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  • Question 1 - An 81-year-old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical examination reveals...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old male patient was admitted after an ischaemic stroke. Physical examination reveals left hemiparesis. How would you classify this hemiparesis based on the WHO International Classification of Functioning, Disability and Health?

      Your Answer: Impairment of body function

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and signs are classified as ‘impairment of body function’.
      The types of impairment classified as ‘activity limitation’ include difficulties that a patient may have in executing certain activities.
      The type of impairment classified as ‘participation restriction’ are problems a patient may have in social roles.
      The type of impairment classified as ‘pathology’ would be the diagnosis/disease.
      Right total anterior circulation infarct relates to the Oxford Bamford classification for stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      42.7
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  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old woman is having trouble in speaking following a stroke. Her limbs...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is having trouble in speaking following a stroke. Her limbs are paralyzed, both left upper and lower limbs. Which anatomical site is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Brain stem

      Correct Answer: Internal capsule

      Explanation:

      – The given scenario is typical of lesion in internal capsule.
      – Memory impairment is caused by a hippocampal lesion,
      – Impairment of arousal, facial paresis, visual field defect, facial paresis, hemiataxia, and hemispacial neglect are just some of the conditions caused by thalamic lesion.
      – Brainstem stroke on the other hand causes breathing abnormality, altered consciousness, and blood pressure disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      47.1
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  • Question 3 - A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old woman residing in a nursing home for a couple of years complains of drooling of saliva and sudden difficulty in swallowing while eating. She is a known hypertensive on treatment. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Dysphagia or difficulty in swallowing. Endoscopy allows for visual examination of the oesophagus and is indicated in patients with dysphagia to determine the underlying aetiology, exclude malignant and premalignant conditions, assess the need for therapy, and perform therapy including dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      20.3
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  • Question 4 - A 85-year-old male with a history of faecal impaction, who lived at a...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old male with a history of faecal impaction, who lived at a nursing-home presented with abdominal pain and distension, confusion and agitation. Which of the following is the first step of the management.

      Your Answer: Phosphate enema

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for this presentation is faecal impaction following constipation, which is common among old people who live in nursing-homes. There can be number of reason for constipation in old age, including medications, endocrine and metabolic diseases, neurologic disorders, myopathic disorders, dietary habits etc. Enemas are a way of removing impacted faeces, which helps rectal evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 82-year-old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is also finding...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old male woke up experiencing incoherent speech - he is also finding it difficult to find the right words to explain his thoughts. Doctors have examined him, and everything else appears to be normal. They have also found that his comprehension is good. From the list of options, choose the anatomical site which in this instance, is most likely affected.

      Your Answer: Broca's Area

      Explanation:

      The combination of good comprehension but poor speech quality in this patient is consistent with damage to the Broca’s area. The Wernicke’s area is responsible for the understanding of speech, and so is not consistent with this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      26.5
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  • Question 6 - A 85-year-old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty...

    Correct

    • A 85-year-old male with a history of Alzheimer's dementia was brought into Casualty by family members, who stated that he had episodes of aggression. Which of the following drugs is most suitable as the pharmacological management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Regarding the pharmacological management, Risperidone is the most suitable drug from the given answers as it is recommended for the treatment of aggression associated with moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease. Quetiapine and Benzodiazepine are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      36.8
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  • Question 7 - An 86-year-old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's...

    Incorrect

    • An 86-year-old woman accidentally inhaled her hearing aid due to her advanced Alzheimer's dementia. Upon clinical examination, her respiratory rate is found to be 35, and thus a bronchoscopy is recommended. According to which of the following would you obtain consent for this patient?

