00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following are exclusively innervated by parasympathetic nerves?

      Your Answer: Gall bladder

      Correct Answer: Circular muscle of iris

      Explanation:

      Circular muscle of iris is exclusively supplied by the parasympathetic nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye? ...

    Correct

    • What is found in the posterior cavity of the eye?

      Your Answer: Vitreous humor

      Explanation:

      The eye ball contains an anterior cavity and a posterior cavity. The anterior cavity once again is divided into the anterior chamber and posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with aqueous humor whereas the posterior cavity contains vitreous humor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme? ...

    Correct

    • Lipid- lowering drugs like Lovastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis by inhibiting which enzyme?

      Your Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

      Explanation:

      Statins, also known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, are a class of lipid-lowering medications. Statins have been found to reduce cardiovascular disease (CVD) and mortality in those who are at high risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery...

    Incorrect

    • In the blood supply of the heart, ‘dominance’ refers to the coronary artery which supplies the?

      Your Answer: Anterior interventricular artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular artery

      Explanation:

      Dominance of the coronary artery system is defined by the artery that gives rise to the posterior interventricular artery. Dominance of the right coronary artery is more common (68%). It gives rise to the large posterior interventricular branch which goes down to the apex of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea,...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old man presents to the clinic with fatigue, exertional dyspnoea, abdominal discomfort, xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Examination reveals enlargement of the parotid glands bilaterally, hepatomegaly and peripheral motor neuropathy. Lab results are negative for RF, ANA, SS-A and SS-B antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytic syndrome (DILS)

      Explanation:

      The Diffuse Infiltrative Lymphocytosis Syndrome (DILS) is a rare multisystemic syndrome described in HIV-infected patients. It is characterised by CD8(+) T-cell lymphocytosis associated with a CD8(+) T-cell infiltration of multiple organs. DILS is usually seen in uncontrolled or untreated HIV infection but can also manifest itself independently of CD4(+) T-cell counts. The syndrome may present as a Sjögren-like disease that generally associates sicca signs with bilateral parotiditis, lymphadenopathy, and extra glandular organ involvement. The latter may affect the lungs, nervous system, liver, kidneys, and digestive tract. Anomalies of the respiratory system are often identified as lymphocytic interstitial pneumonia. Facial nerve palsy, aseptic meningitis or polyneuropathy are among the more frequent neurological features. Hepatic lymphocytic infiltration, lymphocytic interstitial nephropathy and digestive tract lymphocytic infiltration account for more rarely noted complications. Sicca syndrome, organomegaly and/or organ dysfunction associated with polyclonal CD8(+) T-cell organ-infiltration are greatly suggestive of DILS in people living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Vasodilatation of coronary arteries is caused by:

      Your Answer: None of options provided

      Correct Answer: Hypoxia

      Explanation:

      The heart is highly metabolically active and boasts the highest oxygen consumption by mass of any organ. This demand for oxygen is met by the coronary circulation, which is responsible for delivering blood to the myocardium and represents approximately 5% of cardiac output. Vasodilation may be due to the local effect of hypoxia on coronary vessels, or local metabolic vasodilation, or the activation of β-adrenoceptors or some combination of these mechanisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a pancreatic enzyme?

      Your Answer: Colipase

      Correct Answer: Pepsinogen 1

      Explanation:

      Pancreatic juice, composed of the secretions of both ductal and acinar cells, is made up of the following digestive enzymes:Trypsinogen, which is an inactive(zymogenic) protease that, once activated in the duodenum into trypsin, breaks down proteins at the basic amino acids. Trypsinogen is activated via the duodenal enzyme enterokinase into its active form trypsin.Colipase is a protein co-enzyme required for optimal enzyme activity of pancreatic lipase. It is secreted by the pancreas in an inactive form, procolipase, which is activated in the intestinal lumen by trypsin.Chymotrypsinogen, which is an inactive (zymogenic) protease that, once activated by duodenal enterokinase, breaks down proteins at their aromatic amino acids. Chymotrypsinogen can also be activated by trypsin.Carboxypeptidase, which is a protease that takes off the terminal amino acid group from a proteinSeveral elastases that degrade the protein elastin and some other proteins.Pancreatic lipase that degrades triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol.Sterol esterasePhospholipaseSeveral nucleases that degrade nucleic acids, like DNase and RNase.Pancreatic amylase that breaks down starch and glycogen which are alpha-linked glucose polymers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The parietal cells of the stomach secrete which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The parietal cells of the stomach secrete which of the following?

