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  • Question 1 - Which of the following drugs is the strongest opioid? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is the strongest opioid?

      Your Answer: Immediate-release morphine 10 mgs QDS orally

      Correct Answer: Modified-release morphine 30 mg BD orally

      Explanation:

      Modified release morphine in BD dose is the strongest opioid of the selection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old male has had complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly bends his...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old male has had complex tics since childhood. He repeatedly bends his knees and rubs his nose. He is prone to loud vocalisations, sometimes including swear-words. A diagnosis of Gilles de la Tourette syndrome has been made. Which of the following is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Gilles de la Tourette syndrome is the most severe and rare of the tic syndromes, consisting of multiple tics involving both motor actions and vocalisation. Onset is usually in childhood. Symptoms include utterance of obscenities (coprolalia); echolalia (repetition of another person’s spoken words) and palilalia (involuntary repetition of words, phrases, or sentences).
      The underlying cause is unknown, with no particular imaging or standard histopathological abnormalities having been identified. The EEG shows non-specific abnormalities in about half of patients. However, more recent immunocytochemical studies have suggested altered dopamine uptake in the striatal system.
      Risperidone is an effective therapeutic option without the effects associated with chlorpromazine and haloperidol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A middle-aged male presented in the OPD with scrotal swelling that is cystic...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged male presented in the OPD with scrotal swelling that is cystic in nature and painless. It is located on the posterior part of the testis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epididymal Cyst

      Explanation:

      Epididymal cysts present as a swelling is behind the testis and are non-tender/painless in nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Men's Health
      33.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test.
      Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?

      Your Answer: A rise in plasma osmolality to 302 mmol/kg during water deprivation

      Correct Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.

      In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.

      In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
      A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      104.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 44 year-old electrician is referred to you complaining of increasing problems with...

    Correct

    • A 44 year-old electrician is referred to you complaining of increasing problems with concentration. He also complains of irregular jerky movements of his extremities and fingers. He consumes approximately 25 units of alcohol per week. His father was diagnosed with dementia at the age of 40. Apart from generalized choreiform movements, his neurological and systemic examinations were normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Huntington's disease

      Explanation:

      Huntington’s disease is an autosomal inherited condition characterized by progressive dementia and worsening choreiform movements. Symptoms typically appear between ages 30 and 50. Ultimately the weakened individual succumbs to pneumonia, heart failure, or other complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man known to have renal cell carcinoma, is currently undergoing treatment. He presents to the acute medical ward with one month history of worsening central lower back pain, which becomes worse at night and cannot be managed with an analgesia at home. He has no other new symptoms.

      Out of the following, which investigation should be performed next?

      Your Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      An MRI whole spine should be performed in a patient suspected of spinal metastasis which can occur before developing metastatic spinal cord compression. This patient has renal cell carcinoma, which readily metastasises to the bones and also has progressive back pain. He, therefore, needs urgent imaging of his spine before any neurological compromise develops. MRI whole spine is preferable because patients with spinal metastasis often have metastases at multiple levels within the spine. Plain radiographs and CT scans should not be performed as they have a lower sensitivity for revealing lesions and cannot exclude cord compression.

      In general, imaging should be performed within one week if symptoms suspicious of spinal metastasis without neurological symptoms are present. If there are symptoms suggestive of malignant spinal cord compression, then imaging should be done within 24 hours.

      The signs and symptoms of spinal metastases include:
      1. Unrelenting lumbar back pain
      2. Thoracic or cervical back pain
      3. Pain associated with tenderness and worsens with sneezing, coughing, or straining
      4. Nocturnal pain

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 41-year-old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old woman who has a history of SLE presents with a dry cough, dyspnoea and fever. She is being treated with a monthly dose of IV cyclophosphamide for Grade IV nephropathy. The last cyclophosphamide dose was 10 years ago. Lab investigations are as follows:
      WCC: 2.3 (lymphocyte count 0.7)
      Platelets: 81
      Hb: 10.5
      ESR: 56
      CRP: 43
      PO2: 7.2 kPa, PCO2: 3.6 kPa after walking out to the toilet.