      Your Answer: Relatives/next of kin will have to consent for the patient

      Correct Answer: The procedure does not require a written consent

      Explanation:

      This is an emergency case regarding a patient with impaired cognitive functioning. This is why the procedure does not require a written consent. In any other case where the patient has a normal mental capacity, the consent would be obtained as an informed written consent. In this case however, the suggested procedure is almost a matter of life and death, the doctor being required to act on behalf of the patient to her optimal advantage. Under English law no other person can consent to treatment on behalf of an adult, though it is desirable that next of kin are consulted before treating an adult without consent. Recent legislation gives legal authority to people appointed by the patient, or by the state, or a relative or carer, to consent (or refuse) on behalf of the patient. A mini-mental score may not adequately identify those unable to give consent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      22.2
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old palliative care patient with bronchial cancer is suffering from recurrent, distressing...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old palliative care patient with bronchial cancer is suffering from recurrent, distressing cough because he cannot cough up his secretions. Which of the following drugs would most likely be helpful?

      Your Answer: Scopolamine

      Explanation:

      When death is imminent, oral and respiratory secretions become salient symptoms. It is important to separate the nursing concerns of frequent suctioning, the family concerns of chest crackles, and the true symptoms of dyspnoea or cough sensed by the patient. While opioids are the most successful agents for management of dyspnoea, anticholinergic agents such as scopolamine and glycopyrrolate are preferred for control of copious secretions. Symptoms such as pain and dyspnoea that do not respond to initial therapy should prompt referral to palliative care and pain management specialists, from the time of presentation until the last days of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      12.1
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  • Question 9 - An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old woman had to double up her dosage of morphine 60mg into 120mg twice a day, in addition to another 10mg oral Morphine 6 times a day. What is the best method of management?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl patches

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous morphine infusion

      Explanation:

      Stable dose of Morphine is essential for chronic cases of pain that are non-malignant in origin. Using the SC route avoids having to intravenously cannulate a patient and allows for a continuous infusion of drugs over a calculated period of time providing constant dosing A significant advantage is that plasma levels of a drug are much more stable, and appropriate symptom control can be achieved without the toxic effects of the peaks and troughs resulting from episodic drug administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      28.6
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  • Question 10 - An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache....

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man presents with fever of 38°C and a very severe headache. His BP is 85/50 mm Hg. He has neck stiffness and photophobia. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: CT head and Lumbar puncture

      Correct Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      In elderly patients, symptoms suggestive of meningitis could be due to an intracranial mass lesion (such as abscess, tumour or an intracerebral haematoma). Therefore elderly patients are increased risk of cerebral herniation from an LP. A CT head should be done before an LP to exclude a mass lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      32.8
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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his wife because lately...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man was brought to the clinic by his wife because lately he has lost interest in activities he previously enjoyed. His wife is worried and claims he's generally withdrawn. What would exclude depression in favour of dementia?

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is not a usual symptom of depression. A depressed patient is usually capable of maintaining control of his body sphincters. In dementia, however, urinary incontinence is an important and late symptom of the disease, non-related to any urinary tract pathology. It is rather related to the cognitive impairment caused by dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      26.7
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium. She is...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the ER with altered sensorium. She is accompanied by her daughter who noticed the acute change. The patient has had a nagging cough with purulent sputum and haemoptysis for the last few days. Previous history includes a visit to her GP two weeks back because of influenza.
      On examination, the patient appears markedly agitated with a respiratory rate of 35/min. Blood gases reveal that she is hypoxic. White blood cell count is 20 x 109/l, and creatinine is 250 mmol/l. Chest X-ray is notable for patchy areas of consolidation, necrosis and empyema formation.
      Which of the following lead to the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Though a common community pathogen, Staphylococcus Aureas is found twice as frequently in pneumonias in hospitalized patients. It often attacks the elderly and patients with CF and arises as a co-infection with influenza viral pneumonia. The clinical course is characterized by high fevers, chills, a cough with purulent bloody sputum, and rapidly progressing dyspnoea. The gross pathology commonly reveals an acute bronchopneumonia pattern that may evolve into a necrotizing cavity with congested lungs and airways that contain a bloody fluid and thick mucoid secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      19
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  • Question 13 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      4.8
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  • Question 14 - An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home....

