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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man comes in with vomiting, disorientation, and decreased urine production. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with vomiting, disorientation, and decreased urine production. His creatinine levels have increased by 150% compared to his usual levels over the past week. After conducting additional tests, the patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What stage of AKI does he fall under?

      Your Answer: Stage 3

      Correct Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease.

      AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from baseline within 7 days (1.5-1.99 times the baseline). Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.

      Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from baseline within 7 days (2.0-2.99 times the baseline), or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.

      In stage 3 AKI, there is a creatinine rise of 200% or more from baseline within 7 days (3.0 or more times the baseline). Alternatively, a creatinine rise to 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days, is indicative of stage 3 AKI. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine output) for 12 hours also falls under stage 3 AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      41
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old artist returns from a vacation in Thailand with a severely painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old artist returns from a vacation in Thailand with a severely painful and red right eye. The symptoms appeared rapidly within a day, and the eye now has excessive mucopurulent discharge and swelling of the eyelid. During the examination, tender pre-auricular lymphadenopathy is observed on the right side. Upon further inquiry, the patient confesses to having visited a sex worker during their trip to Thailand.

      Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Sexually transmitted eye infections can be quite severe and are often characterized by prolonged mucopurulent discharge. There are two main causes of these infections: Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoea. Differentiating between the two can be done by considering certain features.

      Chlamydia trachomatis infection typically presents with chronic low-grade irritation and mucous discharge that lasts for more than two weeks in sexually active individuals. It may also be accompanied by pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. This type of infection is usually unilateral but can sometimes affect both eyes.

      On the other hand, Neisseria gonorrhoea infection tends to develop rapidly, usually within 12 to 24 hours. It is characterized by copious mucopurulent discharge, eyelid swelling, and tender preauricular lymphadenopathy. This type of infection carries a higher risk of complications, such as uveitis, severe keratitis, and corneal perforation.

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, it appears that they are more consistent with a Neisseria gonorrhoea infection. The rapid onset, copious discharge, and tender preauricular lymphadenopathy are indicative of this type of infection.

      Treatment for gonococcal conjunctivitis in adults is typically based on limited research. However, a study has shown that all 12 patients responded well to a single 1 g intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone, along with a single episode of ocular lavage with saline.

      In summary, sexually transmitted eye infections can be caused by either Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoea. Differentiating between the two is important in order to provide appropriate treatment. The patient in this case exhibits symptoms that align more closely with a Neisseria gonorrhoea infection, which carries a higher risk of complications. Treatment options for gonococcal conjunctivitis are limited, but a single injection of ceftriaxone has shown positive results in previous studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 3 - A 42 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of chest pain. The patient appears highly anxious and mentions that she recently had a fasting blood test to screen for diabetes. She was informed that her result was abnormal and needs to follow up with her GP. Concerned about the potential cardiovascular complications associated with diabetes, she expresses worry about her heart. Upon reviewing the pathology system, you come across a recent fasting glucose result. What is the diagnostic threshold for diabetes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: fasting plasma glucose level ≥ 7.0 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      A fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher is indicative of diabetes mellitus. However, it is important to note that hyperglycemia can also occur in individuals with acute infection, trauma, circulatory issues, or other forms of stress, and may only be temporary. Therefore, it is not recommended to diagnose diabetes based on a single test result, and the test should be repeated for confirmation.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetes Mellitus:
      – Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
      – Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
      – Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
      – Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.

      Hypoglycemia:
      – Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
      – Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
      – Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
      – Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
      – Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.

      Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
      – Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
      – Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
      – Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
      – If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested an excessive amount of his lithium medication. You measure his lithium level.
      At what level are toxic effects typically observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The therapeutic range for lithium typically falls between 0.4-0.8 mmol/l, although this range may differ depending on the laboratory. In general, the lower end of the range is the desired level for maintenance therapy and treatment in older individuals. Toxic effects are typically observed when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 5 - You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The FAST scan shows cardiac tamponade. If left untreated, expanding cardiac tamponade can lead to which of the following arrhythmias?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulseless electrical activity

      Explanation:

      If a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury has an expanding cardiac tamponade that is left untreated, it can potentially lead to pulseless electrical activity.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 6 - You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns...