      Chest X ray was unremarkable apart from some patchy pulmonary infiltration.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP)

      Explanation:

      Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia, is an opportunistic fungal lung infection occurring almost exclusively in immunocompromised individuals. In 50% of cases, PCP is the first manifestation of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome), but it may be caused by other immunodeficiency disorders. PCP should be suspected in patients with a history of progressive dyspnoea and a dry cough with resistance to standard antibiotic treatment. Signs that support this diagnosis include a CD4 count < 200/μL, an increased beta-D-glucan level, and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray. Management of PCP includes high-dose trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMX), treatment of the underlying immunodeficiency disorder, and steroids in the case of severe respiratory insufficiency. TB is less likely to be present in this case as ESR is relatively low and chest x-ray appeared normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient presented with complaints of difficulty in swallowing, diplopia on left lateral...

    Correct

    • A patient presented with complaints of difficulty in swallowing, diplopia on left lateral gaze and ptosis of his left eye. The investigation of choice would be?

      Your Answer: Serum anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis clinically manifests with ptosis, diplopia and difficulty in swallowing. The initial investigation which is needed to confirm the diagnosis would be serum anti-acetylene receptor antibodies, after which other investigations like an EMG should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to the oncology clinic by a general surgeon. She has undergone mastectomy for carcinoma of the right breast.

      Out of the following, which factor is associated with a poor prognosis in patients with breast cancer?

      Your Answer: Young age

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors for breast cancer include:
      1. Young age (<40 years)
      2. Premenopausal at the time of diagnosis
      3. Increased tumour size
      4. High-grade tumour
      5. Oestrogen and progesterone receptor-negative tumour
      6. Positive lymph node status

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old patient with no prior medical history is admitted unconscious. Which should...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient with no prior medical history is admitted unconscious. Which should be done as an initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Blood glucose

      Explanation:

      The patient’s blood glucose should be evaluated in order to rule out a reversible diabetic come due to high or low blood glucose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 53-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in left loin...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old diabetic man presents to the emergency with pain in left loin and haematuria that was sudden in onset. Investigations revealed an 8mm stone in the left lower ureter. Supportive therapy was initiated with nifedipine and steroids. The patients returned to the emergency with vomiting and worsening pain and passage of two stones. Renal function tests are significant for an impending ARF. Which of the following steps would be employed in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Percutaneous nephrostomy

      Explanation:

      Nephrolithiasis encompasses the formation of all types of urinary calculi in the kidney, which may deposit along the entire urogenital tract from the renal pelvis to the urethra. Nephrolithiasis manifests as sudden onset colicky flank pain that may radiate to the groin, testes, or labia (renal/ureteric colic) and is usually associated with haematuria.
      Risk factors include low fluid intake, high-sodium, high-purine, and low-potassium diets, which can raise the calcium, uric acid, and oxalate levels in the urine and thereby promote stone formation.
      Diagnostics include noncontrast spiral CT of the abdomen and pelvis or ultrasound to detect the stone, as well as urinalysis to assess for concomitant urinary tract infection and serum BUN/creatinine to evaluate kidney function. Urinary stones are most commonly composed of calcium oxalate. Less common stones are made up of uric acid, struvite (due to infection with urease-producing bacteria), calcium phosphate, or cystine.
      Small uncomplicated stones without concurrent infection or severe dilation of the urinary tract may be managed conservatively with hydration and analgesics to promote spontaneous stone passage. When the spontaneous passage appears unlikely or fails due to the stone’s size or location, first-line urological interventions include shock wave lithotripsy, ureterorenoscopy, and, in case of large kidney stones, percutaneous nephrolithotomy. The most important preventive measure is adequate hydration.
      Collected stones should be sent for chemical analysis because in many cases specific lifestyle guidance, diet changes, and/or initiation of medical treatment (e.g., thiazide diuretics, urine alkalinisation) can prevent future stone formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she be treated?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Acyclovir is the correct answer. There has been no documented evidence of harm in pregnancy yet. Chickenpox can cause fetal abnormalities, and varicella zoster Immunoglobulin should be given to the infant immediately after birth (not the mother, won’t help). Steroids will actually make the chicken pox worse. Painkillers only, is obviously the wrong answer and pose severe risk to foetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old female, known case of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with dyspnoea, cough, and intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She was previously taking second line agents Salazopyrin and gold previously and has now started Methotrexate with folic acid replacement a few months back. Pulmonary function tests reveal restrictive lung pattern and CXR reveals pulmonary infiltrates.
      Which of the following treatments is most suitable in this case?

