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Question 1
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What is the recommended prophylaxis for infants born to mothers with a viral load ≥ 1000 c/ml at delivery or with no viral load available?
Your Answer: AZT twice daily for six weeks and NVP daily for a minimum of 12 weeks
Explanation:Infants born to mothers with a high viral load of ≥ 1000 c/ml at delivery are at a higher risk of contracting HIV during childbirth. Therefore, it is recommended to provide these infants with a more aggressive prophylaxis regimen to reduce the risk of HIV transmission.
The recommended prophylaxis for infants born to mothers with a viral load ≥ 1000 c/ml at delivery or with no viral load available is AZT (zidovudine) twice daily for six weeks and NVP (nevirapine) daily for a minimum of 12 weeks. This combination of medications helps to reduce the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child by suppressing the virus in the infant’s system.
It is important to follow the recommended prophylaxis regimen to ensure the best possible outcome for the infant and reduce the risk of HIV transmission. Regular monitoring and follow-up care are also essential to ensure the infant’s health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?
Your Answer: Acid fast bacilli
Explanation:This homeless woman is presenting with symptoms that are concerning for tuberculosis, including a chronic cough, fever, night sweats, weight loss, and lung opacities on CXR. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is an acid-fast bacilli. Therefore, the next appropriate step for this patient would be to perform acid-fast bacilli testing on a sputum sample to confirm the diagnosis.
The Mantoux test and interferon gamma testing are used to screen for tuberculosis infection, but they do not confirm an active tuberculosis disease. A bronchoscopy may be considered if there is difficulty obtaining sputum samples or if further evaluation of the lung opacities is needed. A CT scan may also provide more detailed information about the lung opacities, but it is not necessary for confirming the diagnosis of tuberculosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the primary goal of ART as per the 2023 guidelines?
Your Answer: To achieve and maintain viral suppression
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a crucial treatment for individuals living with HIV. The primary goal of ART, as per the 2023 guidelines, is to achieve and maintain viral suppression. This means that the level of HIV in the body is reduced to undetectable levels, which helps to prevent the progression of the disease and also reduces the risk of transmitting the virus to others. By consistently taking ART medication as prescribed, individuals can effectively manage their HIV infection and lead healthier lives. Achieving and maintaining viral suppression is key in improving overall health outcomes and reducing the spread of HIV within communities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of MRSA?
Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Ceftriaxone is not used in the treatment of MRSA because it is a cephalosporin antibiotic that does not have activity against methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). MRSA is resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics, such as cephalosporins, due to the production of a penicillin-binding protein that has a low affinity for these antibiotics.
On the other hand, vancomycin and teicoplanin are glycopeptide antibiotics that are commonly used to treat MRSA infections. These antibiotics are effective against a wide range of gram-positive bacteria, including MRSA.
Rifampicin and doxycycline are also used in the treatment of MRSA infections, although they may not be the first-line choices. Rifampicin is a rifamycin antibiotic that is often used in combination with other antibiotics to treat MRSA infections. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that can be used for less severe MRSA infections or as part of combination therapy.
In summary, ceftriaxone is not used in the treatment of MRSA, while vancomycin, teicoplanin, rifampicin, and doxycycline are all potential treatment options for MRSA infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true regarding Escherichia coli infection?
Your Answer: The O157:H7 strain is typically spread via shellfish
Correct Answer: E coli is an important cause of neonatal meningitis
Explanation:Escherichia coli (also known as E. coli) is a gram-negative, facultatively anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium commonly found in the lower intestine of warm-blooded organisms. Most E. coli strains are harmless, but some serotypes can cause serious food poisoning in their hosts, and are occasionally responsible for product recalls due to food contamination. The harmless strains are part of the normal flora of the gut, and can benefit their hosts by producing vitamin K2, and preventing colonization of the intestine with pathogenic bacteria. Virulent strains can cause gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, and neonatal meningitis.
