Aminophylline is a very effective bronchodilator. It is short acting and therefore very effective in acute scenarios.

A case-control study (also known as case-referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case-control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa.

The cause for bone marrow suppression in this patient is most probably mercaptopurine toxicity.
Azathioprine is metabolized to 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP), which itself is metabolized by xanthine oxidase.
Xanthine oxidase inhibition by allopurinol leads to the accumulation of 6-MP which then precipitates bone marrow failure.
This may be potentially fatal if unrecognized.
Clinical presentation:
Toxicity symptoms include gastrointestinal symptoms, bradycardia, hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression.

Symptoms such as pain worsening when bending forward, are consistent with chronic sinusitis. Sinusitis also does not present with nausea or vomiting, which is worsened by loud noises or bright lights.

In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

Dominant R wave in V1 can be a normal variant in children and young adults. Other causes are right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary embolus, persistence of left to right shunt, Right Bundle Branch Block (RBBB), posterior myocardial infarction (ST elevation in Leads V7, V8, V9), Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) Type A, Incorrect lead placement (e.g. V1 and V3 reversed), dextrocardia, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and dystrophy (myotonic dystrophy and Duchenne Muscular dystrophy).

Patients suffering from Addison’s disease have low aldosterone. Aldosterone increases Na+ absorption and excretion of K+. So in these patients there would be decreased Na+ and increased K+ levels.

Steroids and theophylline have less of a role in the treatment of exercise induced asthma. The best method of treatment is pre-exercise short-acting β2-agonist administration. Long-acting β2-agonists, mast cell stabilizers (e.g.: Sodium cromoglycate), and antileukotriene drugs also play a role.

Causes of hypertension in bilateral renal artery stenosis are as follows: 90% probable cause is atherosclerosis with manifestations of CAD, TIA or stroke. The other less common cause is fibromuscular dysplasia that includes carotid and vertebral artery with manifestations of headache, TIA, and stroke.

With a clinical history of weight loss, smoking, drinking alcohol, and hematemesis, the most likely answer is gastric carcinoma (also a mass). Based on symptomatology alone this is more likely than gastric lymphoma, as she has many risk factors for adenocarcinoma and/or squamous cell carcinoma. Helicobacter gastritis would not likely present with the severity of symptoms, neither would benign gastric ulcers.

Gaucher’s disease is characterized by hepatosplenomegaly, cytopenia, sometimes severe bone involvement and, in certain forms, neurological impairment. The variability in the clinical presentations of GD may be explained by the continuum of phenotypes. However, three major phenotypic presentations can usually be distinguished. Type-1 GD is usually named non-neuronopathic GD; type-2 and type-3 are termed neuronopathic-GD. Gaucher disease (GD, ORPHA355) is a rare, autosomal recessive genetic disorder. It is caused by a deficiency of the lysosomal enzyme, glucocerebrosidase, which leads to an accumulation of its substrate, glucosylceramide, in macrophages.

A muscarinic receptor antagonist (MRA) is a type of anticholinergic agent that blocks the activity of the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. There are six antimuscarinic drugs currently marketed for the treatment of urge incontinence: oxybutynin, tolterodine, propiverine, trospium, darifenacin, and solifenacin.

The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum.
The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum.
The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery.
The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.

A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.

The upper motor neurone signs in this patient point towards a diagnosis of spinal cord compression above the level of L1 and rules out cauda equina syndrome.

Spinal cord compression is an oncological emergency and affects up to 5% of cancer patients. Extradural compression accounts for the majority of cases, usually due to vertebral body metastases. One of the most common causes of spinal cord compression is osteoarthritis. It is also more commonly seen in patients with lung, breast, or prostate cancer.

Clinical features include:
1. Back pain: the earliest and most common symptom, may worsen on lying down or coughing
2. Lower limb weakness
3. Sensory changes: sensory loss and numbness
4. Neurological signs: depending on the level of the lesion.
Lesions above L1 usually result in upper motor neurone signs in the legs. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neurone signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes are increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

Management options are:
1. High-dose oral dexamethasone
2. Urgent MRI for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery

Hypogammaglobulinemia is a complication of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) that leads to recurrent infections.

CLL is a type of cancer caused by monoclonal proliferation of well-differentiated lymphocytes, typically B cells (99%). Onset of the disease is usually asymptomatic and later constitutes anorexia, weight loss, bleeding, and recurrent infections. Lymphadenopathy is more marked in CLL than in chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML).

Investigations to diagnose CLL include blood film and immunophenotyping. Smudge cells (also known as smear cells) seen on the blood film point towards CLL. Complications of the disease include hypogammaglobulinemia leading to recurrent infections, autoimmune haemolytic anaemia in 10-15% of the patients, and transformation to high-grade lymphoma (Richter’s transformation).

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside, having positive inotropic effects on the heart. It increases the strength of contractility of the heart, increasing the heart rate, but lowering blood pressure. This patient developed weakness in his limbs most likely caused by extremely low blood pressure that could be due to diseased blood vessels reacting to the side-effects of digoxin, therefore an angiography would be the best investigation.

Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is less common than ADPKD (dominant form) but can already present with symptoms and be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound.

Chronic Limb Ischaemia presents with calf pain that is relieved by rest.
Intermittent claudication is not a diagnosis but a symptom and is not necessarily associated with diabetes.
Buerger’s disease occurs in younger heavy smokers (usually before age of 50).
DVT causes pain that is consistent, not intermittent as in claudication.