    Incorrect

    • You are overseeing the care of a 70-year-old male who suffered extensive burns in a residential fire. After careful calculation, you have determined that the patient will require 6 liters of fluid over the course of the next 24 hours. Which intravenous fluid would be the most suitable to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hartmann's solution

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing acute burns, Hartmann’s or lactated Ringers are the preferred intravenous fluids. There is no scientific evidence to support the use of colloids in burn management. In the United Kingdom, Hartmann’s solution is the most commonly used fluid for this purpose.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man receives a blood transfusion. Shortly after the transfusion is started,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man receives a blood transfusion. Shortly after the transfusion is started, he experiences a high body temperature, shivering, and severe shaking. Blood samples are collected for testing, and a diagnosis of bacterial infection related to the transfusion is confirmed.
      What is the MOST LIKELY single organism responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica

      Explanation:

      Transfusion transmitted bacterial infection is a rare complication that can occur during blood transfusion. It is more commonly associated with platelet transfusion, as platelets are stored at room temperature. Additionally, previously frozen components that are thawed using a water bath and red cell components stored for several weeks are also at a higher risk for bacterial infection.

      Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria have been implicated in transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, but Gram-negative bacteria are known to cause more severe illness and have higher rates of morbidity and mortality. Among the bacterial organisms, Yersinia enterocolitica is the most commonly associated with this type of infection. This particular organism is able to multiply at low temperatures and utilizes iron as a nutrient, making it well-suited for proliferation in blood stores.

      The clinical features of transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection typically manifest shortly after the transfusion begins. These features include a high fever, chills and rigors, nausea and vomiting, tachycardia, hypotension, and even circulatory collapse.

      If there is suspicion of a transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection, it is crucial to immediately stop the transfusion. Blood cultures and a Gram-stain should be requested to identify the specific bacteria causing the infection. Broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated promptly. Furthermore, the blood pack should be returned to the blood bank urgently for culture and Gram-stain analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department. She is 14 weeks pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department. She is 14 weeks pregnant and has experienced a significant amount of vaginal bleeding accompanied by the passage of blood clots. She reports feeling lightheaded. Her prenatal blood tests indicate that she is Rh-negative. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 46, blood pressure of 82/43, respiratory rate of 22, and oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. The resuscitation nurse has successfully inserted an intravenous line, and a comprehensive set of blood samples, including a cross-match, has been sent to the laboratory.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cervical shock syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing vaginal bleeding along with bradycardia and hypotension. These symptoms can be attributed to a condition known as cervical shock syndrome. It is likely that the products of conception (POC) are located within the os. In cervical shock syndrome, the cervix becomes dilated due to the presence of POC, leading to an increase in bleeding and triggering a vasovagal reaction.

      To address this situation, it is crucial to conduct an urgent speculum examination. During this examination, the POC should be carefully removed using sterile sponge forceps.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. You are preparing to initiate...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has been diagnosed with gonorrhea. You are preparing to initiate antibiotic treatment.
      Which of the following antibiotic combinations would be the most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Ceftriaxone is currently one of the limited antibiotics that effectively treats gonorrhoea. It is typically administered alongside azithromycin or doxycycline to enhance its effectiveness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 10 - You are resuscitating a trauma patient who is 42 years old and your...

    Incorrect

    • You are resuscitating a trauma patient who is 42 years old and your consultant asks you to perform a central venous catheter insertion. During your discussion, you consider which approach carries the greatest risk of pneumothorax.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclavian

      Explanation:

      The subclavian approach for central lines carries the highest risk of pneumothorax. However, it does have advantages such as being accessible during airway control and having easily identifiable landmarks for insertion, even in obese patients. It is important to note that the carotid is not used for CVC’s.