      Your Answer: Pepsinogens

      Correct Answer: Hydrochloric acid

      Explanation:

      Parietal cells are the epithelial cells that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor. These cells are located in the gastric glands found in the lining of the fundus and in the body of the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the average life span of neutrophils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average life span of neutrophils?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      The average lifespan of inactivated human neutrophils in the circulation has been reported by different approaches to be between 5 and 90 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which one of the following will increase an individual’s appetite? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following will increase an individual’s appetite?

      Your Answer: Ghrelin

      Explanation:

      Ghrelin is a hormone which exerts a strong influence on hunger and energy balance. It helps regulate appetite by being secreted when the stomach is empty, to stimulate hunger. When the stomach is filled, its secretion stops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which cells produce the immunoglobulin proteins involved in mediating humoral immunity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which cells produce the immunoglobulin proteins involved in mediating humoral immunity?

      Your Answer: Memory T cells

      Correct Answer: Differentiated forms of B lymphocytes known as plasma cells

      Explanation:

      After the B cells have been activated by a certain antigens, they transform into plasma cells. These plasma cells are responsible for the generation of antibodies (or immunoglobulins Ig) which are also known as regulators of humoral immunity. There are fives classes of Ig: IgA, IgG, IgM, IgE and IgD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The AV Node: ...

    Incorrect

    • The AV Node:

      Your Answer: It is a complex spindle shaped structure located in the interventricular septum

      Correct Answer: It decelerates impulses passing to the ventricles

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the sinoatrial (SA) and atrioventricular (AV) nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx. The depolarization continues to conduct slowly through the atrioventricular (AV) node. The AV node is located in the right posterior portion of the interatrial septum. This is small and bean-shaped. The atrial conductive system is organized so that the cardiac impulse does not travel from the atria into the ventricles too rapidly; this delay allows the atria to empty before ventricular contraction begins. It is the AV node and its adjacent conductive fibers that delay this transmission into the ventricles. Conduction through the AV Node is represented on the ECG by the PR interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac output, an increased ejection fraction results from increases in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Strength of contraction with increase in muscle fiber length

      Correct Answer: Strength of contraction without increase in muscle fiber length

      Explanation:

      When the strength of contraction increases without an increase in fiber length, the EF increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      50.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53...

    Correct

    • With regards to the function of the p53 protein produced by the p53 gene, which of the following statements is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA

      Explanation:

      The p53 protein is a crucial tumor suppressor and plays several key roles in maintaining cellular integrity:

      1. Nuclear transcription factor: p53 is a nuclear transcription factor that regulates the expression of various genes involved in cell cycle control, DNA repair, apoptosis, and senescence.
      2. DNA repair: p53 permits repair of mutations and other defects in DNA (not RNA). It activates the transcription of genes involved in DNA repair mechanisms, allowing the cell to correct errors before proceeding with the cell cycle.
      3. Cell cycle regulation: p53 can induce the expression of p21, a protein that inhibits cyclin-dependent kinases, thereby halting the cell cycle at the G1/S checkpoint to allow time for DNA repair or to trigger apoptosis if the damage is irreparable. Mutations in p53 may fail to halt the cell cycle, allowing mutations to persist and potentially leading to cancer.
      4. Apoptosis: If DNA damage is extensive and cannot be repaired, p53 triggers apoptosis to prevent the propagation of damaged cells.
      5. Suppression of proto-oncogenes: p53 indirectly contributes to the suppression of proto-oncogenes by preventing the proliferation of cells with damaged DNA, thereby reducing the risk of oncogenic transformation.