In central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI), urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic.
Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

Bronchial carcinoma causes obstruction of the superior vena cava through its mass effect. From the options listed in this case, radiotherapy is the most suitable treatment option.

Methyldopa is the drug of first choice for the control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is also considered as a first line drug for hypertension in pregnancy. Calcium channel blockers and hydralazine are considered as second line drugs. Beta-blockers (except labetalol), angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and thiazides are not recommended.

The pain of myocardial infarction is usually severe and requires potent opiate analgesia. Intravenous diamorphine 2.5-5 mg (repeated as necessary) is the drug of choice and is not only a powerful analgesic but also has a useful anxiolytic effect.

Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging in an attempt to stay thin despite eating a lot of food. Frequent vomiting can cause electrolyte imbalance that manifests as hyperkalaemia and may lead to hypotension.

The age of the patients together with sudden loss of vision, remission and relapse of optic neuritis, focal neurological symptoms and exaggerated reflexes all suggest multiple sclerosis. This is treated with corticosteroids.

Aprepitant is an anti-emetic which blocks the neurokinin 1 (NK1) receptor and acts as a substance P antagonist. It is licensed for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting (CINV) and for prevention of postoperative nausea and vomiting.

Nausea and vomiting are the common side effects of chemotherapy. Risk factors for the development of these symptoms include age<50 years, anxiety, concurrent use of opioids, and the type of chemotherapy administered.

The boy has an increased BMI which implies he is overweight. Possible trauma to his pancreas might have led to a diabetes-like condition, induced by damage to the beta cells. Fasting blood glucose should be measured as a follow-up strategy to see if the damage is reversible or irreversible and to conclude if the glycosuria is related to his metabolic profile or to his accident.

This is a case of Sjogren Syndrome (aka Reiter’s disease). It is characterised by a triad of: seronegative arthritis mostly sacroiliitis (walking on gravel reflects planter fasciitis), urethritis and conjunctivitis. Sjogren Syndrome usually follows gastroenteritis or non specific urethritis. On the other hand gonococcal arthritis usually occurs in patients who are systemically unwell.

This clinical scenario describes pernicious anaemia. Anti-intrinsic factor (IF) antibodies are most specific for pernicious anaemia. Antigastric parietal cell antibodies have a higher sensitivity but are less specific for pernicious anaemia. The other antibodies listed are not related to pernicious anaemia. Anti-TTG is seen with Celiac’s disease, anti-TPO is seen with thyroid disease, GAD is seen with type I diabetes, but this does not explain her anaemia.

Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

A Coomb’s test should be performed to test for autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Spherocytes and reticulocytes in the blood film are indications for haemolytic anaemia.

Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
– Supportive measures
If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
– Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
– Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
– Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
– Antiadrenergic drugs.
– Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
– Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
– Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
– Treat the underlying condition.

Finasteride inhibits the formation of dihydrotestosterone.
Finasteride is a 5?-reductase inhibitor and thus, inhibits the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

DHT is much more active than testosterone and binds more avidly to cytoplasmic receptors. DHT stimulates prostate growth and may be responsible for benign prostatic hyperplasia in the elderly.

Thus, finasteride can cause a reduction in prostatic volume and help in managing a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

Difficulty in breathing and unequal chest movements are due to paralysis of the diaphragm. So the nerve affected is the left phrenic nerve.

The patient has primary Hypogonadism.
Since he already had two children, Klinefelter syndrome is excluded and the patient does not need karyotyping.
His lab results are normal indicating normal pituitary gland functions.
So the next step is testicular ultrasound as testicular tumour, infiltration or idiopathic failure is suspected.

When a patient presents with an illness (unrelated to the liver) or a stressful event on the body, and develops asymptomatic jaundice, think Gilbert’s syndrome. It is autosomal dominant. It is an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia from impaired glucuronyl transferase. Classically, Crigler-Najjar would be in infants, and it would be symptomatic. It is also an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

Lofgren’s syndrome is characterised by a triad of erythema nodosum, arthritis and bilateral lymphadenopathy. It is a variant of sarcoidosis.

The diagnosis is inferior ST elevation myocardial infarction. As the right coronary artery supplies the SA and AV nodes and bundle of His, conduction abnormalities are more common with inferior MIs. The most immediate drug management is high dose Aspirin. Definite treatment is urgent cardiac revascularization.

The patient presents with sudden onset of alexia (the inability to read) WITHOUT agraphia (inability to write) which is consistent with lesions of the corpus callosum where there is a disconnect syndrome and the patient’s language and visual centres are actually in tact, but are unable to communicate between hemispheres. In this case, the damage due to the stroke is most likely in the left visual cortex, leaving visual processing to the intact right hemisphere which unfortunately cannot communicate the information to the language centres (Broca and Wernicke’s) in the left hemisphere, hence the alexia. Alternatively, the speech and writing are unaffected as the language centres can still communicate with the primary motor cortex.

From the given answers, complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS complex is associated with the least risk of asystole. Transvenous pacing is indicated by the other given responses.

The most appropriate initial test should be checking the blood sugar level. Patients with hypoglycaemia can present with drowsiness, profuse sweating and dizziness.

Vestibular damage is a neurological side effect of streptomycin.

Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside bactericidal antibiotic. It is used in the treatment of tularaemia and resistant mycobacterial infections.
The most common neurological side-effect is vestibular damage leading to vertigo and vomiting.
Cochlear damage is less frequent and results in deafness.
Other side-effects include rashes, angioneurotic oedema, and nephrotoxicity.

Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a serious complication of blood transfusion characterised by the acute onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema following transfusion of blood products.

TRALI is a more severe manifestation of the febrile non-haemolytic group of transfusion reactions and usually occur in patients who have had multiple previous transfusions. TRALI is related to leucocyte antibodies which are present in the plasma of the blood donor. Multiparous women are the highest-risk donors for TRALI.

For management, leucocyte-depleted blood is now used for transfusion and this is associated with a reduced risk of this type of transfusion reaction.

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is a form of lung disease that occurs in some people who are allergic to Aspergillus. With ABPA, this allergic reaction causes the immune system to overreact to Aspergillus leading to lung inflammation. ABPA causes bronchospasm (tightening of airway muscles) and mucus build-up resulting in coughing, breathing difficulty and airway obstruction.

Treatment of ABPA aims to control inflammation and prevent further injury to your lungs. ABPA is a hypersensitivity reaction that requires treatment with oral corticosteroids. Inhaled steroids are not effective. ABPA is usually treated with a combination of oral corticosteroids and anti-fungal medications. The corticosteroid is used to treat inflammation and blocks the allergic reaction. Examples
of corticosteroids include: prednisone, prednisolone or methylprednisolone. Inhaled corticosteroids alone – such as used for asthma treatment – are not effective in treating ABPA. Usually treatment with an oral corticosteroid is needed for months.

The second type of therapy used is an anti-fungal medication, like itraconazole and voriconazole. These medicines help kill Aspergillus so that it no longer colonizes the airway. Usually one of these drugs is given for at least 3 to 6 months. However, even this treatment is not curative and can have side effects.

Hypercalcemia is the most important finding in all types of malignancies. In myeloma it is especially caused by osteoclast activating factors which increase bone turnover.

The most likely diagnosis is hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy which is suggestive by the history, positive family history and ECG findings. Two-dimensional echocardiography is diagnostic for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. In general, a summary of echocardiography findings includes abnormal systolic anterior leaflet motion of the mitral valve, LV hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement, small ventricular chamber size, septal hypertrophy with septal-to-free wall ratio greater than 1.4:1, mitral valve prolapse and mitral regurgitation, decreased midaortic flow, and partial systolic closure of the aortic valve in midsystole.

The raised JVP and bibasal crepitations in the patient indicate cardiac failure with fluid overload. A chest x-ray and BNP blood level analysis should be performed to confirm this diagnosis. The x-rays should be analysed for alveolar shadowing, Kerly B lines, cardiomegaly, upper lobe diversion, pleural effusion, and fluid in the fissure. If the patient doesn’t have a history of congestive cardiac failure, then this may have been iatrogenic secondary to intravenous fluids.

Respiratory depression is the most well-known and dangerous side-effect of opioid analgesics. The prevalence of such side effects is influenced by the extent of disease, the patient’s age, the presence of coexistent renal and hepatic disease, pulmonary disease, and cognitive dysfunction, a prior opioid history, use of polypharmacy, dose of opioid drug being administered, and the route of administration. Anticholinergics are usually given for the respiratory symptoms.

Sarcoidosis is a multisystem granulomatous disorder which may involve the kidneys to a variable degree. Renal calculi have been reported to occur in about 10% of patients with chronic sarcoidosis. Hypercalcaemia due to marked hyperabsorption of dietary calcium, bone resorption and renal tubular calcium reabsorption causes hypercalciuria. Both hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria contribute to nephrolithiasis.

With a bilirubin of 33, automatically the diagnosis from the choices listed is primary biliary cirrhosis or autoimmune hepatitis, not SLE, mono, or Primary Sjogren’s Syndrome. With autoimmune hepatitis, however, you would not expect such a high bilirubin and would expect very high AST/ALT, which here is just mildly elevated. This makes primary biliary cirrhosis the most likely answer. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. The dry mouth is likely due to Sicca Syndrome, which occurs in 70% of cases of PBC, but with these liver function tests, PBC is most the likely answer.

In myasthenia gravis, repeated muscle contractions lead to reduced muscle strength. The opposite is however classically seen in the related disorder Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is seen in association with small cell lung cancer, and to a lesser extent breast and ovarian cancer. It may also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by an antibody directed against pre-synaptic voltage gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.

As this patient seems to be a danger to the safety of staff, police should be called to handle the situation.

Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition of unknown cause which can present with both upper and lower motor neuron signs. It rarely presents before age 40 and various patterns of disease are recognised, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy and bulbar palsy.
Non-invasive ventilation (usually BIPAP) is used at night, with studies having shown a survival benefit of around 7 months. Riluzole prevents stimulation of glutamate receptors, used mainly in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by about 3 months.

Adverse effects due to IFN-alpha have been described in almost every organ system. Many side-effects are clearly dose-dependent. Taken together, occurrence of flu-like symptoms, haematological toxicity, elevated transaminases, nausea, fatigue, and psychiatric sequelae are the most frequently encountered side effects.

Elevated TSH (usually 4.5-10.0 mIU/L) with normal free T4 is considered mild or subclinical hypothyroidism.
Hypothyroidism commonly manifests as a slowing in physical and mental activity but may be asymptomatic. Symptoms and signs are often subtle and neither sensitive nor specific.
The following are symptoms of hypothyroidism:
– Fatigue, loss of energy, lethargy
– Weight gain
– Decreased appetite
– Cold intolerance
– Dry skin
– Hair loss
– Sleepiness
– Muscle pain, joint pain, weakness in the extremities
– Depression
– Emotional lability, mental impairment
– Forgetfulness, impaired memory, inability to concentrate
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances, impaired fertility
– Decreased perspiration
– Paraesthesia and nerve entrapment syndromes
– Blurred vision
– Decreased hearing
– Fullness in the throat, hoarseness
Physical signs of hypothyroidism include the following:
– Weight gain
– Slowed speech and movements
– Dry skin
– Jaundice
– Pallor
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Loss of scalp hair, axillary hair, pubic hair, or a combination
– Dull facial expression
– Coarse facial features
– Periorbital puffiness
– Macroglossia
– Goitre (simple or nodular)
– Hoarseness
– Decreased systolic blood pressure and increased diastolic blood pressure
– Bradycardia
– Pericardial effusion
– Abdominal distention, ascites (uncommon)
– Hypothermia (only in severe hypothyroid states)
– Nonpitting oedema (myxoedema)
– Pitting oedema of lower extremities
– Hyporeflexia with delayed relaxation, ataxia, or both.

Mechanism of action of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH):
It inhibits coagulation by activating antithrombin III. Antithrombin III binds to and inhibits factor Xa. In doing so it prevents activation of the final common path; Xa inactivation means that prothrombin is not activated to thrombin, thereby not converting fibrinogen into fibrin for the formation of a clot.

LMHW is a small fragment of a larger mucopolysaccharide, heparin. Heparin works similarly, by binding antithrombin III and activating it. Heparin also has a binding site for thrombin, so thrombin can interact with antithrombin III and heparin, thus inhibiting coagulation.
Heparin has a faster onset of anticoagulant action as it will inhibit not only Xa but also thrombin, while LMWH acts only on Xa inhibition.

Compared to heparin, LMWHs have a longer half-life, so dosing is more predictable and can be less frequent, most commonly once per day.

Dosage and uses:
LMWH is administered via subcutaneous injection. This has long-term implications on the choice of anticoagulant for prophylaxis, for example, in orthopaedic patients recovering from joint replacement surgery, or in the treatment of DVT/PE.

Adverse effects:
The main risk of LMWH will be bleeding. The specific antidote for heparin-induced bleeding is protamine sulphate.
Less commonly it can cause:
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Osteoporosis and spontaneous fractures
Hypoaldosteronism
Hypersensitivity reactions

CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
Congestive heart failure – 1 point
Hypertension – 1 point
Age >75 years – 2 points
Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
A score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 3, so he needs life long warfarin to prevent stroke.

This patient is most likely suffering from hand, foot mouth disease which is caused by coxsackie virus A16. Its incubation period ranges from 5-7 days and only symptomatic treatment is required.

Varicella zoster virus (VZV) presents in this way and the rash transforms from macules to vesicles. Pneumonitis is a common complication of VZV infection.

Finding it difficult to swallow both food and drink with a narrow oesophagus is consistent with a diagnosis of achalasia.

Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

The latest reserches say that simple tooth extraction in patients on warfarin treatment can be performed safely without high risk of bleeding, providing that the INR is equal to or less than 3.5 on the day of extraction. A close follow-up and monitoring of patients taking warfarin is mandatory after dental extraction.

Immediate Management of Pulseless Ventricular Tachycardia:

1. Continuous Chest Compressions:
   • Continuous chest compressions should be started immediately to maintain circulation while the defibrillator is being prepared. High-quality chest compressions are crucial and should not be delayed.
2. Defibrillation:
   • Once the defibrillator arrives, defibrillation should be performed as soon as possible. For pulseless ventricular tachycardia, delivering a shock is critical to attempt to restore a normal heart rhythm.

Other options:

He should be given a precordial thump: This is not recommended as a primary action when a defibrillator is available or arriving imminently.

A ventilation to compression ratio of 30:2 should be commenced: While ventilation is important, continuous chest compressions take precedence in the initial phase. The ratio of 30:2 is used during CPR when ventilations are also being provided, typically when two rescuers are present.

Await arrival of defibrillator, then deliver shock: Waiting passively without performing chest compressions is not appropriate.

Intravenous adrenaline should be given: Adrenaline is part of the advanced life support protocol, but the first immediate action should be chest compressions followed by defibrillation.

A translocation between chromosome 15 and 17 is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL), which is known to carry a good prognosis.

Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly. The disease has poor prognosis if:

The disease has poor prognosis if:
1. Age of the patient >60 years
2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

APL is an aggressive form of AML. It is associated with t(15;17) and has a good prognosis. The general age of presentation is less than that in other types of AML (average age is 25 years old). On blood film, abundant Auer rods are seen with myeloperoxidase staining. Thrombocytopaenia or DIC is seen in patients presenting with this disease.

The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

Troponin T is a 37 ku protein that binds to tropomyosin, thereby attaching the troponin complex to the thin filament.

A 3-dimensional transoesophageal echocardiography (3D TEE) provides direct visualization of the entire PFO anatomy and surrounding structures. It allows more accurate diagnosis.