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old male presented to the emergency department following a fall at home. He was diagnosed with osteoporosis about five years ago. He presently complains of significant low back pain.
      A lumbar spine X-ray was suggestive of a fractured lumbar vertebra.
      A subsequent MRI scan of the lumbosacral spine revealed a new L3 burst fracture with no evidence of cord compression.
      A neurosurgical consult was sought and conservative management was planned accordingly in the form of pain control, physiotherapy, and mobilization (as allowed by the pain).
      He also has been diagnosed with chronic renal disease (stage IV) with a creatinine clearance of 21 ml/min, he was started on a Buprenorphine patch.
      Which of the following opioids would be safest to use for his breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Morphine

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone

      Explanation:

      Oxycodone is a safer opioid to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure.
      Active metabolites of morphine accumulate in renal failure which means that long-term use is contraindicated in patients with moderate/severe renal failure.
      These toxic metabolites can accumulate causing toxicity and risk overdose.
      Oxycodone is mainly metabolised in the liver and thus safer to use in patients with moderate to end-stage renal failure with dose reductions.
      Adverse effects:
      Constipation is the most common overall side effect. Others include: asthenia, dizziness, dry mouth, headache, nausea, pruritus, etc.

      Medications in renal failure:
      Drugs to be avoided in patients with renal failure
      Antibiotics: tetracycline, nitrofurantoin
      NSAIDs
      Lithium
      Metformin
      Drugs that require dose adjustment:
      Most antibiotics including penicillin, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, streptomycin
      Digoxin, atenolol
      Methotrexate
      Sulphonylureas
      Furosemide
      Opioids
      Relatively safe drugs:
      Antibiotics: erythromycin, rifampicin
      Diazepam
      Warfarin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of pain and stiffness in her shoulders. She also finds it difficult to get out of her chair. From the list of symptoms below, choose the one most likely to support the diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Your Answer: Muscle tenderness

      Correct Answer: Low grade fever

      Explanation:

      Polymyalgia rheumatica is an inflammatory disease which usually causes stiffness and pain in the shoulder – this can also occur in the pelvic girdle muscles. Its onset can either be subacute or acute and is associated with a systemic inflammatory response. This, therefore, causes symptoms such as fever, weight loss, anorexia, and malaise. Polymyalgia rheumatica is unpredictable in its course and it is known that 30 per cent of patients also present with giant cell arteritis. The cause of this disease is unknown but studies have shown it have infectious origins. Diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica can be difficult and other inflammatory diseases have to be excluded first. Patients with this disease are usually over 60 years of age (it is very rarely seen in those under 50). Muscle weakness does not present, although this can be hard to assess when the patient is in pain. Low-grade fever and weight loss are typical of this disease due to chronic inflammation. As such, weight gain is very rare and peripheral joints are usually not affected (they can be affected but it is very rare). Also, muscle tenderness is not a specific symptom of the disease – it is therefore not a classical finding of polymyalgia rheumatica. Although patients usually complain of stiffness and pain, the muscles are usually not significantly tender – this is usually more associated with fibromyalgia or myositis. When investigated, a normochromic/normocytic anaemia; a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate often over 50 mm/hr., and raised C reactive protein are usually revealed. Symptoms of giant cell arteritis should also be sought, such as headaches, visual disturbances, TIAs (transient ischemic attacks), jaw claudication, and thickened temporal arteries. The patient response to a moderate dose of steroids is useful when confirming a diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica. The maximum dose of prednisolone should not exceed 20mg once a day. After treatment, patients should show a 70 per cent improvement in symptoms within a month (between 3-4 weeks). Inflammatory markers should also fall back to their normal levels. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are of little use and are associated with morbidity. There is also little evidence for the use of steroidal-sparing agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      29.9
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  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman with advanced COPD has been admitted to the medicine ward in an unconscious state. She appears to have an acute lower respiratory tract infection. After consulting with an anaesthesiologist it was concluded that she was not a candidate for intensive care unit admission and thus, a decision was made to start the patient on doxapram therapy. Which of the following best fits the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: It has a half-life of 12 h

      Correct Answer: It is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      The two statements that fit the characteristics of doxapram are, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use and concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      29.6
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man, after suffering from a pathological rib fracture, complains of recurrent infection. Bone marrow aspiration revealed a calcium level of 3.9 mmol/l and alkaline phosphatase level of 160u/l. What type of cell would be found in abundance in the marrow spear?