      Given these functions, the statement that p53 “permits repair of mutations and other defects in RNA” is incorrect, as p53 is primarily involved in the repair of DNA, not RNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is: ...

    Correct

    • The main reason for the prolonged effect of the withdrawal reflex is:

      Your Answer: Multiple connections between afferent and efferent neurons

      Explanation:

      The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that protects the body from harmful stimuli. Spinal reflexes are mostly monosynaptic and are mediated by a simple reflex arc. Withdrawal reflex is mediated by a polysynaptic reflex resulting in stimulation of many motor neurons in order to establish a quick and prolonged response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight

      Your Answer: It is sexually transmitted.

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Phosphorylation of glucose once it enters the cell is catalysed by which enzyme?...

    Incorrect

    • Phosphorylation of glucose once it enters the cell is catalysed by which enzyme?

      Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate synthetase

      Correct Answer: Hexokinase

      Explanation:

      Glucose 6-phosphate is produced by phosphorylation of glucose on the sixth carbon. This is catalysed by the enzyme hexokinase in most cells. One molecule of ATP is consumed in this reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase...

    Correct

    • Which of the following types of reactions are a part of the phase II metabolism of a drug?

      Your Answer: Conjugation

      Explanation:

      Drug metabolism can be broadly classified into:Phase I (functionalization) reactions: also termed non-synthetic reactions, they include oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis, cyclization and de-cyclization. The most common and vital reactions are oxidation reactions. (Of the given enzymes only Alcohol dehydrogenase is involved in phase I drug metabolism. Succinate dehydrogenase, is a vital enzyme involved in the Kreb’s cycle and the mitochondrial electron transport chain). They are mainly catalysed by Cytochrome P-450 enzyme.Phase II (conjugation) reactions: occur following phase I reactions, they include reactions: glucuronidation and sulphate conjugation, etc. They are mostly catalysed by UDP-glucuronosyltransferase enzyme. Other phase II enzymes include: sulfotransferases, N-acetyltransferases, glutathione S-transferases and methyltransferases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei? ...

    Incorrect

    • The midbrain, medulla and pons, contain the following cranial nerve nuclei?

      Your Answer: CN 1 - 12

      Correct Answer: CN 3 - 12

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves (with the exception of I and II) originate in the brainstem, which includes the midbrain, the pons, and the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?...

    Incorrect

    • Psoriatic arthropathy most commonly presents with which of the following types of arthritis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic spondylitis

      Correct Answer: Peripheral asymmetric oligoarthropathy

      Explanation:

      Most patients with psoriatic arthritis present with monoarthritis or asymmetric oligoarthritis. The most common form of the disease is the one involving a few joints of the peripheral skeleton with a distinct asymmetry of symptoms. Involvement of the smaller joints of the hands and feet, especially distal interphalangeal joints, seems to be a characteristic feature. Arthritis mutilans is a rare and severe complication of psoriatic arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. ...

    Correct

    • Which are the main hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.

      Your Answer: Oxytocin and vasopressin

      Explanation:

      The posterior pituitary gland secretes oxytocin and vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone). These hormones are stored in Herring bodies before being secreted into the bloodstream.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system...

    Correct

    • The isoforms of nitric oxide synthase which are found in the nervous system (NOS1) and endothelial cells (NOS3) are activated by agents that increase which of the following intracellular electrolytes?

      Your Answer: Ca

      Explanation:

      Synthesis of nitric oxide is stimulated by activation of the NMDA receptors by certain agents. This leads to opening of the Calcium channels and an influx of calcium into the cell. This will activate the nitric oxide synthase. Nitric oxide is produced on demand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Two types of gallstones are: ...

    Correct

    • Two types of gallstones are:

      Your Answer: Calcium and cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Cholesterol stones are the most common gallstones followed by calcium carbonate and bilirubinate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the average life span of basophils? ...

    Correct

    • What is the average life span of basophils?

      Your Answer: 70 hours

      Explanation:

      Once mature, basophils have an estimated life span of 60–70 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - When looking at the JVP what does the c wave signify: ...

