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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old male came to the emergency room after sustaining injuries during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male came to the emergency room after sustaining injuries during a fight at a nightclub. He was drunk and abusive to the nurse on duty. Which of the following steps is the most appropriate in this case?

      Your Answer: Implement Public Health Act

      Correct Answer: Call police

      Explanation:

      As this patient seems to be a danger to the safety of staff, police should be called to handle the situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethical & Legal
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 54-year-old man presents to the physician complaining of chest pain and fever....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man presents to the physician complaining of chest pain and fever. He underwent hemicolectomy a few days back. Echocardiography is done which shows a systolic murmur. Which other investigation would be required?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infectious inflammation of the endocardium that affects the heart valves. The condition is a result of bacteraemia, which is most commonly caused by dental procedures, surgery, distant primary infections, and nonsterile injections. IE clinically presents with either an acute or subacute course. Acute disease is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus and causes rapid endocardium destruction. Subacute progression is most commonly caused by viridans streptococci species and generally affects individuals with pre-existing damage to the heart valves, structural heart defects, or the presence of prosthetic valves. Clinical features include constitutional symptoms (fatigue, fever/chills, malaise) in combination with signs of pathological cardiac changes (e.g., new or changed heart murmur, heart failure signs) and possibly manifestations of subsequent damage to other organs (e.g., glomerulonephritis, septic embolic stroke). Diagnosis is made based on the Duke criteria, whose main features include positive blood cultures and evidence of endocardial involvement in echocardiography. Initial treatment of IE consists of empiric IV antibiotic therapy, which is then adapted to blood culture results and continued for four to six weeks. Prophylaxis is only administered in specific circumstances, e.g., in patients with pre-existing heart conditions undergoing dental or surgical procedures. If left untreated, infective endocarditis can be fatal within a few weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs would be the safest to prescribe in a 22-year-old man with seropositive rheumatoid arthritis who is planning to start a family?

      Your Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone although has many undesirable side effects it may be considered relatively safe compared to the drugs that are provided here. Prolonged treatment with sulphasalazine may depress semen quality and cause irreversible infertility. Methotrexate and leflunomide both inhibit purine/pyrimidine synthesis (the former by inhibiting folate metabolism) and are contraindicated in pregnancy or while trying to conceive. In males, a temporary or permanent decrease in sperm count may occur with cyclophosphamide. Because the recovery of fertility after cyclophosphamide therapy is variable, sperm banking should be considered before treatment is begun.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that has developed gradually over the last 4 days. His symptoms include fever and cough productive of greenish sputum. Past history is notable for COPD for which he was once admitted to the ICU, 2 years back. He now takes nebulizers (ipratropium bromide) at home. The patient previously suffered from myocardial infarction 7 years ago. He also has Diabetes Mellitus type II controlled by lifestyle modification.
      On examination, the following vitals are obtained.
      BP : 159/92 mmHg
      Pulse: 91/min (regular)
      Temp: Febrile
      On auscultation, there are scattered ronchi bilaterally and right sided basal crackles. Cardiovascular and abdominal examinations are unremarkable.
      Lab findings are given below:
      pH 7.31
      pa(O2) 7.6 kPa
      pa(CO2) 6.3 kPa
      Bicarbonate 30 mmol/l
      Sodium 136 mmol/l
      Potassium 3.7 mmol/l
      Urea 7.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 111 μmol/l
      Haemoglobin 11.3 g/dl
      Platelets 233 x 109 /l
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 83 fl
      White blood cells (WBC) 15.2 x 109 /l.
      CXR shows an opacity obscuring the right heart border.

      Which of the following interventions should be started immediately while managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers

      Explanation:

      Acute exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are immediately treated with inhaled beta2 agonists and inhaled anticholinergics, followed by antibiotics (if indicated) and systemic corticosteroids. Methylxanthine therapy may be considered in patients who do not respond to other bronchodilators.
      High flow oxygen would worsen his symptoms. Usually titrated oxygen (88 to 92 %) is given in such patients to avoid the risk of hyperoxic hypercarbia in which increasing oxygen saturation in a chronic carbon dioxide retainer can inadvertently lead to respiratory acidosis and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      111.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presented to a urologist with a complaint of blood in the urine and pain in his abdomen. On examination, abdominal swelling is present and blood pressure is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Haematuria and abdominal swelling may indicate either polycystic kidney disease or a tumour. Because of the patient’s age, the likelihood of a tumorous growth is small, thus an ultrasound is the best choice for this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old female, known with rheumatoid arthritis for last 17 years, presents with recurrent attacks of red eyes with a sensation of grittiness. Which of the following is most likely cause of the red eyes?

