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  • Question 1 - Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal...

    Incorrect

    • Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?

      Your Answer: Popliteal

      Correct Answer: Peroneal

      Explanation:

      The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at...

    Correct

    • A young man in a motor vehicle accident sustained a spinal injury at C8 level. What would likely be seen in this patient?

      Your Answer: The hypothenar muscles would be completely paralysed

      Explanation:

      The eighth cervical nerve is one of the contributors of the ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve supplies the hypothenar muscles which include the opponens digiti minimi, abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and palmaris brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form? ...

    Correct

    • Carbon dioxide is principally transported in the blood in which form?

      Your Answer: Bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in various forms:

      – Bicarbonate (80–90%)

      – Carbamino compounds (5–10%)

      – Physically dissolved in solution (5%).

      Carbon dioxide is carried on the haemoglobin molecule as carbamino-haemoglobin; carboxyhaemoglobin is the combination of haemoglobin with carbon monoxide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory; Cardiovascular
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal...

    Correct

    • Following an accident, a man was unable to extend the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, despite sensation being intact. Which nerve was likely damaged?

      Your Answer: Posterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      The posterior interosseous nerve which causes, what is known as the posterior interosseous nerve syndrome. The nerve is compressed before it bifurcates to form the medial and lateral branches. The compression is beyond the origin of the branches to the radial wrist extensors and the radial sensory nerve. The result of such a case is paralysis of the digital extensors and the extensor carpi ulnaris, resulting in dorsoradial deviation of the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy....

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of...

    Incorrect

    • The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of the neck?

      Your Answer: Posterior triangle

      Correct Answer: Visceral space

      Explanation:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine gland in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is situated at the front and sides of the neck in the visceral space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old women has a 4 cm non tender mass in her right breast which is fixed to the chest wall. Another 2cm non-tender mass is palpable in the left axilla. Chest x ray reveals multiple nodules ranging from 0.5 - 0.2 cm in both the lungs. What is the stage of her disease?

      Your Answer: T3 N0 M0

      Correct Answer: T4 N1 M1

      Explanation:

      This woman has an invasive primary tumour mass with axillary node and lung metastases, making this stage T4 N1 M1. Looking at the other stems, T1 N1 M0 signifies a small primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; T1 N0 M1 signifies a small primary cancer with no lymph node metastases but with distant metastases; T2 N1 M0 signifies a larger primary cancer with nodal metastases but no distant metastases; and T3 N0 M0 indicates a larger primary cancer with no metastases to either lymph nodes or to distant sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Female Health
      • Pathology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes...

    Correct

    • Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes and the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells is seen in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Poorly differentiated lymphocytic lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Malignant lymphoma usually causes non-tender lymphadenopathy, unlike the tender lymphadenopathy caused by infections (including infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus). Also, the lymphoid hyperplasia seen in infectious mononucleosis is benign and polyclonal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:...

    Incorrect

    • Diuretics that act on the ascending limb of the loop of Henle produce:

      Your Answer: Reduced absorption of water

      Correct Answer: Reduced active transport of sodium

      Explanation:

      The loop of Henlé leads from the proximal convoluted tubule to the distal convoluted tubule. Its primary function uses a counter current multiplier mechanism in the medulla to reabsorb water and ions from the urine. It can be divided into four parts:

      1. Descending limb of loop of Henlé – low permeability to ions and urea, while being highly permeable to water

      2. Thin ascending limb of loop of Henlé – not permeable to water, but it is permeable to ions

      3. Medullary thick ascending limb of loop of Henlé – sodium (Na+), potassium (K+) and chloride (Cl–) ions are reabsorbed by active transport. K+ is passively transported along its concentration gradient through a K+ channel in the basolateral aspect of the cells, back into the lumen of the ascending limb.

      4. The cortical thick ascending limb – the site of action where loop diuretics such as furosemide block the K+/Na+/2Cl− co-transporters = reduced active transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year-old boy is brought to you coughing. He is suspected to have aspirated a Lego piece which he was seen playing with. Where would you expect the piece to be?

      Your Answer: Right main bronchus

      Explanation:

      Inhaled objects are more likely to enter the right lung for several reasons. First the right bronchus is shorter, wider and more vertical than the left bronchus. Also, the carina (a ridge-like structure at the point of tracheal bifurcation) is set a little towards the left. The terminal bronchiole is a very small space and impossible for the seed to lodge here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst...