    Correct

    • When looking at the JVP what does the c wave signify:

      Your Answer: Isovolumetric ventricular contraction

      Explanation:

      The C wave signifies a rise in the atrial pressure during isovolumetric contraction due to the tricuspid valve bulging into the atria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Majority of gastrinomas are found in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Majority of gastrinomas are found in the:

      Your Answer: Stomach

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      A gastrinoma is a tumour in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in the duodenum, stomach and the small intestine. It is usually found in the duodenum, although it may arise in the stomach or pancreas. Those occurring in the pancreas have a greater potential for malignancy. Most gastrinomas are found in the gastrinoma triangle; this is bound by the junction of cystic and common bile ducts, junction of the second and third parts of the duodenum, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old woman presents with a painful elbow which she has been feeling for the past two weeks. Which of the following will be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer: Pain on pressure over the medial epicondyle

      Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is an overuse injury of the hand and finger extensor tendons that originate in the lateral humeral epicondyle that occurs following repeated or excessive pronation/supination and extension of the wrist (e.g., in racquet sports). Clinical features include pain and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle and along extensor muscles and thickening of the tendons. The examiner holds the patient’s hand with the thumb placed over the lateral epicondyle – The patient makes a fist, supinates the forearm, deviates radially, and extends the fist against the examiner’s resistance which will result in pain over the lateral epicondyle. Conservative treatment includes rest, physiotherapy and orthotic braces. If this fails corticosteroids and lidocaine injections are employed. Surgery is indicated in patients with persistent symptoms despite 6 months of conservative treatment. Excision of abnormal tendon tissue; longitudinal incisions (tenotomies) in scarred and fibrotic areas to promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Connective Tissue
      • Medicine
      220.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is the primary cause of ketoacidosis in Type 1 diabetes? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary cause of ketoacidosis in Type 1 diabetes?

      Your Answer: Lipolysis

      Explanation:

      in type 1 diabetics the lack of insulin in the bloodstream prevents glucose absorption, thereby inhibiting the production of oxaloacetate (a crucial precursor to the β-oxidation of fatty acids) through reduced levels of pyruvate (a by-product of glycolysis), and can cause unchecked ketone body production (through fatty acid metabolism or lipolysis) potentially leading to dangerous glucose and ketone levels in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      • Medicine
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman has a waddling gait. History reveals enuresis and change in behaviour. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brain tumour

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      The waddling gait and behaviour change are attributes of normal pressure hydrocephalus along with loss of bladder control which commonly happens with elder age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatrics
      • Medicine
      39.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During exercise, a man consumes 2L O2/min, his arterial 02 content is 190...

    Incorrect

    • During exercise, a man consumes 2L O2/min, his arterial 02 content is 190 ml/l and the 02 content of his mixed venous blood is 130ml/l. His cardiac output is approximately:

      Your Answer: 3,3 l/min

      Correct Answer: 33l/min

      Explanation:

      In Fick’s original method, the following variables are measured:VO2, oxygen consumption in ml of pure gaseous oxygen per minute. This may be measured using a spirometer within a closed rebreathing circuit incorporating a CO2 absorberCa, the oxygen concentration of blood taken from the pulmonary vein (representing oxygenated blood)Cv, the oxygen concentration of blood from an intravenous cannula (representing deoxygenated blood)From these values, we know that:VO2 = (CO x Ca) – (CO x Cv)where CO = Cardiac Output, Ca = Oxygen concentration of arterial blood and Cv = Oxygen concentration of mixed venous blood.This allows us to sayCO = VO2/{Ca – Cv}and hence calculate cardiac output.Therefore CO = 2/(0.190-0.130) = 33l/minNote that (Ca – Cv) is also known as the arteriovenous oxygen difference.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      39.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Medicine (14/30) 47%
Neurology (2/4) 50%
Metabolism (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (2/7) 29%
Connective Tissue (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal (1/4) 25%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Endocrinology (3/3) 100%
Immunology (0/1) 0%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Geriatrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed