role of the ECS in psychosis may lead to new therapeutic approaches for treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is: ...

    Correct

    • The motor speech area (Brocas Area) is:

      Your Answer: Brodmann area 44

      Explanation:

      A Brodmann area in the brain is defined by cytoarchitecture, histology and organization of cells:
      Primary Sensory 3,1,2
      Primary Motor 4
      Premotor 6
      Primary Visual 17
      Primary Auditory 41
      Brocas 44

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes Ainsworth's strange situation procedure?

      Your Answer: It takes place in the child's home environment

      Correct Answer: It is done on children aged 12 to 18 months

      Explanation:

      Attachment (Ainsworth)

      Psychologist Mary Ainsworth developed the ‘Strange Situation procedure’ to study and categorize attachment in children aged 12 to 18 months. The procedure involves seven steps, including two separations and two reunions, and takes place in one room. The child’s attachment is classified into one of three styles: secure, anxious-resistant, and anxious-avoidant. A fourth category, disorganized, is sometimes observed. Ainsworth suggested that the child’s attachment style is determined by the primary caregiver’s behavior.

      Mary Main later developed the Adult Attachment Interview and identified four categories of attachment in adults that correspond to those observed in the strange situation. The distribution of adult attachment styles correlates with those of the strange situation, with 70% of children and adults having secure attachment. Attachment styles also seem to be passed on to subsequent generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the OTC medication that poses the highest risk of a severe...

    Correct

    • What is the OTC medication that poses the highest risk of a severe interaction with an MAOI antidepressant?

      Your Answer: Chlorphenamine

      Explanation:

      Chlorphenamine, also known as Piriton, is classified as a first-generation antihistamine that functions by obstructing the H1 receptor. This sedative antihistamine is utilized to treat allergic conditions like hay fever. Additionally, it is present in certain cough medicines as it reduces the production of mucus.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is classified as a primary delusion? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a primary delusion?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriacal delusions

      Correct Answer: Delusional atmosphere

      Explanation:

      The only primary delusion listed is delusional atmosphere, as it pertains to the form of the delusion. The other delusions mentioned are related to the content of the delusion and therefore cannot be classified as primary delusions.

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Your consultant inquires about the time it takes for aripiprazole to reach a...

    Incorrect

    • Your consultant inquires about the time it takes for aripiprazole to reach a steady state when prescribing it to a new patient. With knowledge of the drug's half-life of 75 hours, what is the expected duration for achieving a steady state?

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Correct Answer: 14 days

      Explanation:

      The steady state for this scenario is 337.5 hours, which is equivalent to 14 days. This calculation was obtained by multiplying the half-life of 75 hours by a factor of 4.5, as per the given formula.

      The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of confusion, paranoia, dizziness. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of confusion, paranoia, dizziness. She and her next of kin (daughter) do not report any head injury, fever, cough, chest pain, dysuria, urinary frequency, abdominal discomfort of weight loss. Thorough investigations for causes of delirium are all normal.

      Her past medical history was of benign endometrial polypectomy and hiatus hernia only.

      She was admitted to a psychiatric ward. An attempt to address her paranoia with a small dose of risperidone precipitates pronounced extrapyramidal side-effects, her mobility declines and she begins to experience falls. Discontinuation of the risperidone leads to an improvement of her mobility.

      During the course of her admission, she was noted to have bilateral cogwheel rigidity and bradykinesia which was not detected at the point of admission.

      Which of the following would you most suspect?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      DLB is typically diagnosed when cognitive impairments of hallucinations occur before of within one year of Parkinsonism onset, while Parkinson’s disease dementia is diagnosed when Parkinsonism precedes dementia by more than a year. Neither vascular nor frontotemporal dementia typically present with psychosis of neuroleptic sensitivity. Pseudo-dementia refers to cases of depression that mimic dementia, but there is no indication of depression in the given scenario. It is crucial to identify depression when present to provide timely treatment and avoid unnecessary investigations.

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized and accounts for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions (Lewy bodies) in certain areas of the brain. The relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia is complex, as dementia is often seen in Parkinson’s disease and up to 40% of Alzheimer’s patients have Lewy bodies. Neuroleptics should be avoided in Lewy body dementia, except in cases of psychosis of aggression. Cholinesterase inhibitors are the first line of treatment for psychosis with Lewy body dementia, and antipsychotics are the second line. Clozapine is the preferred antipsychotic for Lewy body dementia, but if it is not appropriate, quetiapine is a reasonable choice. The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and other symptoms such as delusions and non-visual hallucinations. Additional features that support the diagnosis include fluctuating cognition, repeated falls, syncope, and neuroleptic sensitivity. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) is increasingly used with a sensitivity of around 90% and a specificity of 100%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A chromosome that has a very short p arm, making it difficult to...