    Correct

    • An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst the registrar was performing this procedure she made a median cut too far through the perineal body cutting the structure immediately posterior. Which structure is this?

      Your Answer: External anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      An episiotomy is an incision that is made whenever there is a risk of a tear during vaginal deliver. A posterolateral incision, as opposed to a median incision is preferred. Of the options given, the external anal sphincter lies right posterior to the perineal body. The sacrospinous and the sacrotuberous ligaments are deep in the perineum that they should not be involved in this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?

      Your Answer: Short head of the biceps femoris

      Correct Answer: Vastus intermedius

      Explanation:

      The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      149.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following key features will be seen in an organ undergoing...

    Correct

    • Which of the following key features will be seen in an organ undergoing atrophy?

      Your Answer: A greater number of autophagic vacuoles

      Explanation:

      Atrophy is characterised by the breakdown of intracellular components along with organelles and packing them into vacuoles known as autophagic vacuoles. This is an adaptive response that separates the damaged cellular structures from the rest of the cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the...

    Incorrect

    • Decreased velocity of impulse conduction through the atrioventricular node (AV node) in the heart will lead to:

      Your Answer: Decreased PR interval

      Correct Answer: Increased PR interval

      Explanation:

      AV node damage may lead to an increase in the PR interval to as high as 0.25 – 0.40 s (normal = 0.12 – 0.20 s). In the case of severe impairment, there might be a complete failure of passage of impulses leading to complete block. In this case, the atria and ventricles will beat independently of each other.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the...

    Correct

    • What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Lower subscapular

      Explanation:

      The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old man who complains of chronic post prandial, burning epigastric pain undergoes a gastrointestinal endoscopy. There is no apparent mass or haemorrhage and a biopsy is taken from the lower oesophageal mucosa just above the gastro-oesophageal junction. The results reveal the presence of columnar cells interspersed with goblet cells. Which change best explains the above mentioned histology?

      Your Answer: Metaplasia

      Explanation:

      Metaplasia is the transformation of one type of epithelium into another as a means to better cope with external stress on that epithelium. In this case metaplasia occurs due to the inflammation resulting from gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. Dysplasia is disordered cellular growth. Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number but not cell type i.e. transformation. Carcinoma is characterized by cellular atypia. Ischaemia would result in necrosis with ulceration. Carcinoma insitu involves dysplastic atypical cells with the basement membrane intact and atrophy would mean a decrease in number of cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Gastrointestinal
      • Pathology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen...

    Correct

    • Increased resistance to flow of blood in cerebral vessels is most likely seen in:

      Your Answer: Elevation in systemic arterial pressure from 100 to 130 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Constant cerebral blood flow is maintained by autoregulation in the brain, which causes an increase in local vascular resistance to offset an increase in blood pressure. There will be an increase in cerebral blood flow (and decrease in resistance to cerebral blood flow) with a decrease in arterial oxygen or an increase in arterial CO2. Similarly, a decrease in viscosity will also increase the blood flow. Due to increased brain metabolism and activity during a seizure, there will also be an increase in the cerebral blood flow.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The primary motor cortex is located in the: ...

    Correct

    • The primary motor cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?

      Your Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex

      Explanation:

      A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives,...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives, with localised facial oedema. Which of the following conditions will cause localised oedema?

      Your Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Angio-oedema, is the rapid swelling of the skin, mucosa and submucosal tissues. The underlying mechanism typically involves histamine or bradykinin. The version related to histamine is to due an allergic reaction to agents such as insect bites, food, or medications. The version related to bradykinin may occur due to an inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, medications e.g. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or a lymphoproliferative disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is secreted by both macrophages and muscle cells?

      Your Answer: Interleukin 1

      Correct Answer: Interleukin-6

      Explanation:

      IL-6 is secreted by the T cells and macrophages and is a pro inflammatory cytokine. It is secreted in response to trauma e.g. burns and tissue damage that leads to inflammation. Apart from this its is also a myokine and is elevated due to muscle contraction. Other functions include: stimulate osteoclast formation when secreted by osteoblasts, mediate fever in acute phase response and are responsible for energy metabolism in muscle and fatty tissues. Inhibitors of IL-6 e.g. oestrogen are used as a treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Renal function is an indication of the state of the kidney, measured by glomerular...