      Further Reading:

      A central venous catheter (CVC) is a type of catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the body, typically in the neck, chest, or groin. It has several important uses, including CVP monitoring, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, repeated blood sampling, IV access for large volumes of fluids or drugs, TPN administration, dialysis, pacing, and other procedures such as placement of IVC filters or venous stents.

      When inserting a central line, it is ideal to use ultrasound guidance to ensure accurate placement. However, there are certain contraindications to central line insertion, including infection or injury to the planned access site, coagulopathy, thrombosis or stenosis of the intended vein, a combative patient, or raised intracranial pressure for jugular venous lines.

      The most common approaches for central line insertion are the internal jugular, subclavian, femoral, and PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) veins. The internal jugular vein is often chosen due to its proximity to the carotid artery, but variations in anatomy can occur. Ultrasound can be used to identify the vessels and guide catheter placement, with the IJV typically lying superficial and lateral to the carotid artery. Compression and Valsalva maneuvers can help distinguish between arterial and venous structures, and doppler color flow can highlight the direction of flow.

      In terms of choosing a side for central line insertion, the right side is usually preferred to avoid the risk of injury to the thoracic duct and potential chylothorax. However, the left side can also be used depending on the clinical situation.

      Femoral central lines are another option for central venous access, with the catheter being inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. Local anesthesia is typically used to establish a field block, with lidocaine being the most commonly used agent. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels and preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      In summary, central venous catheters have various important uses and should ideally be inserted using ultrasound guidance. There are contraindications to their insertion, and different approaches can be used depending on the clinical situation. Local anesthesia is commonly used for central line insertion, with lidocaine being the preferred agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. He has been given a loading dose of aminophylline and you now intend to establish a maintenance infusion. He weighs 70 kg.
      What is the appropriate maintenance infusion rate for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25 mg/hour

      Explanation:

      The recommended daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, which should be taken in 2-3 divided doses. For severe asthma or COPD, the initial intravenous dose is 5 mg/kg and should be administered over 10-20 minutes. This can be followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. In the case of a 50 kg individual, the appropriate infusion rate would be 25 mg/hour. It is important to note that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is narrow, ranging from 10-20 microgram/ml. Therefore, it is beneficial to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 12 - A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to...

    Incorrect

    • A female trauma victim that has experienced substantial blood loss is estimated to have experienced a grade IV hemorrhage. The patient's weight is approximately 60 kg.
      Which of the following physiological indicators aligns with a diagnosis of grade IV hemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood loss of greater than 2 L in a 70 kg male

      Explanation:

      Recognizing the extent of blood loss based on vital sign and mental status abnormalities is a crucial skill. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for hemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy individual weighing 70 kg. In terms of body weight, the total circulating blood volume accounts for approximately 7%, which is roughly equivalent to five liters in an average 70 kg male patient.

      The ATLS classification for hemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 beats per minute (bpm)
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 mL/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: More than 140 bpm
      – Systolic blood pressure: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 13 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of palpitations. An ECG is conducted, revealing a regular narrow complex supraventricular tachycardia with a rate of around 160 bpm. There are no signs of ST elevation or depression. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 128/76 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 166
      Respiration rate: 19
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      In stable patients with SVT, it is recommended to first try vagal manoeuvres before resorting to drug treatment. This approach is particularly applicable to patients who do not exhibit any adverse features, as mentioned in the case above.

      Further Reading:

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachyarrhythmia that originates from the atria or above the bundle of His in the heart. It includes all atrial and junctional tachycardias, although atrial fibrillation is often considered separately. SVT typically produces a narrow QRS complex tachycardia on an electrocardiogram (ECG), unless there is an underlying conduction abnormality below the atrioventricular (AV) node. Narrow complex tachycardias are considered SVTs, while some broad complex tachycardias can also be SVTs with co-existent conduction delays.

      SVT can be classified into three main subtypes based on where it arises: re-entrant accessory circuits (the most common type), atrial tachycardias, and junctional tachycardias. The most common SVTs are AVNRT (AV nodal re-entry tachycardia) and AVRT (AV re-entry tachycardia), which arise from accessory circuits within the heart. AVNRT involves an accessory circuit within the AV node itself, while AVRT involves an accessory pathway between the atria and ventricles that allows additional electrical signals to trigger the AV node.

