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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements about hepatitis C treatment in people living with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is true?

      Your Answer: Response rates to hepatitis C treatment are higher in HIV/HCV coinfected patients compared to HCV mono-infected patients.

      Correct Answer: Newer all-oral direct-acting antiviral HCV regimens (DAAs) have fewer drug-drug interactions than earlier interferon-based regimens.

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is a complex issue that requires careful consideration of various factors. One of the true statements about hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is that newer all-oral direct-acting antiviral HCV regimens (DAAs) have fewer drug-drug interactions than earlier interferon-based regimens. This is important because people living with HIV often take multiple medications, and minimizing drug interactions is crucial to avoid potential complications and ensure the effectiveness of treatment. By using newer DAAs, healthcare providers can more easily manage drug interactions and provide safer and more effective treatment for HIV/HCV coinfected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A woman presents with several painful ulcers on her vulva. What do you...

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents with several painful ulcers on her vulva. What do you think has most likely caused this?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas

      Correct Answer: HSV

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes, caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV), is the most likely cause of the painful ulcers on the woman’s vulva. Genital herpes is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause painful sores or blisters to develop on the genital area. These sores can be very uncomfortable and may also be accompanied by other symptoms such as itching, burning, and swollen lymph nodes. It is important for the woman to seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment of genital herpes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, according to the guidelines?

      Your Answer: Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD)

      Explanation:

      The preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, according to the guidelines is Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD). This regimen is recommended in the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines because it has been shown to be effective in suppressing HIV viral load, is well-tolerated by patients, and is a fixed-dose combination which can help improve adherence to treatment.

      Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate is a potent antiretroviral drug that inhibits the replication of HIV, while Lamivudine and Dolutegravir are also effective in controlling the virus. The combination of these three drugs in a single pill simplifies the treatment regimen for patients, making it easier for them to take their medication consistently.

      Additionally, TLD has been found to have a favorable safety profile, with fewer side effects compared to some other ART regimens. This is particularly important for pregnant and breastfeeding women, as the safety of the medication for both the mother and the baby is a key consideration in choosing an ART regimen.

      Overall, Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD) is recommended as the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents weighing ≥ 30 kg, including pregnant and breastfeeding women, due to its efficacy, tolerability, and simplicity of dosing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats are symptoms of a patient. You believe...

    Incorrect

    • Haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats are symptoms of a patient. You believe you've been diagnosed with tuberculosis. He works at an asylum seeker hostel, but due to a contraindication, he did not receive a BCG vaccination when he first started there.

      Which of the following patient groups would the BCG vaccine be safe to administer?

      Your Answer: The patient is HIV positive and asymptomatic

      Correct Answer: The patient is asplenic

      Explanation:

      The BCG vaccine is a live vaccine that is used to protect against tuberculosis. In patients with asplenia, all vaccines, whether live or inactivated, are generally safe to administer. This is because individuals without a spleen have a weakened immune system and are at higher risk for infections, so vaccination is important for their protection.

      Anaphylaxis following any vaccination is a contraindication to receiving that vaccine again. This is because anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening, so it is important to avoid any triggers that may cause it.

      Pregnancy is a contraindication for live vaccines, including the BCG vaccine. This is because live vaccines have the potential to harm the developing fetus, so they are generally not recommended during pregnancy.

      HIV infection, whether asymptomatic or symptomatic, is also a contraindication for live vaccines. This is because individuals with HIV have a weakened immune system and may not be able to mount an effective response to the vaccine, putting them at risk for complications.

      In summary, the BCG vaccine would be safe to administer to a patient who is asplenic, but not to a patient who has had anaphylaxis following their first BCG vaccination, is pregnant, or is HIV positive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What should be done if a child under two years tests HIV-positive? ...

    Correct

    • What should be done if a child under two years tests HIV-positive?

      Your Answer: Initiate ART as soon as possible

      Explanation:

      Children under two years of age are at a higher risk of rapid disease progression if they are HIV-positive. Therefore, it is crucial to initiate antiretroviral therapy (ART) as soon as possible to prevent further complications and improve the child’s health outcomes. Waiting for confirmatory results before starting treatment can delay necessary care and potentially worsen the child’s condition. Additionally, providing cotrimoxazole prophylaxis can help prevent opportunistic infections in HIV-positive children. Confirming the HIV diagnosis with a rapid test can help ensure accurate results and guide appropriate treatment decisions. Overall, the priority should be to initiate ART promptly to give the child the best chance at a healthy life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old HIV patient started on an antifungal agent. Which antifungal agent that inhibits the biosynthesis of fungal ergosterol was given to the patient?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      The question asks about an antifungal agent given to a 27-year-old HIV patient that inhibits the biosynthesis of fungal ergosterol. The correct answer is Ketoconazole.

      Ketoconazole is a synthetic imidazole antifungal drug that works by inhibiting the biosynthesis of ergosterol in fungi. Ergosterol is an essential component of the fungal cell membrane, and its inhibition disrupts the integrity of the membrane, leading to cell death. Ketoconazole achieves this by blocking demethylation at the C14 site of the ergosterol precursor.

      The other options provided in the question are different antifungal agents with varying mechanisms of action. Amphotericin B and Nystatin work by impairing the permeability of the fungal cell membrane. Flucytosine interferes with DNA synthesis in fungi, while Griseofulvin targets the microtubules within the fungal cells.

      In summary, Ketoconazole is the correct answer as it inhibits the biosynthesis of fungal ergosterol, making it an effective treatment for fungal infections in patients like the one described in the question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      64.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - How does the guideline propose handling the records of HIV-positive women and their...

    Correct

    • How does the guideline propose handling the records of HIV-positive women and their infants?

      Your Answer: Using specific documents such as the Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet

      Explanation:

      The guideline proposes using specific documents such as the Maternity Case Record for the mother and The Road to Health Booklet for the HIV-exposed infant because these documents are designed to capture all the necessary information related to the healthcare of HIV-positive women and their infants. These documents provide a structured format for recording important medical history, test results, treatment plans, and follow-up care. By using these specific documents, healthcare providers can ensure that all relevant information is documented accurately and consistently, which is essential for providing comprehensive and coordinated care to HIV-positive women and their infants. Additionally, using standardized documents like the Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet can facilitate communication and information sharing among healthcare providers, ultimately improving the quality of care for this vulnerable population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the recommended screening frequency for HIV testing among pregnant women during...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended screening frequency for HIV testing among pregnant women during antenatal care visits?

      Your Answer: At every routine antenatal care visit

      Explanation:

      HIV testing is recommended to be offered at every routine antenatal care visit for pregnant women because early detection and treatment of HIV during pregnancy can significantly reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of the virus. By testing regularly throughout the pregnancy, healthcare providers can ensure that any potential cases of HIV are identified promptly and appropriate interventions can be implemented to protect both the mother and the baby. Additionally, offering HIV testing at every antenatal care visit helps to normalize the practice and reduce stigma associated with HIV testing, making it more likely that pregnant women will accept testing. This approach aligns with the World Health Organization’s recommendation for universal HIV testing in antenatal care settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A physician contacts you for advice regarding a depressed patient with HIV who...

    Incorrect

    • A physician contacts you for advice regarding a depressed patient with HIV who is taking atazanavir. They are considering prescribing an antidepressant but are concerned about potential contraindications. Which antidepressant should be avoided due to its contraindication with atazanavir?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: St John's Wort

      Explanation:

      The physician is seeking advice on prescribing an antidepressant for a depressed patient with HIV who is taking atazanavir. Atazanavir is an antiretroviral drug used to manage HIV, and it is important to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing other medications. In this case, the antidepressant St John’s Wort should be avoided due to its contraindication with atazanavir. St John’s Wort can reduce the efficacy of antiretroviral drugs, potentially leading to treatment failure and increased risk of HIV progression.