The most common causes of neonatal meningitis is bacterial infection of the blood, known as bacteremia (specifically Group B Streptococci (GBS; Streptococcus agalactiae), Escherichia coli, and Listeria monocytogenes). Although there is a low mortality rate in developed countries, there is a 50% prevalence rate of neurodevelopmental disabilities in E. coli and GBS meningitis -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following:
Your Answer: Electron microscopy
Correct Answer: Antibody detection
Explanation:The diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through the detection of HIV antibodies and p24 antigen. When a person is infected with HIV, their immune system produces antibodies to fight the virus. These antibodies can be detected through various tests, such as ELISA and Western blot. Additionally, the p24 antigen is a protein found on the surface of the HIV virus and can also be detected in the blood.
Viral PCR, or viral load testing, is used to measure the amount of HIV in the blood and is often used to monitor the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment. CD4 count, on the other hand, measures the number of CD4 T-cells in the blood, which are a type of white blood cell that is targeted and destroyed by HIV. A low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system and progression of the disease.
Thick and thin blood films, viral culture, and electron microscopy are not commonly used for the diagnosis of HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?
Your Answer: Basophils
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Epithelioid cells are a type of macrophage that have enlarged and flattened out, resembling epithelial cells. In the context of tuberculosis, these cells are found in granulomas, which are structures formed by the immune system in response to the infection. The presence of epithelioid cells in a cervical biopsy from a patient with tuberculosis indicates the formation of granulomas in the tissue as part of the body’s defense mechanism against the infection. This finding is important for diagnosing tuberculosis and monitoring the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 24-year-old male comes to his doctor complaining of pain and swelling in his left testis for the past week. He is sexually active and has had multiple partners of both genders in the last year. During the examination, the doctor finds that the left testis is tender and swollen, but the patient has no fever. The doctor takes urethral swabs to determine the most probable causative organism.
What is the likely pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of acute epididymo-orchitis in sexually active young adults. This patient’s symptoms and signs are consistent with epididymo-orchitis, and the timing suggests this diagnosis over testicular torsion. While mumps can also cause epididymo-orchitis, it is less common and not supported by the absence of other symptoms. In men over 35 years old, E. coli is the most common cause, but given this patient’s age and sexual history, chlamydia is the most likely culprit. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the second most common cause in this age group.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100 mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What types of reactions should be reported as part of pharmacovigilance?
Your Answer: Only serious reactions
Correct Answer: All suspected adverse drug reactions
Explanation:Pharmacovigilance is the practice of monitoring and assessing the safety of medications after they have been approved and are being used by the general population. It is important to report all suspected adverse drug reactions as part of pharmacovigilance in order to ensure the ongoing safety of medications. This includes both expected and unexpected reactions to a medicine.
Reporting all suspected adverse drug reactions helps to identify potential safety concerns, monitor trends in side effects, and ultimately protect the public from harm. By reporting all reactions, healthcare professionals and regulatory agencies can work together to make informed decisions about the use of medications and take appropriate actions to mitigate any risks.
Therefore, it is crucial to report all suspected adverse drug reactions as part of pharmacovigilance, regardless of whether they are expected or unexpected. This comprehensive approach helps to ensure the ongoing safety and effectiveness of medications for all individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What action should be taken for clients diagnosed with DS-TB or DR-TB at a neurological site (e.g., TB meningitis or tuberculoma)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Defer ART until a lumbar puncture confirms meningitis
Explanation:Clients diagnosed with DS-TB or DR-TB at a neurological site, such as TB meningitis or tuberculoma, are at a higher risk of developing immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) when starting antiretroviral therapy (ART). IRIS is a condition where the immune system becomes overly active in response to the presence of TB bacteria, leading to inflammation and worsening of symptoms.
Therefore, it is recommended to defer ART initiation until a lumbar puncture confirms meningitis in order to reduce the risk of developing IRIS. This allows for proper management of the neurological complications of TB before starting ART, which can help prevent further complications and improve outcomes for the client.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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