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  • Question 1 - Which of the following serum tumour markers is the most essential for monitoring...

    Correct

    • Which of the following serum tumour markers is the most essential for monitoring the clinical progression of a man with teratoma of the testis following chemotherapy?

      Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Testicular teratomas are best monitored with the following tumour markers: Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP), beta-hCG, and PLAP (placental like isoenzyme of alkaline phosphatase). For ovarian tumours, we use CA125, pancreatic tumours we use CA19-9, CA15-3 for breast carcinoma and carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colonic tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      19
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of a swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of a swelling in his left groin that disappears on lying down. He also reports occasional haematuria and a mass in his left loin. On examination, the swelling is bluish in colour and has an appearance and consistency like that of a 'bag of worms'. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Varicosity secondary to liver disease

      Correct Answer: Left sided renal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Renal cell carcinoma (RCC) may remain clinically occult for most of its course. The classic triad of flank pain, haematuria, and flank mass is uncommon (10%) and is indicative of advanced disease. A varicocele, usually left sided, is due to obstruction of the testicular vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      76
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 18-year-old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He...

    Correct

    • A 18-year-old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: USG of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      7.5
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - A middle-aged male presented in the OPD with scrotal swelling that is cystic...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged male presented in the OPD with scrotal swelling that is cystic in nature and painless. It is located on the posterior part of the testis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epididymal Cyst

      Explanation:

      Epididymal cysts present as a swelling is behind the testis and are non-tender/painless in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      21.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old male presented to the outpatient clinic complaining of a right sided...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male presented to the outpatient clinic complaining of a right sided groin mass just above and lateral to the pubic tubercle. It is non-tender and reducible. There is no cough impulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Direct inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing the symptoms of a hernia. The position of the hernia indicates an inguinal hernia. The absence of expansive impulse on cough by blocking the internal ring signifies a direct inguinal hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      17.3
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has mild benign prostatic hyperplasia has been advised to take finasteride.
      The mechanism of action of this drug involves inhibition of the production of which of the following androgens?

      Your Answer: Dehydroepiandrosterone

      Correct Answer: Dihydrotestosterone

      Explanation:

      Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
      Finasteride is a 5?-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

      DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.

      Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      34.9
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - A 21-year-old male presented in the OPD with a testicular mass. During examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male presented in the OPD with a testicular mass. During examination, the mass was found to be painless and 2.5cm in diameter. The surface is irregular and non-transilluminating. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seminoma

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      The age group of the patient (20 to 30 years) is indicative of teratoma. It is also painless and non-transilluminating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      27.4
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old male complained of painless, right sided testicular enlargement for 4 months....

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old male complained of painless, right sided testicular enlargement for 4 months. The size has been gradually increasing. On examination, there was no tenderness or redness. It was firm in consistency and not transilluminating. The most likely diagnosis is?

      Your Answer: Testicular tumour

      Explanation:

      History is suggestive of testicular tumour due to the gradual onset, non tender, firm mass. Hydroceles transiluminate and a varicocele has a bag of worms texture. Epididymo-orchitis is tender and often red or inflamed. An ependymal cyst is confined to the epididymis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      8.7
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old boy presented with left hemiscrotal pain and fever for 2 days....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old boy presented with left hemiscrotal pain and fever for 2 days. He denied any history of trauma. On examination he was febrile. There was redness and tenderness of the left hemiscrotum. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of acute Epididymo-orchitis. The treatment option is antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      13.5
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Which is the most likely lymph node involved in the presence of an...

    Correct

    • Which is the most likely lymph node involved in the presence of an ulcer on the scrotum?

      Your Answer: Inguinal lymph node

      Explanation:

      Inguinal LN’s drain the skin and subcutaneous tissue of the lower abdominal wall, perineum, buttocks, external genitalia, and lower limbs. They are subdivided into three groups of lymph nodes (nodi lymphoid):
      – inferior group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes, located inferior to the saphenous opening, receiving drainage of the lower limb;
      – superolateral superficial inguinal lymph nodes located lateral to the saphenous opening, receiving drainage of lateral buttock and lower anterior abdominal wall; and
      – superomedial superficial inguinal lymph nodes, located medial to the saphenous opening, receiving drainage of the perineum and external genitalia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      13.4
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Cancer of the prostate is associated with which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cancer of the prostate is associated with which of the following:

      Your Answer: Caucasian race

      Correct Answer: Exposure to cadmium

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for prostate cancer include:
      Black ethnicity
      A family history of breast or prostate cancer
      High intake of animal fats and low selenium intake
      Exposure to radiation or heavy metals including cadmium

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      13.8
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old male patient was admitted for further investigations, after complaining of symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male patient was admitted for further investigations, after complaining of symptoms of obstructive uropathy and lower back pain. His wife has noticed that he lost weight over the past two months. Which tumour marker would you expect to see elevated?

      Your Answer: Prostate specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      The symptoms suggest prostate cancer with possible bone metastasis, due to the lower back pain. PSA is used for screening for prostate cancer as well as other prostate pathologies. A high PSA level of more than 4 ng/ml will require investigation to exclude cancer, benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis and perineal trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      12.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Men's Health (8/12) 67%
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