      Among the other options provided, paroxetine, citalopram, sertraline, and amitriptyline do not have significant interactions with atazanavir and can be considered for the patient. It is important for the physician to carefully review the patient’s medical history, current medications, and potential drug interactions before prescribing an antidepressant to ensure safe and effective treatment for both depression and HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What care is recommended for the non-pregnant woman of childbearing potential at home?...

    Incorrect

    • What care is recommended for the non-pregnant woman of childbearing potential at home?

      Your Answer: Offer HIV testing to her and her partner

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      It is important for non-pregnant women of childbearing potential to receive education on good nutrition and lifestyle in order to maintain their overall health and prepare their bodies for a potential pregnancy. Screening for TB and STIs is crucial to ensure that any infections are detected and treated promptly, reducing the risk of complications during pregnancy. Encouraging these women to attend antenatal clinics regularly can help monitor their reproductive health and address any concerns or issues that may arise. Additionally, offering HIV testing to both the woman and her partner is important for preventing the transmission of the virus to the unborn child and ensuring appropriate care and support for the family. Therefore, all of the above options are recommended for the care of non-pregnant women of childbearing potential at home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How is WHO clinical staging used in monitoring clients on ART? ...

    Correct

    • How is WHO clinical staging used in monitoring clients on ART?

      Your Answer: To evaluate treatment response and disease progression

      Explanation:

      WHO clinical staging is a standardized system used to assess the clinical status of individuals living with HIV/AIDS. It categorizes patients into different stages based on the presence of specific signs and symptoms related to HIV infection. This staging system is important in monitoring clients on antiretroviral therapy (ART) as it helps healthcare providers evaluate treatment response and disease progression.

      The stages in the WHO clinical staging system provide valuable information on the severity of the disease and help guide healthcare providers in making decisions regarding treatment. By regularly assessing clients using the WHO clinical staging system, healthcare providers can track changes in their clinical status over time and make adjustments to their treatment plan as needed.

      In addition to evaluating treatment response and disease progression, WHO clinical staging can also be used to determine eligibility for ART initiation, guide ART regimen selection, and assess adherence to treatment. By incorporating WHO clinical staging into routine monitoring of clients on ART, healthcare providers can ensure that patients are receiving the appropriate care and support to effectively manage their HIV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What should be done if a client on an NNRTI-based regimen has persistent...

    Correct

    • What should be done if a client on an NNRTI-based regimen has persistent low-grade viremia?

      Your Answer: Consider single drug switch to TLD

      Explanation:

      Persistent low-grade viremia on an NNRTI-based regimen can be concerning as it may indicate the development of drug resistance or suboptimal viral suppression. In such cases, it is important to consider switching to a more potent regimen to achieve better viral control and prevent further resistance.

      Immediate regimen change to a PI-based regimen may be too aggressive and not necessary at this stage, as a single drug switch to TLD can often be effective in improving viral suppression. Referring to a third-line committee may be premature, as there are still options to explore before moving to third-line regimens.

      Increasing the dosage of the current medication may not be effective in addressing persistent low-grade viremia, as the issue may be related to drug resistance or suboptimal drug potency. Therefore, considering a single drug switch to TLD is a reasonable approach to enhance viral suppression and improve treatment outcomes in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora. The woman admits she is sexually active. Which lymph nodes will the ulcer drain to?

      Your Answer: Iliac

      Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal

      Explanation:

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. It typically presents as painful genital ulcers that can bleed and have a characteristic appearance. In this case, the 4cm bleeding ulcer on the woman’s labia minora is likely due to chancroid.

      When a chancroid ulcer is present, it can drain to the lymph nodes in the groin region. The lymph nodes that are most commonly affected in this case are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. These nodes are located in the groin area and are responsible for draining lymphatic fluid from the lower extremities, external genitalia, and perineum.

      Therefore, in this scenario, the bleeding ulcer on the woman’s labia minora would likely drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. It is important to consider the possibility of chancroid in sexually active individuals presenting with genital ulcers, as prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - When considering the management of bacterial pneumonia in HIV patients treated as outpatients,...

    Correct

    • When considering the management of bacterial pneumonia in HIV patients treated as outpatients, which antibiotics are preferred?

      Your Answer: Oral beta-lactam plus an oral macrolide.

      Explanation:

      Bacterial pneumonia in HIV patients can be more severe and difficult to treat compared to non-HIV patients. Therefore, the preferred antibiotics for managing bacterial pneumonia in HIV patients treated as outpatients are oral beta-lactam plus an oral macrolide. This combination provides broad coverage against common pathogens causing pneumonia, including Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae.

      IV ceftriaxone alone is not preferred for outpatient treatment as it requires intravenous administration and may not be necessary for mild to moderate cases of bacterial pneumonia. Oral azithromycin alone may not provide adequate coverage for all pathogens causing pneumonia in HIV patients. IV respiratory fluoroquinolone alone is an alternative option but may be reserved for cases where beta-lactam antibiotics are contraindicated or ineffective.

      Doxycycline is not typically recommended as the first choice for treating bacterial pneumonia in HIV patients due to concerns about resistance and limited coverage against certain pathogens. Overall, the guidelines recommend oral beta-lactam plus an oral macrolide as the preferred treatment option for outpatient HIV patients with bacterial pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 12-month-old baby with HIV is scheduled for his MMR vaccine. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old baby with HIV is scheduled for his MMR vaccine. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Proceed with standard immunization schedule

      Correct Answer: Don't give the vaccine

      Explanation:

      HIV weakens the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Live attenuated vaccines, such as the MMR vaccine, contain a weakened form of the virus that could potentially cause harm to individuals with compromised immune systems. Therefore, it is not recommended to give the MMR vaccine to a 12-month-old baby with HIV.

      The most appropriate action in this scenario would be to not give the vaccine. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to discuss alternative vaccination options for the baby. Deferment of the immunization for 2 weeks may not be sufficient, as live attenuated vaccines should generally be avoided in HIV+ patients. Giving a half dose of the vaccine or administering paracetamol with future doses of the same vaccine are not appropriate actions in this case.

      It is crucial to prioritize the health and safety of the baby with HIV by following the recommended guidelines for vaccination in individuals with compromised immune systems. Consulting with a healthcare provider who is knowledgeable about the specific needs of HIV+ patients is essential in making informed decisions regarding vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old Afro-Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response.

      His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length.

      What would a renal biopsy show?

      Your Answer: Minimal-change disease

      Correct Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS

      Explanation:

      HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) is a common complication of HIV infection, particularly in individuals of African descent. It is characterized by renal dysfunction, proteinuria, and progressive renal failure.

      A renal biopsy in a patient with HIVAN would typically show microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS (focal segmental glomerulosclerosis). FSGS is a pattern of scarring in the kidney that can lead to proteinuria and eventually kidney failure. The collapsing variant of FSGS is particularly associated with HIVAN and is characterized by prominent podocytes and collapsing capillary loops.

      Other possible findings on renal biopsy in HIVAN may include Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions, which are characteristic of diabetic nephropathy, but can also be seen in HIVAN. Minimal-change disease, focal necrotizing crescentic nephritis, and membranous nephropathy are less likely to be seen in HIVAN.

      In this case, the patient’s clinical presentation of swollen ankles, elevated plasma creatinine, significant proteinuria, and echogenic kidneys on ultrasound are all consistent with a diagnosis of HIVAN. A renal biopsy showing microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS would confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old man from Russia presents with a history of cough with blood-stained...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man from Russia presents with a history of cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Suspecting tuberculosis, you begin investigations.

      All the following statements regarding tuberculosis (TB) are true EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroid use is not a risk factor for developing TB

      Explanation:

      Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Corticosteroid use is indeed a risk factor for developing TB because corticosteroids suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections like TB.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not fluoresce with auramine staining, but it does fluoresce with Ziehl-Neelsen staining. Pott’s disease, a form of TB that affects the spine, most commonly affects the lower thoracic and upper lumbar regions. Cavitation, the formation of cavities or holes in the lungs, most commonly occurs at the lung apices.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis cannot be Gram stained because it has a unique cell wall composition that does not allow for the retention of the Gram stain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      45.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the recommended management for infants born to HIV-positive mothers from birth...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended management for infants born to HIV-positive mothers from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg?

      Your Answer: Zidovudine-Lamivudine-Nevirapine

      Explanation:

      Infants born to HIV-positive mothers are at risk of acquiring the virus during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. It is crucial to provide these infants with appropriate antiretroviral therapy (ART) to prevent HIV transmission and manage the virus if it is already present.

      For full-term neonates from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing at least 3.0 kg, the recommended management is an ART regimen of Zidovudine-Lamivudine-Nevirapine. This regimen is specifically chosen for neonates because it is effective in managing HIV in this age group. Zidovudine and Lamivudine are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors that work by blocking the replication of the virus, while Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that also inhibits viral replication.

      By starting ART early in life, infants born to HIV-positive mothers have a better chance of living a healthy life free from HIV. It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor these infants and adjust the treatment regimen as needed to ensure optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster

      Correct Answer: Herpes zoster

      Explanation:

      Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. When the virus reactivates, it can cause painful vesicular lesions in a specific dermatome area, such as the ear canal in this case. The high-grade fever may be present due to the infection.

      Varicella zoster is the virus responsible for chickenpox, not shingles. Measles is caused by the measles virus and presents with a characteristic rash, but not tender lesions in a specific area. Herpes simplex virus can cause cold sores or genital herpes, but not the specific presentation described in the question. HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to various opportunistic infections, but it does not typically present with tender lesions in a specific area like herpes zoster.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Regarding hepatitis A, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding hepatitis A, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Disease is most severe in children and infants.

      Correct Answer: Anti-HAV IgM antibodies are diagnostic.

      Explanation:

      Anti-HAV IgM antibodies are diagnostic. Disease in children is more commonly asymptomatic, risk of symptomatic disease increases with age. Transmission is by the faecal-oral route. Faecal shedding has been demonstrated for 2 – 3 weeks before and about a week after, the onset of jaundice. Infection confers lifelong immunity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Who primarily conducts ART initiation? ...

    Correct

    • Who primarily conducts ART initiation?

      Your Answer: NIMART trained nurse or doctor

      Explanation:

      ART initiation is a complex process that requires specialized training and knowledge in HIV treatment and management. NIMART (Nurse-Initiated Management of Antiretroviral Treatment) trained nurses and doctors have received specific training in initiating and managing ART for patients with HIV. They have the necessary skills to assess a patient’s eligibility for ART, prescribe the appropriate medications, monitor treatment progress, and manage any potential side effects or complications.

      General physicians, community health workers, pharmacists, and social workers may also play important roles in supporting patients throughout their HIV treatment journey, but the primary responsibility for ART initiation typically falls on NIMART trained nurses or doctors. Their specialized training and expertise make them well-equipped to provide high-quality care and ensure the best possible outcomes for patients starting ART.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      20.8
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a female partner. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and myalgia, which began four weeks ago. The patient has a history of asthma, which is managed with salbutamol. The doctor advises him to undergo HIV testing, and he consents. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Order HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action is to order a combination test for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of HIV seroconversion and had unprotected intercourse 4 weeks ago. Combination tests are now the standard for HIV diagnosis and screening, with p24 antigen tests typically turning positive between 1 and 4 weeks post-exposure and antibody tests turning positive between 4 weeks and 3 months post-exposure. If a patient at risk tests positive, the diagnosis should be confirmed with a repeat test before starting treatment.

      Offering post-exposure prophylaxis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient had unprotected intercourse 3 weeks ago. Two NRTIs and an NNRTI should not be prescribed as treatment, as the patient has not yet tested positive. Ordering only a p24 antigen or antibody test alone is also not recommended, as combination tests are now standard practice.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis

      HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.

      Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      80
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the primary reason for assessing renal function before initiating TDF-containing regimens?...

    Correct

    • What is the primary reason for assessing renal function before initiating TDF-containing regimens?

      Your Answer: To ensure safe use of TDF without exacerbating renal impairment

      Explanation:

      Assessing renal function before initiating TDF-containing regimens is important because TDF is primarily excreted through the kidneys. If a patient already has impaired renal function, TDF may accumulate in the body and lead to potential toxicity. By assessing renal function before starting TDF, healthcare providers can determine if the patient’s kidneys are functioning well enough to safely metabolize and excrete the drug.

      The primary reason for assessing renal function before initiating TDF-containing regimens is to ensure safe use of the drug without exacerbating pre-existing renal impairment. This is important for preventing potential complications and adverse effects that may arise from TDF accumulation in the body. Monitoring renal function allows healthcare providers to adjust the dosage or consider alternative treatment options if necessary to minimize the risk of kidney-related complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Correct Answer: Ig

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, if a woman who is not immune to chickenpox is exposed to the virus, there is a risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus. Varicella zoster immunoglobulin (Ig) is recommended for pregnant women who are not immune and have been exposed to chickenpox to prevent severe illness and potential transmission to the fetus.

      In this case, the most appropriate measure would be to administer Ig to the pregnant woman to provide passive immunity and reduce the risk of complications. Reassurance alone would not provide protection against the virus. Ig + vaccine may be considered in some cases, but it is generally not recommended during pregnancy. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat chickenpox, but it is not typically used as a preventive measure in this situation. Vaccine only is also not recommended during pregnancy as live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnant women.

      Therefore, the most appropriate measure in this scenario would be to administer immunoglobulin to the pregnant woman to protect her and her fetus from potential complications of chickenpox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      31.2
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  • Question 25 - A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know...

    Correct

    • A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer: May be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis

      Explanation:

      The correct statement regarding the West Nile virus is that it may be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis. This is because the virus can affect the anterior horn cells, leading to symptoms similar to poliomyelitis such as flaccid paralysis.

      The other statements are not true:
      – Infection with West Nile virus can be fatal, especially if not treated promptly.
      – West Nile virus is a member of the Flaviviridae family, not the picornavirus family.
      – Transplacental transmission of West Nile virus can occur, leading to complications in newborns.
      – Treatment with interferon is effective in West Nile virus encephalitis, along with other medications such as IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      15.4
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a rash and fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a rash and fever that have been present for three days. He has a maculopapular rash on his trunk and palms, along with palpable lymph nodes in his groin and axilla. Additionally, he has mouth ulcers and flat white wart-like lesions around his anus. What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cryotherapy

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular benzathine penicillin

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for syphilis is intramuscular benzathine penicillin, which is the correct management for the most likely diagnosis based on the patient’s symptoms of rash, lymphadenopathy, buccal ulcers, and condylomata, indicating secondary syphilis. The presence of a palmar rash is highly indicative of syphilis, although HIV should also be tested for as it can coexist with syphilis and present with similar symptoms. Cryotherapy is a treatment option for genital warts, but the flat white appearance of the wart-like lesions described here suggests they are more likely to be condylomata lata. The suggestion of no specific treatment except hydration and rest is incorrect, as this would only be appropriate for self-limiting viral illnesses such as Epstein-Barr virus, which is a potential differential diagnosis but less likely given the characteristic rash and history of the patient.

      Management of Syphilis

      Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.

      It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.

      In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - For neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, what is the recommended antiretroviral therapy (ART)...

    Correct

    • For neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, what is the recommended antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg?

      Your Answer: Zidovudine-Lamivudine-Nevirapine

      Explanation:

      Neonates born to HIV-positive mothers are at risk of acquiring the virus during childbirth or through breastfeeding. To prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, it is crucial to provide antiretroviral therapy (ART) to these neonates as soon as possible after birth.