      Your Answer: keratoconjunctivitis sicca

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory systemic disease associated with some extraarticular manifestations. Keratoconjunctivitis sicca, episcleritis, scleritis, corneal changes, and retinal vasculitis are the most common ocular complications among extraarticular manifestations of RA. The overall prevalence of keratoconjunctivitis sicca also known as dry eye syndrome among patients of RA is 21.2% and is the most common with sense of grittiness in the eyes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old lady who underwent a recent subtotal gastrectomy for peptic ulcer disease...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old lady who underwent a recent subtotal gastrectomy for peptic ulcer disease has now developed anaemia with a haemoglobin of 6.4, tiredness, fatigue and loss of vibration sensation in both legs. What is the underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Vit B12 needs intrinsic factor to be absorbed, which is secreted in the stomach. Its deficiency is characterised by macrocytic anaemia with peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient has an autosomal recessive disorder, which causes lysine, arginine, ornithine and...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has an autosomal recessive disorder, which causes lysine, arginine, ornithine and cystine to appear in his urine. The treatment proposed is the combination of urinary alkalinisation with penicillamine. Choose the most likely type of renal calculus present.

      Your Answer: Calcium oxylate

      Correct Answer: Cystine

      Explanation:

      The presence in the urine of cystine, orthinine, arginine and lysine indicate a tubular reabsorption defect. This condition is a hereditary one, and stone formation is more common in homozygotes. The patient has no other abnormalities that could indicate stone formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 73-year-old woman presents with severe emphysema. She is on maximal therapy including...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman presents with severe emphysema. She is on maximal therapy including high dose Seretide and tiotropium. She tells you that she is so unwell that she can barely manage the walk the 160 metres to the bus stop.
       
      On examination she looks short of breath at rest. Her BP is 158/74 mmHg, pulse is 76 and regular. There are quiet breath sounds, occasional coarse crackles and wheeze on auscultation of the chest.
       
      Investigations show:
       
      Haemoglobin 14.2 g/dl (13.5-17.7)
      White cell count 8.4 x 109/l (4-11)
      Platelets 300 x 109/l (150-400)
      Sodium 137 mmol/l (135-146)
      Potassium 4.1 mmol/l (3.5-5)
      Creatinine 127 micromol/l (79-118)
      pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 7.5 kPa (4.8-6.1)
      pO2 9.7 kPa (10-13.3)
      Chest x-ray - Prominent upper lobe emphysema.
      FEV1 - 30% of predicted.
       
      Which of the features of her history, examination or investigations would preclude referral for lung reduction surgery?

      Your Answer: Predominant upper lobe emphysema

      Correct Answer: pCO2 7.4

      Explanation:

      Nice guidelines for lung reduction surgery:

      FEV1 > 20% predicted
      PaCO2 < 7.3 kPa
      TLco > 20% predicted
      Upper lobe predominant emphysema

      This patient has pCO2 of 7.4 so she is unsuitable for referral for lung reduction surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      114.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 39-year-old female had surgery for the removal of thyroid carcinoma. One week...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female had surgery for the removal of thyroid carcinoma. One week later, she presented in the OPD with complaints of numbness, tingling, involuntary spasm of the upper extremities, paraesthesia and respiratory stridor. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia presents with such symptoms. It probably happened due to accidental removal of a parathyroid gland during the thyroid surgery. Hypocalcaemia causes laryngospasm which produces stridor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?

      Your Answer: The last two thirds of the rectum

      Correct Answer: From the splenic flexure to the first third of the rectum

      Explanation:

      The coeliac axis supplies the liver and stomach and from the oesophagus to the first half of the duodenum.
      The second half of the duodenum to the first two thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.
      The inferior mesenteric supplies the last third of the transverse colon (approximately from the splenic flexure) to the first third of the rectum.
      The last two thirds of the rectum are supplied by the middle rectal artery.
      The greater curvature of the stomach is supplied by branches of the splenic artery, which itself comes from the coeliac axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman who is a known case of breast cancer is being reviewed six months after she had a mastectomy following the diagnosis.

      Which of the following tumour markers is the most useful in monitoring her disease?

      Your Answer: CA 125

      Correct Answer: CA 15-3

      Explanation:

      Tumour marker CA 15-3 is mostly associated with breast cancer.

      Tumour markers can be divided into:
      1. Monoclonal antibodies
      CA 125: Ovarian cancer, primary peritoneal cancer
      CA 19-9: Pancreatic cancer
      CA 15-3: Breast cancer

      2. Tumour specific antigens
      Prostate specific antigen (PSA): Prostatic carcinoma
      Alpha-feto protein (AFP): Hepatocellular carcinoma, teratoma
      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Colorectal cancer
      S-100: Melanoma, schwannomas
      Bombesin: Small cell lung carcinoma, gastric cancer

      3. Enzymes
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
      Neuron specific enolase (NSE)

      4. Hormones
      Calcitonin
      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old gentleman required high doses of intravenous diuretics after his renal transplant for the purposes of fluid management. Soon after administration he developed hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.
       
      Which diuretic is most likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is known to have significant ototoxicity side-effects although the mechanism is not fully known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 69-year-old man on the cardiology ward who is hypotensive, and tachycardic is...

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man on the cardiology ward who is hypotensive, and tachycardic is having profuse melaena. He was commenced on dabigatran 150mg bd by the cardiologists 48 hours earlier for non-valvular atrial fibrillation. Following appropriate resuscitation which of the following treatments is most likely to improve his bleeding?

      Your Answer: Prothrombin complex

      Correct Answer: Idarucizumab (Praxbind)

      Explanation:

      Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is a newer antidote for dabigatran, the first of its kind. It is a monoclonal antibody fragment that binds dabigatrin with a higher affinity than thrombin. It is very expensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years.
      On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord.
      Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema.
      A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests.
      Some of these results are shown below:
      Na 144 mmol/l
      K 2.2 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 34 mmol/l
      Glucose 16 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female presents with generalised irritation and erythematous skin after sunbathing on the beach. Which is the most appropriate immediate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollient cream

      Explanation:

      Sun burn reactions usually occur after individuals with a light skin tone have prolonged exposure to the sun. The usual symptoms are redness and itching of the skin. The best treatment plan would be further avoidance of sun exposure and the topical application of emollients. These are Ist degree burns and aggressive therapy is not required in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man presents with numbness and tingling in his left hand. On examination he has weakness of elbow extension, metacarpophalangeal joint flexion and extension and distal interphalangeal joint flexion. All other movements and reflexes are normal. Sensation is normal apart from reduced pinprick sensation over the medial aspect of the hand. An MRI scan of the cervical spine is performed due to suspicion of a nerve lesion.

      Which of the following pathologies is most likely to be found on the scan based on the clinical findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disc herniation between C7 and T1

      Explanation:

      The C8 nerve forms part of the radial and ulnar nerves via the brachial plexus, and therefore has motor and sensory function in the upper limb. It originates from the spinal column from below the cervical vertebra 7 (C7).
      The C8 nerve receives sensory afferents from the C8 dermatome. This consists of all the skin on the little finger, and continuing up slightly past the wrist on the palmar and dorsal aspects of the hand and forearm.
      The other options available correspond to the C6 or C7 roots and these are unaffected as evidenced by normal elbow flexion and thumb sensation (C6) and normal sensation over the middle finger (C7). Elbow extension is weak as it has roots from both C7 and C8 and so cannot be used alone to decide between the two levels clinically.
      The C8 nerve contributes to the motor innervation of many of the muscles in the trunk and upper limb. Its primary function is the flexion of the fingers, and this is used as the clinical test for C8 integrity, in conjunction with the finger jerk reflex.

      Trunk:
      – Pectoralis major – Medial and lateral pectoral nerves (C5, C6, C7, C8, T1)
      – Pectoralis minor – Medial pectoral nerve (C5, C6, C7,C8, T1)
      – Latissimus dorsi – Thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8)
      Upper arm:
      – Triceps brachii – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
      Forearm
      – Flexor carpi ulnaris – Ulnar nerve (C7, C8, T1)
      – Palmaris longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Flexor digitorum superficialis – Median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor digitorum profundus – Median and Ulnar nerves (C8, T1)
      – Flexor pollicis longus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Pronator quadratus – Median nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor carpi radialis brevis – Deep branch of the radial nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor digitorum – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor digiti minimi – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor carpi ulnaris – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Anconeus – Radial nerve (C6, C7,C8)
      – Abductor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor pollicis brevis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor pollicis longus – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      – Extensor indicis – Posterior interosseous nerve (C7,C8)
      Hand
      – Palmaris brevis – Superficial branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Dorsal interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Palmar interossei – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Adductor pollicis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Lumbricals – Deep branch of ulnar, Digital branches of median nerve
      – Opponens pollicis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Abductor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor pollicis brevis – Recurrent branch of median nerve (C8, T1)
      – Opponens digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Abductor digiti minimi – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)
      – Flexor digiti minimi brevis – Deep branch of ulnar nerve (C8, T1)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl.