      Atrial tachycardias originate from abnormal foci within the atria, except for the SA node, AV node, or accessory pathway. Junctional tachycardias arise in the AV junction. The ECG features of SVTs vary depending on the type. Atrial tachycardias may have abnormal P wave morphology, an isoelectric baseline between P waves (in atrial flutter), and inverted P waves in certain leads. AVNRT may show pseudo R waves in V1 or pseudo S waves in certain leads, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. AVRT (WPW) may exhibit a delta wave on a resting ECG and retrograde P waves in the ST segment, with an RP interval shorter than the PR interval. Junctional tachycardias may have retrograde P waves before, during, or after the QRS complex, with inverted P waves in certain leads and upright P waves in others.

      Treatment of SVT follows the 2021 resuscitation council algorithm for tachycardia with a pulse. The algorithm provides guidelines for managing stable patients with SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought in by ambulance after a car accident. She has noticeable bruising on her lower abdomen and is experiencing intense abdominal pain. During the examination, you are unable to feel the top of the uterus and can easily feel the baby's body parts. Blood samples have been sent to the lab and the patient has an IV line in place.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Uterine rupture can occur in two forms: primary, which happens without any previous uterine surgery or trauma, and secondary, which occurs when there is scar dehiscence. In secondary rupture, the rupture can range from the peritoneum to the endometrium, or the peritoneum may remain intact while the underlying uterine tissue ruptures.

      There are several risk factors associated with uterine rupture, including multiparity, a uterine scar from a previous Caesarean section, previous uterine surgery, dysfunctional labor, and augmented labor with medications like oxytocin or prostaglandins.

      The clinical features of uterine rupture include abdominal pain and tenderness, abdominal guarding and rigidity, inability to feel the uterine fundus (in cases of fundal rupture), cessation of uterine contractions, chest pain or shoulder tip pain, vaginal bleeding, abnormal fetal lie (such as oblique or transverse), easy palpation of fetal parts outside the uterus, absent fetal heart sounds, and abnormal CTG findings like late decelerations and reduced variability. Maternal shock can also occur and may be severe.

      Immediate resuscitation is crucial and should involve intravenous fluids and/or blood transfusion. This should be followed by a laparotomy. After the baby is delivered, the uterus should be repaired or a hysterectomy may be performed. The decision between these two management options depends on factors such as the site and extent of the rupture, as well as the mother’s condition, age, and parity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a dry cough that has been going...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a dry cough that has been going on for a week. He also complains of muscle aches, fatigue, and a sore throat. In the past day, he has developed diarrhea and a mild throbbing headache. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 37.8°C, and faint crackles are heard at the base of his lungs.

      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection from Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features commonly associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection include a flu-like illness that occurs before respiratory symptoms, fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs typically develop later in the course of the illness. It is worth noting that Mycoplasma pneumoniae is frequently linked to the development of erythema multiforme and can also be a cause of Steven-Johnson syndrome. The rash associated with erythema multiforme is characterized by multiple red lesions on the limbs that develop into target lesions a few days after the rash first appears.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman currently nursing her baby has developed a painful, red lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman currently nursing her baby has developed a painful, red lump in her left breast. She feels chilled and generally not well and has a temperature of 38.6°C. During examination, she has a significant red area on the outer side of the nipple on her left breast. The entire breast seems swollen and inflamed.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a breast abscess that has developed as a result of lactational mastitis. When milk is not properly drained, it can lead to an overgrowth of bacteria and subsequently cause an infection in the breast. If left untreated, this infection can lead to the accumulation of pus in a specific area of the breast. It is estimated that around 5-10% of women with infectious mastitis will develop a breast abscess. The recommended treatment involves a combination of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin or co-amoxiclav, along with either aspiration or incision and drainage of the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 17 - The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today calls you over...

    Incorrect

    • The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today calls you over to show you a case of superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) in a 32-year-old woman with a Le Fort II fracture of the midface following a car accident.

      Which of the cranial nerves is MOST likely to be unaffected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve II

      Explanation:

      The superior orbital fissure is a gap in the back wall of the orbit, created by the space between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. Several structures pass through it to enter the orbit, starting from the top and going downwards. These include the lacrimal nerve (a branch of CN V1), the frontal nerve (another branch of CN V1), the superior ophthalmic vein, the trochlear nerve (CN IV), the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the nasociliary nerve (a branch of CN V1), the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the abducens nerve (CN VI), and the inferior ophthalmic vein.

      Adjacent to the superior orbital fissure, on the back wall of the orbit and towards the middle, is the optic canal. The optic nerve (CN II) exits the orbit through this canal, along with the ophthalmic artery.

      Superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) is a condition characterized by a combination of symptoms and signs that occur when cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI are compressed or injured as they pass through the superior orbital fissure. This condition also leads to swelling and protrusion of the eye due to impaired drainage and congestion. The main causes of SOFS are trauma, tumors, and inflammation. It is important to note that CN II is not affected by this syndrome, as it follows a separate path through the optic canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. She has been experiencing heart palpitations and decided to self-medicate with one of her sister's heart medications. Shortly after taking the medication, her asthma symptoms worsened.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her asthma exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Non-selective beta-blockers, like propranolol, can cause severe bronchospasm in individuals with asthma, particularly when taken in high doses. The current guidelines from the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommend avoiding the use of beta-blockers in asthma patients. However, there is some evidence suggesting that the long-term use of cardioselective beta-blockers does not appear to trigger asthma attacks in individuals with mild or moderate asthma.

      Beta-blockers play a crucial role in the treatment of patients who have a history of previous myocardial infarction or systolic dysfunction. In individuals with asthma and one of these diagnoses, it is unlikely that the potential benefits of beta-blockers outweigh the risks of worsening asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old patient presents with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other systemic health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor and a greyish-white appearance in the discharge.

      What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels due to a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.

      The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that up to 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.

      To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell when potassium hydroxide is added (known as the whiff test), the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.

      The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s important to note that pregnant patients with BV require special attention, as the condition is associated with an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the fetal membranes). Therefore, prompt treatment is crucial for these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor in the discharge.
      Which organisms should be the primary target for initial treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis only

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels and a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.

      The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that around 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.

      To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell test when potassium hydroxide is added, the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.

      The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s crucial to provide special care to pregnant patients diagnosed with BV, as it has been linked to an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis. Therefore, prompt treatment for these patients is of utmost importance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old man presents with a range of neurological symptoms. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a range of neurological symptoms. He has been experiencing painless double vision over the past day and is becoming worried. Approximately six months ago, he also recalled a two-week period where he had no feeling in his right arm. When directly asked, he also confesses to feeling tired and quite depressed.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition characterized by the demyelination of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is an autoimmune disease mediated by cells and is caused by recurring inflammation. Typically, it presents in early adulthood, with a female to male ratio of 3:2.

      There are several risk factors associated with multiple sclerosis, including being of Caucasian race, living at a greater distance from the equator (as the risk tends to be higher), having a family history of the disease (with 20% of MS patients having an affected relative), and smoking. Interestingly, the rates of relapse tend to decrease during pregnancy.

      There are three main patterns of multiple sclerosis. The most common is relapsing and remitting MS, which is characterized by periods of no symptoms followed by relapses (this is seen in 80% of patients at the time of diagnosis). Another pattern is primary progressive MS, where symptoms develop and worsen from the beginning with few remissions (seen in 10-15% of patients at diagnosis). Lastly, there is secondary progressive MS, which occurs after relapsing/remitting MS. In this pattern, symptoms worsen with fewer remissions, and approximately 50% of those with relapsing/remitting MS will develop this within 10 years of diagnosis.

      The key to diagnosing MS lies in the history of neurological symptoms that are discrete in time and location of the affected body. Patients often experience fatigue and low mood, particularly during a relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue and nausea following a recent viral illness. She experienced flu-like symptoms for four days and had difficulty eating during that time. She visited the Emergency Department with these symptoms but was discharged with instructions to rest in bed and take regular paracetamol. Her blood tests today reveal the following results:
      - Bilirubin: 50 mmol (3-20)
      - ALT: 34 IU/L (5-40)
      - ALP: 103 IU/L (20-140)
      - LDH: 150 IU/L (100-330)

      How is the condition typically inherited in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is the most common hereditary cause of elevated bilirubin levels and can be found in up to 5% of the population. It is characterized by an isolated increase in unconjugated bilirubin without any detectable liver disease. In most cases, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there have been some instances of autosomal dominant inheritance, particularly in Asian populations.

      The elevated bilirubin levels in Gilbert’s syndrome do not have any serious consequences and typically occur during times of stress, physical exertion, fasting, or infection. While it is often asymptomatic, some individuals may experience symptoms such as fatigue, decreased appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain.

      The underlying cause of the elevated bilirubin levels is a decrease in the activity of the enzyme glucuronyltransferase, which is responsible for conjugating bilirubin. In Gilbert’s syndrome, the bilirubin levels are generally less than three times the upper limit of normal, with more than 70% of the bilirubin being unconjugated. Liver function tests and LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) levels are typically within the normal range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 23 - A 68 year old man has been kept on the observation ward overnight...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man has been kept on the observation ward overnight due to a head injury and is scheduled for discharge. While eating a sandwich, he starts coughing violently. His face is turning cyanosed and he is having difficulty breathing. The cough seems ineffective at clearing his throat. He remains conscious, coughing, and exhibits noticeable stridor. What is the most suitable immediate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 5 back blows or 5 abdominal thrusts

      Explanation:

      When an adult patient is choking and unable to clear the obstruction by coughing, the next step is to deliver either 5 back blows or abdominal thrusts. The appropriate action depends on the severity of the airway obstruction. If the choking is mild and not causing significant difficulty in breathing, it is recommended to encourage the patient to cough and closely monitor for any worsening symptoms. However, if the choking is severe and causing a complete blockage of the airway, it is necessary to administer either back blows or abdominal thrusts to dislodge the obstruction. In the event that the patient loses consciousness, immediate CPR should be initiated.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
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  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a persistent sore throat that has been bothering...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a persistent sore throat that has been bothering her for five days. She has also been experiencing symptoms of a cold for the past few days and has a bothersome dry cough. Upon examination, she does not have a fever and there are no swollen lymph nodes in her neck. Her throat appears red overall, but her tonsils are not enlarged and there is no visible discharge.
      Using the FeverPAIN Score to evaluate her sore throat, what would be the most appropriate course of action for her at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment is required, and she should be reassured

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, recommendations for antibiotic use are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates an unlikely streptococcal infection, with antibiotics not recommended; a score of 2-3 suggests a 34-40% chance of streptococcus, and delayed prescribing of antibiotics may be considered; a score of 4 or higher indicates a 62-65% chance of streptococcus, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended for severe cases, or a short back-up prescription may be given for 48 hours.

      The Fever PAIN score was developed through a study involving 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was tested in a trial comparing three prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, score-directed prescribing, and a combination of the score with a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and reduced antibiotic prescribing by one third. The addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      According to the current NICE guidelines, if antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin is recommended as the first-choice antibiotic. In cases of true penicillin allergy, clarithromycin can be used as an alternative. For pregnant women with a penicillin allergy, erythromycin is prescribed. It is important to note that the threshold for prescribing antibiotics should be lower for individuals at risk of rheumatic fever and vulnerable groups managed in primary care, such as infants, the elderly, and those who are immunosuppressed or immunocompromised. Antibiotics should not be withheld if the person has severe symptoms and there are concerns about their clinical condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain presents with an increase in his symptoms. He describes the pain as a severe burning sensation on the right side of his lower back and leg. You discuss his treatment options.
      Which of the following pharmacological therapies is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the management of neuropathic pain? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. The dosage should be adjusted based on how the individual responds to the medication and their ability to tolerate it. If the initial treatment does not provide relief or is not well tolerated, one of the remaining three medications can be considered as an alternative option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old Emergency Medicine Resident presents after a night shift, having experienced a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Emergency Medicine Resident presents after a night shift, having experienced a needle-stick injury while suturing a laceration with a flat-bladed suture needle.