      For neonates born to HIV-positive mothers from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg, the recommended ART regimen is Zidovudine (AZT) + Lamivudine (3TC) + Nevirapine (NVP). This combination of antiretroviral drugs has been shown to be effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child.

      Zidovudine (AZT) and Lamivudine (3TC) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that work by inhibiting the replication of the HIV virus. Nevirapine (NVP) is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that also helps to prevent the virus from multiplying in the body.

      By starting ART early in neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, healthcare providers can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission and improve the long-term health outcomes of these infants. It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor the neonates on this ART regimen and adjust the treatment as needed based on their individual health status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.8
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  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient is suspected to have a possible acute hepatitis B infection and is currently under investigation.

      Which of the following markers is considered the earliest indicator of acute infection in acute Hepatitis B?

      Your Answer: IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B surface Ag

      Explanation:

      In patients suspected of having acute hepatitis B infection, the earliest indicator of acute infection is the presence of Hepatitis B surface Antigen (HBsAg) in the serum. HBsAg appears in the serum within 1 to 10 weeks after acute exposure to HBV. This marker is considered the serological hallmark of HBV infection and its persistence for more than 6 months indicates chronic HBV infection.

      The other markers mentioned in the question are not considered the earliest indicators of acute infection. Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) is an intracellular presence in infected hepatocytes and is not identified in the serum. Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) is a neutralizing antibody that confers long-term immunity, typically seen in patients with acquired immunity through vaccination. IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) emerges 1-2 weeks after the presence of HBsAg during acute infection, but wears off after 6 months. Hepatitis delta virus serology refers to the presence of the delta hepatitis virus, a defective virus that requires HBV for replication and can occur in co-infection or superinfection with HBV.

      Therefore, in the context of acute hepatitis B infection, the presence of HBsAg is the earliest and most important marker to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      24.2
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  • Question 29 - According to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), which one of the...

    Correct

    • According to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), which one of the following statements is most accurate regarding the administration of vaccines in children with HIV?

      Your Answer: Most recommended routine childhood vaccines are safe for children with HIV, with the exception that children with severe immunosuppression (CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 and CD4 percentage less than 15%) should not receive varicella or measles-mumps-rubella (MMR)

      Explanation:

      The most accurate statement regarding the administration of vaccines in children with HIV, according to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP), is that most recommended routine childhood vaccines are safe for children with HIV, with the exception that children with severe immunosuppression (CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm3 and CD4 percentage less than 15%) should not receive varicella or measles-mumps-rubella (MMR). This means that children with HIV can receive most vaccines per standard recommended schedules, but certain live vaccines should be avoided in those with severe immunosuppression. It is important for healthcare providers to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and effectiveness of vaccinations in children with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes: ...

    Incorrect

    • Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Sexual transmission

      Correct Answer: Faecal-oral route

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the faecal-oral route, which means that the virus is passed from one person to another through contaminated food, water, or objects. When an infected person does not properly wash their hands after using the bathroom, the virus can be spread to surfaces or food that others come into contact with. When these contaminated items are then ingested by another person, they can become infected with the virus.

      Sexual transmission of Hepatitis A is possible, but it is not as common as the faecal-oral route. The virus can be spread through sexual contact with an infected person, particularly through oral-anal contact.

      Parenteral transmission refers to the transmission of the virus through blood or bodily fluids, such as sharing needles or other drug paraphernalia. However, Hepatitis A is not typically spread through these routes.

      Vector-borne transmission refers to the spread of a virus through insects or other animals. Hepatitis A is not transmitted through vectors.

      Direct skin contact is not a common route of transmission for Hepatitis A. The virus is primarily spread through ingestion of contaminated food or water.

      In conclusion, the correct answer is the faecal-oral route, as Hepatitis A is most commonly transmitted through contaminated food, water, or objects that have been contaminated with the virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      7.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (6/8) 75%
Microbiology (1/7) 14%
Clinical Evaluation (7/8) 88%
Epidemiology (2/4) 50%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/2) 0%
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