      On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure.

      Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year-old male presented with chronic diarrhoea and right lower abdominal pain. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male presented with chronic diarrhoea and right lower abdominal pain. On examination he was febrile and there was tenderness over the right lower quadrant and an anal fissure. Which of the following is the most probable cause for his abdominal pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

      Explanation:

      From the given answers, IBD and IBS are the causes for chronic diarrhoea. Pyelonephritis and ureteric colic are associated with urinary symptoms. Tenderness of pyelonephritis is at the loin region. Perianal disease is associated with fifty percent of patients with Crohn’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given adverse effects should be anticipated following the administration of an anticholinesterase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis

      Explanation:

      Bradycardia and miosis should be anticipated following the administration of anticholinesterases.

      Anticholinesterase agents include the following medications:
      – Pyridostigmine, neostigmine, and edrophonium which play a significant role in the diagnosis and the management of myasthenia gravis.
      – Rivastigmine, galantamine and donepezil are cholinesterase inhibitors found to be significantly useful in the management of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Mechanism of action and pharmacological effects:
      Inhibition of cholinesterase increases the level and the duration of action of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft.

      Thus, cholinergic effects such as a reduction in heart rate (bradycardia), miosis (pupillary constriction), increased secretions, increased gastrointestinal motility and reduction in BP may occur with anticholinesterases.

      Toxins such as organophosphates and carbamates also are primarily anticholinergic and cause the following typical SLUDGE symptoms:
      – Salivation
      – Lacrimation
      – Urination
      – Diaphoresis
      – Gastrointestinal upset
      – Emesis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old patient has ataxia, nystagmus and vertigo with a history of headaches....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old patient has ataxia, nystagmus and vertigo with a history of headaches. Where is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Damage to the cerebellum can cause asynergia, dysmetria, adiadochokinesia, intention tremor, staggering, ataxic gait, tendency toward falling, hypotonia, ataxic dysarthria and nystagmus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms and dyspnoea. She recently started taking a new medicine and she feels it might have aggravated her symptoms.
      Which of the following is likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Timolol eye drops

      Explanation:

      β-blockers are the class of drug most often chosen to treat glaucoma, although other medical therapies are available. Systemic absorption of timolol eye drops can cause unsuspected respiratory impairment and exacerbation of asthma. Physicians should be alert to the possibility of respiratory side-effects of topical therapy with β-blockers. Leukotriene antagonists and salbutamol are used in asthma treatment. HRT and ferrous sulphate do not lead to the exacerbation of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found collapsed, outside a nightclub. The ER team found an empty bottle of amyl nitrate in his pocket. The patient is hypoxic with an O2 saturation of 84% and is confused. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      The best treatment for the patient in question would be methylene blue.
      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is methemoglobinemia due to the ingestion of amyl nitrate.

      Amyl nitrate promotes the formation of methaemoglobin, which avidly conserves oxygen and leads to decreased tissue oxygen saturations.

      Treatment of choice includes methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Adverse effects:
      Benign side effects include green or blue discoloration of urine and patients should be forewarned.
      Significant side effects are based on methylene blue, itself, being an oxidizing agent and an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase A (MAO-A).
      As an oxidizing agent, methylene blue can actually precipitate methemoglobinemia or haemolysis in high doses or when ineffectively reduced.
      Methylene blue administration in a patient taking a serotonergic agents may predispose to serotonin syndrome.