    Incorrect

    • Renal function is an indication of the state of the kidney, measured by glomerular filtration rate (GFR). In a healthy person, GFR would be greatly increased by: 

      Your Answer: An increase in mean arterial pressure from 90 mmHg to 140 mmHg

      Correct Answer: Substantial increases in renal blood flow

      Explanation:

      An increase in the rate of renal blood flow (RBF) greatly increases the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). The more plasma available (from increased RBF), the more filtrate is formed. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. Central to the physiologic maintenance of GFR is the differential basal tone of the afferent and efferent arterioles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon...

    Correct

    • During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon is clamping the?

      Your Answer: Uterine arteries

      Explanation:

      The ureter forms the posterior boundary of a shallow depression which lodges the ovary and then runs medially and forward on the lateral aspect of the uterine cervix and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder. It is also situated about 2cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus. The relationship of the ureters and uterine arteries is of clinical significance because the arteries are at risk of iatrogenic injury during hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle in the neck divides the neck into two large triangles?

      Your Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

      Explanation:

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is an important landmark in the neck as it divides the neck into two; anterior and posterior triangles. These triangles help in the location of the structures of the neck including the carotid artery, head and neck lymph nodes, accessory nerve and the brachial plexus. It originates from the manubrium and medial portion of the clavicle and inserts on the mastoid process of the temporal bone, superior nuchal line. The sternocleidomastoid receives blood supply from the occipital artery and the superior thyroid artery. It is innervated by the accessory nerve (motor) and cervical plexus (sensory).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Correct

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:

      Sodium = 132 mmol/l

      Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l

      Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl)

      Chloride = 109 μmol/l

      8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl)

      pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg

      p(O2) = 107 mmHg

      standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l.

      What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      102.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Calculate the cardiac stroke volume of a patient whose oxygen consumption (measured by...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the cardiac stroke volume of a patient whose oxygen consumption (measured by analysis of mixed expired gas) is 300 ml/min, arterial O2 content is 20 ml/100 ml blood, pulmonary arterial O2 content is 15 ml/100 ml blood and heart rate is 60/min.

      Your Answer: 1 ml

      Correct Answer: 100 ml

      Explanation:

      By Fick’s principle, VO2 = Q × (CA (O2) − CV (O2)) where VO2 = O2 consumption, Q = cardiac output and CA(O2) and CV(O2) are arterial and mixed venous O2 content respectively. Thus, in the given problem, 300 ml O2/min = Q × (20−15) ml O2/100 ml. Thus, Q = 6000 ml blood/min. Then, we can calculate stroke volume by dividing the cardiac output with heart rate. Thus, stroke volume = 6000 ml/min divided by 60/min stroke volume = 100 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it...

    Correct

    • What is expected from complete transection of the inferior gluteal nerve when it emerges from the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer: Extension of the thigh would be the action most affected

      Explanation:

      As the inferior gluteal nerve emerges from the greater sciatic foramen below the piriformis muscle, it divides into branches and enters the gluteus maximus muscle which extends the femur and bends the thigh in line with the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm? ...

    Correct

    • Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?

      Your Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity

      Explanation:

      Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following toxins most likely results in continuous cAMP production, which...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following toxins most likely results in continuous cAMP production, which pumps H2O, sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate into the lumen of the small intestine and results in rapid dehydration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholera toxin

      Explanation:

      The cholera toxin (CTX or CT) is an oligomeric complex made up of six protein subunits: a single copy of the A subunit (part A), and five copies of the B subunit (part B), connected by a disulphide bond. The five B subunits form a five-membered ring that binds to GM1 gangliosides on the surface of the intestinal epithelium cells. The A1 portion of the A subunit is an enzyme that ADP-ribosylates G proteins, while the A2 chain fits into the central pore of the B subunit ring. Upon binding, the complex is taken into the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis. Once inside the cell, the disulphide bond is reduced, and the A1 subunit is freed to bind with a human partner protein called ADP-ribosylation factor 6 (Arf6). Binding exposes its active site, allowing it to permanently ribosylate the Gs alpha subunit of the heterotrimeric G protein. This results in constitutive cAMP production, which in turn leads to secretion of H2O, Na+, K+, Cl−, and HCO3− into the lumen of the small intestine and rapid dehydration. The gene encoding the cholera toxin was introduced into V. cholerae by horizontal gene transfer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (9/12) 75%
Lower Limb (1/3) 33%
Neurology (3/4) 75%
Physiology (7/11) 64%
Upper Limb (3/3) 100%
Respiratory; Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Pathology (3/6) 50%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Neoplasia; Female Health (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Renal (1/3) 33%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (2/2) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Passmed