      Your Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Multiple myeloma or plasma cell myeloma, is a cancer of plasma cells, responsible for producing antibodies. It often, presents early with no symptoms followed by bone pain and pathological fractures (metastases), raised calcium levels, bleeding, frequent infections, and anaemia. It usually occurs around the age of 61 and is more common in men than women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      21
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is walking. She...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female has complained she feels unsteady when she is walking. She is examined and is found to have pyramidal weakness of her left lower leg. She also has reduced pain and temperature sensation on her right leg and right side of her torso up to the umbilicus. Her joint position sense is also impaired in her left big toe but is found to be normal elsewhere. She has definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal. Where is the lesion?

      Your Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      In Brown-Sequard syndrome, there is paralysis and loss of proprioception, which occurs on the same (ipsilateral) side of the body, as the lesion. Loss of pain and temperature sensation, therefore, occurs on the opposite (contralateral) side of the body as the lesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      80.9
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  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that has developed gradually over the last 4 days. His symptoms include fever and cough productive of greenish sputum. Past history is notable for COPD for which he was once admitted to the ICU, 2 years back. He now takes nebulizers (ipratropium bromide) at home. The patient previously suffered from myocardial infarction 7 years ago. He also has Diabetes Mellitus type II controlled by lifestyle modification.
      On examination, the following vitals are obtained.
      BP : 159/92 mmHg
      Pulse: 91/min (regular)
      Temp: Febrile
      On auscultation, there are scattered ronchi bilaterally and right sided basal crackles. Cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
      Lab findings are given below:
      pH 7.31
      pa(O2) 7.6 kPa
      pa(CO2) 6.3 kPa
      Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l
      Sodium 136 mmol/l
      Potassium 3.7 mmol/l
      Urea 7.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 111 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 11.3 g/dl
      Platelets 233 x 109 /l
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 83 fl
      White blood cells (WBC) 15.2 x 109 /l.
      CXR shows an opacity obscuring the right heart border.

      Which of the following interventions should be started immediately while managing this patient?

      Your Answer: An antibiotic

      Correct Answer: Salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are immediately treated with inhaled beta2 agonists and inhaled anticholinergics, followed by antibiotics (if indicated) and systemic corticosteroids. Methylxanthine therapy may be considered in patients who do not respond to other bronchodilators.
      High flow oxygen would worsen his symptoms. Usually titrated oxygen (88 to 92 %) is given in such patients to avoid the risk of hyperoxic hypercarbia in which increasing oxygen saturation in a chronic carbon dioxide retainer can inadvertently lead to respiratory acidosis and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      64.8
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  • Question 20 - A 75-year-old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presented to hospital after suffering a stroke. The doctor admitted him and advised of the Barthel score index. During rehabilitation, which one of the following limitations are best described by Barthel score index?

      Your Answer: It is laborious and takes a long time to perform

      Correct Answer: Floor and ceiling effects

      Explanation:

      Barthel scoring has floor and ceiling effects which is the most widely recognised limitation. Floor effect means that the patient who is bed bound can score initially low, whereas the ceiling effect shows that despite being bed bound, a patient can achieve a maximum score i.e. 100. The test is easy to perform and correlates well with other prognostic scales.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      36.4
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presented with swelling in the lower pole of his parotid gland. It is revealed that this has been ongoing for the past 10 years. Upon examination, the swelling is firm in consistency. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis for this patient.

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Explanation:

      A pleomorphic adenoma is also called a benign mixed tumour – this is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It also causes over a third of all submandibular tumours. This type of a tumour is slow-growing and has no symptoms, which means it has great malignant potentiality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      35
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  • Question 22 - A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A son has brought his 72-year-old mother to clinic. He is concerned about her short-term memory problems for the past 10 months. He has to remind her to take her medications and she has had two incidents of falling over in the last 10 months. Which of the following assists in the diagnosis of above condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Progressive loss of function

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is dementia. To differentiate Alzheimer disease and vascular dementia, the progressive loss of function is important. Progressive loss of function is usually associated with vascular dementia and rest of the responses are associated with Alzheimer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Geriatric Medicine (12/21) 57%
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