Diarrhoea, iron deficiency anaemia and folic acid deficiency are suggestive of malabsorption. Malabsorption leads to a decrease in the solid content of the stools resulting in diarrhoea. Decrease in the absorption of folic acid causes folic acid deficiency, and iron deficiency in the body leads to iron deficiency anaemia.
Jejunal villous atrophy is characterized with pain and weight loss as well, which this patient does not have.
A patient with increased catabolism has sudden weight loss along with deficiencies of nutrients.

Klinefelter syndrome (KS), the most common human sex chromosome disorder 47,XXY. It is characterized by hypogonadism (micro-orchidism, oligospermia/azoospermia) and gynecomastia in late puberty. If Klinefelter syndrome is not diagnosed prenatally, a patient with 47,XXY karyotype may demonstrate various subtle, age-related clinical signs that would prompt diagnostic testing. These include the following:
Infants: Hypospadias, small phallus, cryptorchidism.
Toddlers: Developmental delay (especially expressive language skills), hypotonia.
Older boys and adolescent males: Tall stature; delayed or incomplete pubertal development with eunuchoid body habitus; gynecomastia; small, firm testes; sparse body hair.

From childhood with progression to early puberty, the pituitary-gonadal function observed is within normal limits for 47,XXY males.
At mid puberty and later, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) concentrations rise to hyper-gonadotropic levels, inhibin B levels fall until they are undetectable, and testosterone levels are at low or low-normal levels after an initial increase.

Fragile X syndrome, also termed Martin-Bell syndrome or marker X syndrome, is the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, intellectual disability, and autism.
However, the patient here does not have any mental disabilities as he already works as a clerk, and that too would make Down’s Syndrome less likely.

Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) and idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (IHH) are rare genetic conditions that encompass the spectrum of isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. Hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome, in contrast to patients with idiopathic hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, whose sense of smell is normal.

Characteristic colicky pain and non tender abdomen is characteristic of ureteric colic. Some patients present with urinary symptoms such as haematuria and dysuria, Vomiting is due to activation of sympathetic nervous system due to pain.

Stable dose of Morphine is essential for chronic cases of pain that are non-malignant in origin. Using the SC route avoids having to intravenously cannulate a patient and allows for a continuous infusion of drugs over a calculated period of time providing constant dosing A significant advantage is that plasma levels of a drug are much more stable, and appropriate symptom control can be achieved without the toxic effects of the peaks and troughs resulting from episodic drug administration.

Cranial nerve 5, 7, and 8 involvement suggest a lesion in the brainstem.

Vagal manoeuvres can be tried first. If not responding to these then adenosine can be trialled. If 3mg of adenosine has no effect, then give adenosine 6 mg rapid IV push. If patient does not convert, give adenosine 12 mg rapid IV push. Can repeat 12 mg dose of adenosine once if there is no response. If no response, diltiazem or beta-blockers can be given as alternatives.

Chronic cocaine abuse can produce many serious side effects such as erectile dysfunction, ejaculatory dysfunction, hypersomnia, anxiety, hallucinations etc.

This presentation is compatible with acute limb ischemia, which is a surgical emergency. Thromboembolism following atrial fibrillation is the most probable cause for this presentation as there is no history of prolonged immobilization or other associated risk factors in this male patient.

Assess the need for oxygen therapy in people with:
– very severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 below 30% predicted)
– cyanosis (blue tint to skin)
– polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema (swelling)
– a raised jugular venous pressure
– oxygen saturations of 92% or less breathing air.

Also consider assessment for people with severe airflow obstruction (FEV1 30-49% predicted).

Consider long-term oxygen therapy for people with COPD who do not smoke and who:
have a partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) below 7.3 kPa when stable or have a PaO2 above 7.3 and below 8 kPa when stable, if they also have 1 or more of the following:
– secondary polycythaemia
– peripheral oedema
– pulmonary hypertension.

Infection with Klebsiella organisms occurs in the lungs, where they cause destructive changes. Necrosis, inflammation, and haemorrhage occur within lung tissue, sometimes producing a thick, bloody, mucoid sputum described as currant jelly sputum.
The illness typically affects middle-aged and older men with debilitating diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic bronchopulmonary disease. An increased tendency exists toward abscess formation, cavitation, empyema, and pleural adhesions.

The most probable diagnosis is perforated peptic ulcer. History of possible NSAID/steroid use for joint pain, sudden-onset severe epigastric pain, vomiting and shoulder tip pain, support the diagnosis. Erect CXR will show the air under the diaphragm which is diagnostic.

The most likely diagnosis is acute atrial fibrillation (AF) precipitated by acute pneumonia. History of fever, cough and the auscultation findings support it. So the most appropriate management is treating the pneumonia with antibiotics. Treating the underlying cause will reduce the heart rate. Other responses are helpful in the management of chronic AF.

Attacks or exacerbations of multiple sclerosis (MS) are characterized by symptoms that reflect central nervous system (CNS) involvement, hence upper motor neuron symptoms are seen.

All of the aforementioned listed tumours, except brain tumours, can metastasise to lungs and produce the typical CXR picture consisting of hilar lymphadenopathy with either diffuse multinodular shadows resembling miliary disease or multiple large well-defined masses (canon balls). Occasionally, cavitation or calcification may also be seen.

Most brain tumours, however, do not metastasise. Some, derived form neural elements, do so but in these cases, intraparenchymal metastases generally precede distant haematogenous spread.