      Note: Although methylene blue administration is controversial in the setting of G6PD-deficiency due to reduced levels of NADPH, it is not contraindicated and should be administered cautiously and judiciously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 4-year-old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old baby was brought in by her mother with complaints of generalized pallor, loss of weight and loose stools. The baby's stools were frothy in nature and difficult to flush. Which investigation can help in diagnosing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-endomysial antibodies

      Explanation:

      The presence of anti-endomysial antibodies confirms the diagnosis of Celiac disease, which is the primary cause of illness in this patient. The sweat chloride test is performed with cystic fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely unwell. He is shocked, drowsy and confused.
      He is known to be type-2 diabetic maintained on metformin.
      Blood tests reveal a metabolic acidosis with an anion gap of 24 mmol/l. Ketones are not significantly elevated and random blood glucose was 8.7 mmol/l.
      What is the mainstay of treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rehydration

      Explanation:

      Lactic acidosis is occasionally responsible for metabolic acidosis in diabetics. It may occur in the presence of normal blood levels of the ketone bodies, and such cases are often described as having non-ketotic diabetic acidosis.
      It is most commonly associated with tissue hypoperfusion and states of acute circulatory failure.
      Appropriate measures include treatment of shock, restoration of circulating fluid volume, improved cardiac function, identification of sepsis source, early antimicrobial intervention, and resection of any potential ischemic regions. Reassessment of lactate levels for clearance assists ongoing medical management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female presented in the OPD with amenorrhea. On investigations, it was revealed that she had high levels of FSH and LSH, normal levels of prolactin and low levels of oestradiol hormone. Which of the following conditions is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure

      Explanation:

      Premature ovarian failure presents before the age of 40 in females with a triad of symptoms: amenorrhea, hypergonadism and low oestradiol. This triad is present in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old patient known to have diabetes mellitus presented in the emergency room...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient known to have diabetes mellitus presented in the emergency room with the complaint of involuntary movements of his right arm and leg which disappeared during sleep. Which of the following is the most suitable explanation for this complaint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction

      Explanation:

      These symptoms represent hemiballismus which is common in diabetic patients after the infarction of contralateral subthalmic nucleus. These symptoms are usually present during activity phase and resolve while resting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 28 - Three days after being admitted for a myocardial infarction, a male patient complains...

    Incorrect

    • Three days after being admitted for a myocardial infarction, a male patient complains of sudden change in vision. The medical registrar examines the patient and finds that the patient's vision in both eyes is significantly reduced although the patient still claims that he can see. The pupils are equal in size, and the pupil responses are normal with normal fundoscopy. Significantly, the patient has now developed atrial fibrillation.
      A referral is made to the ophthalmologist who confirms bilateral blindness. Despite this, however, the patient fervently believes that he can see and has taken to describing objects that he has never seen previously, in discriminating detail.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral occipital cortex infarction

      Explanation:

      Bilateral occipital cortex infarction will produce varying degrees of cortical blindness, wherein the patient has no vision but fundoscopy findings are normal. When there are extensive lesions, patients my present with denial of their condition, known as Anton’s Syndrome, and begin to describe objects that they have never seen before.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
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  • Question 29 - A 43 year-old female artist with no past medical history presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year-old female artist with no past medical history presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of pins and needles in the lower limbs, and progressive walking difficulties. She states she had diarrhoea 1 week ago. On examination, there is a loss of pinprick sensation noted to the lower limbs from mid-thigh distally and in the upper limbs from MCP joints distally. There is bilateral weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, noted at 3/5, and knee flexion and extension weakness, noted at 4/5 bilaterally. Power in upper and lower limbs is otherwise normal. Knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes are absent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is an immune mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system often triggered by an infection (classically Campylobacter jejuni). Characteristic features include progressive weakness of all four limbs, and it is classically ascending, affecting the lower extremities first. Sensory symptoms tend to be mild.

      Functional neurological syndrome can be discounted due to presence of hard neurological signs. Multiple sclerosis can be excluded because of the presence of lower motor neuron signs and absence of upper motor neuron signs. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy is the chronic form of Guillain-Barre syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
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  • Question 30 - An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl was bought immediately to the emergency department. She is fully conscious but has stridor, is wheezing and has a generalised erythematous rash. She has known allergies. What is the single immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 0.3ml in 1000 adrenaline by IM injection

      Explanation:

      This is a case of an anaphylactic reaction that requires immediate intervention. IM adrenaline dose for 6-12 year old children is 300 micrograms IM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ethical & Legal (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal System (1/2) 50%
Geriatric Medicine (1/1) 100%
Renal System (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal System (1/3) 33%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (0/1) 0%
Haematology & Oncology (0/1) 0%
Passmed