      Which SINGLE statement is true regarding their care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: More than 90% of people with hepatitis C can now be cured

      Explanation:

      The risk of acquiring HIV from an HIV positive source patient ranges from 0.2% to 0.5%. On the other hand, the risk of contracting Hepatitis C from a Hepatitis C positive source patient is estimated to be between 3% and 10%.

      When it comes to post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV, it is crucial to administer it within 72 hours after a needle-stick injury. The effectiveness of this prophylaxis decreases with time, so it should be given as soon as possible after the incident. For detailed guidelines on post-exposure prophylaxis, please refer to the DOH guidelines.

      Unfortunately, there is currently no post-exposure prophylaxis available for Hepatitis C. However, there is a class of antiviral medications called nucleotide polymerase inhibitors that have revolutionized the treatment of Hepatitis C. These medications, such as sofosbuvir and daclatasvir, have shown remarkable efficacy in curing more than 90% of people with Hepatitis C. Moreover, they are easier to tolerate and have shorter treatment courses, making them a significant advancement in Hepatitis C treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has ingested a significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by ambulance. She has ingested a significant amount of aspirin.

      Which acid-base disorder would you anticipate to be present during the advanced stages of an aspirin overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      An overdose of aspirin often leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the stimulation of the respiratory center causes hyperventilation and results in respiratory alkalosis. However, as the overdose progresses, the direct acidic effects of aspirin cause an increase in the anion gap and metabolic acidosis.

      Here is a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders:

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation due to factors such as anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, and the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis can occur in individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opioids or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular diseases, and obesity.

      Metabolic alkalosis can be caused by vomiting, potassium depletion (often due to diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can result from conditions such as lactic acidosis (caused by factors like hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or tissue infarction), ketoacidosis (associated with diabetes, starvation, or excessive alcohol consumption), renal failure, and poisoning (including the late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be seen in renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, and adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 28 - The ambulance team brings a 72-year-old into the ER with suspected heat stroke....

    Incorrect

    • The ambulance team brings a 72-year-old into the ER with suspected heat stroke. The patient had been participating in a charity marathon during a period of extreme heat. Which of the following statements about heat stroke is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with heatstroke have a systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke can be differentiated from other heat related illnesses by the presence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Patients with heatstroke typically have a core body temperature exceeding 40ºC and lack sweating (unlike heat exhaustion where profuse sweating is common). It is important to note that diuretic treatment is not suitable for heat edema and Dantrolene should not be used to treat environmental heat related illnesses.

      Further Reading:

      Heat Stroke:
      – Core temperature >40°C with central nervous system dysfunction
      – Classified into classic/non-exertional heat stroke and exertional heat stroke
      – Classic heat stroke due to passive exposure to severe environmental heat
      – Exertional heat stroke due to strenuous physical activity in combination with excessive environmental heat
      – Mechanisms to reduce core temperature overwhelmed, leading to tissue damage
      – Symptoms include high body temperature, vascular endothelial surface damage, inflammation, dehydration, and renal failure
      – Management includes cooling methods and supportive care
      – Target core temperature for cooling is 38.5°C

      Heat Exhaustion:
      – Mild to moderate heat illness that can progress to heat stroke if untreated
      – Core temperature elevated but <40°C
      – Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and mild neurological symptoms
      – Normal thermoregulation is disrupted
      – Management includes moving patient to a cooler environment, rehydration, and rest