A high level of anti-dsDNA in the blood is strongly associated with lupus and is often significantly increased during or just prior to a flare-up. When the anti-dsDNA is positive and the person tested has other clinical signs and symptoms associated with lupus, it means that the person tested likely has lupus. This is especially true if an anti-Sm test is also positive.

In the evaluation of someone with lupus nephritis, a high level (titre) of anti-dsDNA is generally associated with ongoing inflammation and damage to the kidneys.

A very low level of anti-dsDNA is considered negative but does not exclude a diagnosis of lupus. Only about 65-85% of those with lupus will have anti-dsDNA.

Low to moderate levels of the autoantibody may be seen with other autoimmune disorders, such as Sjögren syndrome and mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

Dinner fork deformity is the name given to the fracture of distal radius, in which the distal fragment is dorsally angulated, displaced and sometimes impacted. Coxa vara is the hip deformity when angle between the head and shaft of the femur is reduced to more than 120 degree. A garden fork deformity is a reversed Colles fracture.

The sciatic neve originates in the sacral plexus, mainly from spinal segments L5-S2. It supplies muscles that cause extension of the thigh and flexion of the leg. It divides into two main branches, the tibial nerve and common peroneal nerve, which are responsible for all foot movements. Anterior thigh and medial leg sensory loss is typical of a femoral nerve lesion. The femoral nerve also mediates flexion of the hip.

Acute breathlessness in SLE can be due to a pericardial effusion or a pulmonary embolism. Normal peripheral oxygen saturation and normal ECG, make the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism less likely. To exclude pericardial effusion, an urgent transthoracic echocardiogram is needed.

The patient’s symptoms along with his age indicates a diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Blood test marker CA-19-9 is a prognostic index for colorectal cancer which confirms the suspicion.

Give up to five back blows: hit them firmly on their back between the shoulder blades. Back blows create a strong vibration and pressure in the airway, which is often enough to dislodge the blockage.

The clinical picture points to Lambert- Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) which often presents with weakness of the arms and legs. In LEMS, antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCC) decrease the amount of calcium that can enter the nerve ending, causing autonomic symptoms like dry mouth and slurring of speech, as seen in this patient.

Guillain barre syndrome is a neurological disorder characterised by neuropathy along with ascending paralysis. Denervation rather than demyelination suggests poor prognosis in GB syndrome.

Renal elimination of a drug has no role in altering the bioavailability of a drug.
The bioavailability of a drug is the proportion of the drug which reaches systemic circulation.
Mathematically, bioavailability is the AUCoral/AUCiv x 100%, where AUC = area under the concentration-time curve following a single (oral or iv) dose.

Other options are true:
By definition, the bioavailability of a drug given intravenously is 100%.
Drugs given orally that undergo high pre-systemic (first-pass) metabolism in the liver or gut wall have a low bioavailability e.g. lidocaine.
Bioavailability is also affected by the degree of absorption from the gut and this can change depending on gut motility and administration of other drugs.

The best next step is to try a dairy-free diet, many patients may develop this in their lifetime. IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion, and one would need to rule lactose intolerance out as a potential aetiology first. She is only 28, and without overt bleeding or signs/sxs/labs suggestive of obstruction or inflammation; colonoscopy, flex sig and a barium enema are not indicated.

Hormonal contraceptives all contain man-made oestrogen and progestin hormones in a limited amount. These hormones prevent pregnancy by inhibiting the body’s natural cyclical hormones to prevent pregnancy. Even though all of these drugs except Ibuprofen can cause AIP in a vulnerable woman. The most likely cause is the OCP.

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with evidence of ST-segment elevation MI (STEMI) or presumably new left bundle-branch block (LBBB) presenting within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms if there are no contraindications to fibrinolysis. STEMI is defined as new ST elevation at the J point in at least two contiguous leads of 2 mm (0.2 mV) or more in men or 1.5 mm (0.15 mV) in women in leads V2-V3 and/or 1 mm (0.1 mV) or more in other contiguous limb leads.

Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a newer antidote for dabigatran, the first of its kind. It is a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds dabigatrin with a higher affinity than thrombin. It is very expensive.

Subacute thyroiditis (De Quervain’s thyroiditis) is a self-limiting thyroid condition presenting with three clinical courses of hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, and return to normal thyroid function. In subacute thyroiditis serum thyroglobulin (TG) levels are elevated. ESR is usually greater than 50 mm/h, often exceeding 100 mm/h. Radio-iodine uptake is low or nil. Antithyroperoxidase antibodies are associated with autoimmune thyroiditis

The power of a test is defined as 1 − the probability of Type II error. The Type II error is concluding at no difference (the null is not rejected) when in fact there is a difference, and its probability is named β. Therefore, the power of a study reflects the probability of detecting a difference when this difference exists. It is also very important to medical research that studies are planned with an adequate power so that meaningful conclusions can be issued if no statistical difference has been shown between the treatments compared. More power means less risk for Type II errors and more chances to detect a difference when it exists.

The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.

Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

Drug interactions:
Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is characterized by rapid growth and early dissemination. Prompt initiation of treatment is important.

Patients with clinical stage Ia (T1N0) after standard staging evaluation may be considered for surgical resection, but combined treatment with chemotherapy and radiation therapy is the standard of care. Radiation therapy is often added at the second cycle of chemotherapy.

Historically, patients undergoing surgery for small cell lung cancer (SCLC) had a dismal prognosis. However, more recent data suggest that patients with true stage I SCLC may benefit from surgical resection.

Common sites of hematogenous metastases include the brain, bones, liver, adrenal glands, and bone marrow. The symptoms depend upon the site of spread.

The most likely diagnosis for this patient is adult polycystic kidneys. This disease is associated with the following: valvular heart abnormalities, incompetence, and aneurysms of the cerebral circulation. It can also be associated with excessive erythropoietin production and polycythaemia. There is an increased incidence of aortic incompetence, and mitral valve prolapse occurs in 25 per cent of patients. Hepatic cysts can also occur, and present in 70 per cent of patients – these can also involve the pancreas in 10 per cent of patients and the spleen. Cerebral berry aneurysms are present in around 5-8 per cent of patients, but familial clustering is also observed. That is if there is a family history, over 20 per cent of patients will also have an aneurysm. Diverticular disease is also thought to be increased in patients with polycystic kidney disease.

This case presents with characteristic symptoms of SLE and with her renal biopsy results of focal glomerulonephritis, this is clearly Class III SLE.

Salbutamol stimulates beta-2 adrenergic receptors, which are the predominant receptors in bronchial smooth muscle (beta-2 receptors are also present in the heart in a concentration between 10% and 50%).

Stimulation of beta-2 receptors leads to the activation of enzyme adenyl cyclase that forms cyclic AMP (adenosine-mono-phosphate) from ATP (adenosine-tri-phosphate). This increase of cyclic AMP relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and decrease airway resistance by lowering intracellular ionic calcium concentrations. Salbutamol relaxes the smooth muscles of airways, from trachea to terminal bronchioles.

Increased cyclic AMP concentrations also inhibits the release of bronchoconstrictor mediators such as histamine and leukotriene from the mast cells in the airway.

Spinal cord hemisection, also known as Brown-Sequard syndrome, is associated with symptoms affecting one spinothalamic and one corticospinal tract. Symptoms include ipsilateral paralysis, loss of vibration and position sense, and hyperreflexia below the level of the lesion. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation is also seen, usually beginning 2-3 segments below the level of the lesion.

Hemochromatosis is a condition that leads to abnormal iron deposition in specific organs. There are two main types: primary (hereditary) and secondary (e.g., transfusion-related). The most common form is hereditary autosomal recessive hemochromatosis type 1, which is caused by an underlying genetic defect that results in partially uninhibited absorption of iron in the small intestine.
Hemochromatosis is mostly asymptomatic but can become symptomatic, usually between the third and fifth decade of life, when poisonous levels of iron have had time to accumulate in the body. Symptoms include fatigue, hyperpigmentation, diabetes mellitus (bronze diabetes), and arthralgia. The deposits may lead to various organ diseases, the most typical being the development of liver cirrhosis, which is accompanied by an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Serum ferritin and transferrin saturation levels are typically elevated. Molecular genetic testing or a liver biopsy may be used to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment primarily consists of repeated phlebotomy to reduce iron levels. In addition, dietary changes and drug therapy (chelating agents such as deferoxamine) may be used to influence the amount of iron in the body.

From the given answers, the most suitable answer is the intercostal artery. However the most vulnerable structure is the intercostal nerve, then intercostal artery and finally intercostal vein.

The condition described is called Wernicke’s aphasia and is the result of occlusion of the inferior division of the middle cerebral artery. This type of aphasia is classified as fluent aphasia in which understanding is impaired.

Class I indications (i.e., the benefit greatly outweighs the risk, and the treatment should be administered): -Structural heart disease, sustained VT
-Syncope of undetermined origin, inducible VT or VF at electrophysiologic study (EPS)
-Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≤35% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤35%, NYHA class II or III
-LVEF ≤30% due to prior MI, at least 40 days post-MI
-LVEF ≤40% due to prior MI, inducible VT or VF at EPS

Class IIa indications (i.e., the benefit outweighs the risk and it is reasonable to administer the treatment):
-Unexplained syncope, significant LV dysfunction, nonischaemic cardiomyopathy
-Sustained VT, normal or near-normal ventricular function
-Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with 1 or more major risk factors
-Arrhythmogenic right ventricular dysplasia/cardiomyopathy (ARVD/C) with 1 or more risk factors for sudden cardiac death (SCD)
-Long QT syndrome, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Nonhospitalized patients awaiting heart transplant
-Brugada syndrome, syncope or VT
-Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT, syncope or VT while receiving beta-blockers
-Cardiac sarcoidosis, giant cell myocarditis, or Chagas disease

ACE inhibitors are known to cause a dry cough and they should be stopped, to settle the cough. The next drug of choice is an angiotensin receptor blocker such as candesartan.

Cortical blindness is due to a bilateral infarction in the area covered by the distal posterior cerebral arteries and pupillary reflex is preserved. Patients may not notice this blindness (called Anton’s syndrome). Anton-Babinski syndrome, also known as Anton’s blindness and visual anosognosia, is a rare symptom of brain damage occurring in the occipital lobe. Those who have it are cortically blind, but affirm that they are capable of seeing.

The commonest symptom of mitral valve stenosis is dyspnoea, and it is one of the most common clinical findings which can be seen in rheumatic fever.

Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of sarcoidosis characterized by erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), and polyarthralgia or polyarthritis. Other symptoms include anterior uveitis, fever, ankle periarthritis, and pulmonary involvement.

Löfgren syndrome is usually an acute disease with an excellent prognosis, typically resolving spontaneously from 6-8 weeks to up to 2 years after onset. Pulmonologists, ophthalmologists, and rheumatologists often define this syndrome differently, describing varying combinations of arthritis, arthralgia, uveitis, erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy, and/or other clinical findings.

Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA (N-Methyl-D-Aspartate)-receptor subtype of glutamate receptor. It is used to slow the neurotoxicity thought to be involved in Alzheimer’s disease and other neurodegenerative diseases.

Drug interactions:
When given concomitantly with other NMDA-receptor antagonists (e.g., ketamine, amantadine) increase the risk of psychosis.
Dopamine agonists, L-dopa, and anticholinergics enhance effects of memantine.
Antispasmodics (e.g., baclofen)  enhance effects, as memantine has some antispasmodic effects.
Drugs excreted by cationic transporters in the kidney (e.g. quinine, cimetidine, ranitidine) reduce excretion.

Common adverse effects include dizziness, headache, confusion, diarrhoea, and constipation.

Painful haematuria suggests trauma, infection or calculi, whereas painless haematuria suggests a possible occult malignancy. This man is apyrexial with normal WCC and CRP which should effectively exclude infection as a cause for his symptoms. There is no history of trauma in this scenario (often catheter-associated) which makes this cause unlikely. It is worth noting that haematuria associated with injury tends to be macroscopic. Therefore, bladder calculi are the most likely source of his symptoms. Imaging will help to determine the presence of calculi.

Melanocytic nevi are benign neoplasms or hamartomas composed of melanocytes. Melanocytes are derived from the neural crest and migrate during embryogenesis to selected ectodermal sites (primarily the skin and the CNS), but also to the eyes and the ears.
They tend to appear during early childhood and during the first 30 years of life. They may change slowly, becoming raised, changing color or gradually fading.. Pregnancy can increase the number of naevi as well as the degree of hyperpigmentation.
They may become malignant and this should be suspected if the naevus increases in size, develops an irregular surface or becomes darker, itches or bleeds.

The size of the kidneys on ultrasound would differentiate chronic from acute renal failures. Chronic renal failure is more associated with small-sized kidneys.

If steroid is applied first, applying an emollient after could spread it from where it had been applied. If steroid is applied immediately after the emollient then it cannot be absorbed, this is why there should be a time interval of around thirty minutes between these two treatments in order for them to be effective.

Haemoptysis is a symptom which indicates the worsening of mitral stenosis. It occurs due to the rupture of pulmonary veins or the capillary system due to pulmonary venous hypertension. Elevated serum creatinine is seen in worsening aortic stenosis. Worsening of tricuspid regurgitation causes ascites and a pulsatile liver.

A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2-2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure.

CURB Pneumonia Severity Score estimates the mortality of community-acquired pneumonia to help determine inpatient vs. outpatient treatment.
Select Criteria:
Confusion (abbreviated Mental Test Score <=8) (1 point)
Urea (BUN > 19 mg/dL or 7 mmol/L) (1 point)
Respiratory Rate > 30 per minute (1 point)
Blood Pressure: diastolic < 60 or systolic < 90 mmHg (1 point) The CURB-65 scores range from 0 to 5. Clinical management decisions can be made based on the score:
Score Risk Disposition
0 or 1 – 1.5% mortality – Outpatient care
2 – 9.2% mortality – Inpatient vs. observation admission
> 3 – 22% mortality – Inpatient admission with consideration for ICU admission with score of 4 or 5

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) refers to a group of lung diseases that can develop after exposure to certain substances. The name describes the origin and the nature of these diseases:

‘extrinsic’ – caused by something originating outside the body
‘allergic’ – an abnormally increased (hypersensitive) body reaction to a common substance
‘alveolitis’ – inflammation in the small air sacs of the lungs (alveoli)

Symptoms can include: fever, cough, worsening breathlessness and weight loss. The diagnosis of the disease is based on a history of symptoms after exposure to the allergen and a range of clinical tests which usually includes: X-rays or CT scans, lung function and blood tests.

EAA is not a ‘new’ occupational respiratory disease and occupational causes include bacteria, fungi, animal proteins, plants and chemicals.

Examples of EAA include:

Bird fancier’s lung (BFL) is a type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP). It is triggered by exposure to avian proteins present in the dry dust of the droppings and sometimes in the feathers of a variety of birds. The lungs become inflamed, with granuloma formation. Birds such as pigeons, parakeets, cockatiels, shell parakeets (budgerigars), parrots, turtle doves, turkeys and chickens have been implicated.

People who work with birds or own many birds are at risk. Bird hobbyists and pet store workers may also be at risk. This disease is an inflammation of the alveoli in the lungs caused by an immune response to inhaled allergens from birds. Initial symptoms include shortness of breath (dyspnoea), especially after sudden exertion or when exposed to temperature change, which can resemble asthma, hyperventilation syndrome or pulmonary embolism. Chills, fever, non-productive cough and chest discomfort may also occur.

A definitive diagnosis can be difficult without invasive testing, but extensive exposure to birds combined with reduced diffusing capacity are strongly suggestive of this disease. X-ray or CT scans will show physical changes to the lung structure (a ground glass appearance) as the disease progresses. Precise distribution and types of tissue damage differ among similar diseases, as does response to treatment with Prednisone.