    Incorrect

    • A chromosome that has a very short p arm, making it difficult to observe, is known as:

      Your Answer: Metacentric

      Correct Answer: Telocentric

      Explanation:

      Understanding Centromeres

      A centromere is a crucial part of DNA that connects two sister chromatids. It plays a vital role in cell division by keeping the sister chromatids aligned and allowing the chromosomes to be lined up during metaphase. The position of the centromere divides the chromosome into two arms, the long (q) and the short (p). Chromosomes are classified based on the position of the centromere. Metacentric chromosomes have arms of roughly equal length, and they can be formed by Robertsonian translocations. Acrocentric chromosomes can also be involved in Robertsonian translocations. Monocentric chromosomes have only one centromere and form a narrow constriction, while holocentric chromosomes have the entire length of the chromosome acting as the centromere. Understanding the role and classification of centromeres is essential in comprehending the process of cell division.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories?

      Your Answer: Outcomes in consequentialism are always measured by pleasure

      Correct Answer: The moral status of an act is determined by its outcomes

      Explanation:

      The exam will require you to differentiate between the three main ethical principles: consequentialism, virtue theory, and deontology. Consequentialism prioritizes outcomes over intentions, while virtue theory emphasizes character, and deontology focuses on motives. A deep understanding of ethics is not necessary, but a basic comprehension of these principles is required.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective way to address sexual dysfunction in a male patient who is taking sertraline and wishes to continue its use due to positive response to the medication?

      Your Answer: Ginkgo biloba

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      The medication with the strongest evidence is sildenafil.

      Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You are seeing a 45-year-old male on the ward. He is experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 45-year-old male on the ward. He is experiencing a delusional episode and is detained under section 2 of the Mental Health Act. He firmly believes that one of the doctors on the ward is his long-lost brother, despite acknowledging that they have different facial features.
      What is the name of the syndrome he is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Couvade syndrome

      Correct Answer: Fregoli syndrome

      Explanation:

      The term Fregoli syndrome refers to a delusion where the patient mistakenly identifies an unfamiliar person as someone they know. This condition is named after Leopoldo Fregoli, an Italian actor who was known for his ability to quickly change his appearance during performances. Cotard syndrome is a type of delusion that occurs in cases of psychotic depression, where the patient believes that they are already dead. Capgras syndrome is another type of misidentification delusion, but in this case, the patient believes that someone they know has been replaced by an identical imposter. Charles Bonnet Syndrome is a condition that causes complex visual hallucinations. Finally, Couvade syndrome, also known as sympathetic pregnancy, is a phenomenon where men experience symptoms similar to their pregnant partners. These conditions are all well-documented in the field of psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman walking home late at night notices someone beckoning to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman walking home late at night notices someone beckoning to her from a distance in the darkness. As she approaches, she realizes it's just a tree branch swaying in the wind. What is this occurrence called?

      Your Answer: Reflex hallucination

      Correct Answer: Affect illusion

      Explanation:

      Affect illusions occur when a person’s mood affects their perception of everyday objects, leading to misinterpretation. These illusions are temporary and can be dispelled with increased attention. Completion illusions occur when the brain fills in incomplete perceptions with extrapolation from previous experiences to create meaning. An example is reading misprints in newspapers as if they were written correctly. Reflex hallucinations occur when a stimulus in one modality produces a hallucination in another modality. Pareidolic illusions involve a mixture of sensory perceptions and imagination, such as seeing faces in clouds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old male patient with schizophrenia has a routine ECG showing a QTc...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient with schizophrenia has a routine ECG showing a QTc of 480. He has no symptoms. Which psychotropic medication is most likely causing the prolonged QTc interval?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      According to the Maudsley Guidelines, haloperidol causes the greatest increase in QTc interval among antipsychotic medications. It is important for men to have a QTc interval below 440 ms and women below 470 ms. While aripiprazole and paliperidone have not been proven to cause an increase in QTc interval, other antipsychotics, including atypical drugs like quetiapine, can have moderate to significant effects. A prolonged QTc interval, especially above 500ms, is associated with sudden cardiac death. Diazepam and other benzodiazepines have no effect on QTc interval, while amisulpride has a low effect. Citalopram is the only SSRI that has a low effect on QTc interval. Although erythromycin and other antibiotics can have an effect on QTc interval, the question specifically asks about psychotropic medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which brain structure is located next to Broca's and Wernicke's areas? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which brain structure is located next to Broca's and Wernicke's areas?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sylvian sulcus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the sylvian (lateral) sulcus is crucial in comprehending the perisylvian language area and distinguishing between perisylvian and extrasylvian types of aphasias.

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (6/6) 100%
Classification And Assessment (6/6) 100%
Psychopharmacology (6/6) 100%
Psychological Development (3/3) 100%
Psychiatry Of Learning Disability (1/1) 100%
Neuro-anatomy (2/2) 100%
Old Age Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Social Psychology (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (2/2) 100%
Passmed