      Other Heat-Related Illnesses:
      – Heat oedema: transitory swelling of hands and feet, resolves spontaneously
      – Heat syncope: results from volume depletion and peripheral vasodilatation, managed by moving patient to a cooler environment and rehydration
      – Heat cramps: painful muscle contractions associated with exertion, managed with cooling, rest, analgesia, and rehydration

      Risk Factors for Severe Heat-Related Illness:
      – Old age, very young age, chronic disease and debility, mental illness, certain medications, housing issues, occupational factors

      Management:
      – Cooling methods include spraying with tepid water, fanning, administering cooled IV fluids, cold or ice water immersion, and ice packs
      – Benzodiazepines may be used to control shivering
      – Rapid cooling to achieve rapid normothermia should be avoided to prevent overcooling and hypothermia
      – Supportive care includes intravenous fluid replacement, seizure treatment if required, and consideration of haemofiltration
      – Some patients may require liver transplant due to significant liver damage
      – Patients with heat stroke should ideally be managed in a HDU/ICU setting with CVP and urinary catheter output measurements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 29 - You plan to use plain 1% lidocaine for a nerve block on a...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to use plain 1% lidocaine for a nerve block on a foot that requires surgery.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding lidocaine is FALSE?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It tends to cause vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily utilized as a local anesthetic. It can also be employed in the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias. The mechanism of action of lidocaine as a local anesthetic involves its diffusion in the form of an uncharged base through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane. It then reaches the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels, where it exerts its effect by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. This alteration in signal conduction prevents the depolarization of the postsynaptic neuron’s membrane, thereby inhibiting the transmission of pain signals.

      In a plain 1% lidocaine solution, each 1 ml contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg/kg, with a maximum limit of 500 mg. It is important to note that the combination of lidocaine and adrenaline should not be used in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose due to the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis.

      The half-life of lidocaine ranges from 1.5 to 2 hours. It exhibits a rapid onset of action within a few minutes and has a duration of action of 30 to 60 minutes when used alone. However, when co-administered with adrenaline, its duration of action is prolonged. It is worth mentioning that lidocaine tends to induce vasodilation, primarily attributed to the inhibition of action potentials in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves through the blocking of sodium channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a headache....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a headache. There is currently a scorching heatwave, and he has been working outdoors in heavy protective gear. His skin is dry and hot, he is hyperventilating, and his core temperature is currently 41.7°C. He is very agitated and shivering severely at present.
      Which of the following is the LEAST suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a core temperature higher than 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. There are two forms of heat stroke: classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs during high environmental temperatures and typically affects elderly patients during heat waves, and exertional heat stroke, which occurs during strenuous physical exercise in hot conditions, such as endurance athletes competing in hot weather.

      The main treatment for heat stroke involves supportive measures. It is important to rapidly reduce the core temperature to around 39.0°C. Patients with severe heat stroke should be managed in a critical care setting. The ABCDE approach should be followed, with a focus on cooling the patient. This includes obtaining a definitive airway if the patient is unresponsive, providing ventilation if necessary, using haemodynamic monitoring to guide fluid therapy, correcting electrolyte imbalances, managing blood glucose levels, removing clothes, eliminating the cause of hyperthermia, and monitoring core and skin temperatures.

      There are various cooling techniques that can be used, although there is limited evidence on which approach is the most effective. Some possible methods include simple measures like cold drinks, fanning, ice water packs, and spraying tepid water. Cold water immersion therapy can be beneficial, but it requires the patient to be stable and cooperative, making it impractical for very sick patients. Advanced cooling techniques, such as cold IV fluids, surface cooling devices, intravascular cooling devices, and extracorporeal circuits, may be used for sicker patients.

      Benzodiazepines, like diazepam, can be helpful in managing agitation and shivering in heat stroke patients. They not only reduce excessive heat production but also help to calm the patient. In severe cases of agitation, paralysis may be necessary. Dantrolene is commonly used, although there is currently limited high-level evidence to support its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects, including lowering the seizure threshold, interfering with thermoregulation, causing anticholinergic side effects, hypotension, and hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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