      Your Answer: Stop methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate lung disease (pneumonitis and fibrosis) is the specific etiological type of drug-induced lung disease. It can occur due to the administration of methotrexate which is an antimetabolite, which is given as disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. The typical clinical symptoms include progressive shortness of breath and cough, often associated with fever. Hypoxemia and tachypnoea are always present and crackles are frequently audible. Symptoms typically manifest within months of starting therapy. Methotrexate withdrawal is indicated in such cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following features is least associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia?

      Your Answer: Bone pain

      Explanation:

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include weight loss and lethargy; monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which one of the following is true of gamma delta T cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true of gamma delta T cells?

      Your Answer: Ligands for gamma delta T cell receptors are peptides presented by the MHC

      Correct Answer: They play a role in the skin and gut

      Explanation:

      Gamma delta T cells are of low abundance in the body, are found in the gut mucosa, skin, lungs and uterus, and are involved in the initiation and propagation of immune responses. Their ligands are not known in detail, but the gamma delta T cell receptors recognise intact proteins rather than MHC-presented peptides. Like alpha beta T cells, they develop in the thymus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      102.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 71-year-old woman with a medical history of a blood transfusion in the...

    Correct

    • A 71-year-old woman with a medical history of a blood transfusion in the early 1980s presents with a 10 month history of malaise and is noted to have impaired renal function. Her urine sediment reveals red cell casts.

      The results of immunological investigations are as follows: serum IgG 6.5 g/L (normal range 6-13), IgA 1.5 g/L (normal range 0.8-4.0), IgM 5.7 g/L (normal range 0.4-2.0), serum electrophoresis shows a faint band in the gamma region, complement C3 1.02 g/L (normal range 0.75-1.65), complement C4 <0.02 g/L (normal range 0.20-0.65), and rheumatoid factor 894 IU/L (normal range <40).

      Which of the following investigations is likely to be most important in making a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cryoglobulins

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history of a blood transfusion and lab results showing a markedly low C4 (with normal C3), elevated rheumatoid factor, and elevated serum IgM is highly suggestive of hepatitis C-associated cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis. Testing for Cryoglobulins will confirm this suspicion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 19-year-old patient in casualty only opens her eyes upon painful stimuli, extends...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old patient in casualty only opens her eyes upon painful stimuli, extends her limbs, and occasionally says inappropriate words. What is her Glasgow coma score?

      Your Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale provides a score for assessment of impaired consciousness in response to specific stimuli considering the eye opening, verbal response and motor response. The score runs from 3 to 15, a coma being defined as a GCS of 8 or less. According to this patient’s responses and the respective points for each response, the score is 7 and the patient is in a coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      71.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to...

    Correct

    • In a patient with type-1 diabetes mellitus, which cells when affected, lead to insulin deficiency?

      Your Answer: B cells of the pancreatic islets

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells in the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas while Glucagon is secreted from the alpha cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans.
      Type 1 diabetes mellitus is the culmination of lymphocytic infiltration and destruction of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. As beta-cell mass declines, insulin secretion decreases until the available insulin is no longer adequate to maintain normal blood glucose levels. After 80-90% of the beta cells are destroyed, hyperglycaemia develops and diabetes may be diagnosed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following regarding malignant mesothelioma is correct?

      Your Answer: is a pulmonary malignancy due to asbestos

      Correct Answer: is treated with radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Malignant mesothelioma is a type of cancer that occurs in the thin layer of tissue that covers the majority of the internal organs (mesothelium).
      Malignant Mesothelioma (MM) is a rare but rapidly fatal and aggressive tumour of the pleura and peritoneum. Aetiology of all forms of mesothelioma is strongly associated with industrial pollutants, of which asbestos is the principal carcinogen.

      Thoracoscopically guided biopsy should be performed if mesothelioma is suggested; the results are diagnostic in 98% of cases. No specific treatment has been found to be of benefit, except radiotherapy, which reduces seeding and invasion through percutaneous biopsy sites.

      Median survival for patients with malignant mesothelioma is 11 months. It is almost always fatal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part...

    Correct

    • A 21 year-old software developer undergoes a planned lumbar puncture (LP) as part of a neurological investigation for possible multiple sclerosis. During the consent process, she expresses concern about a post-LP headache. What is the mechanism of post-LP headaches?

      Your Answer: Leaking cerebrospinal fluid from the dura

      Explanation:

      Leaking of cerebrospinal fluid from the dura is the most likely explanation for post-lumbar puncture headaches. It is thought that ongoing leak of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) through the puncture site causes ongoing CSF loss, leading to low pressure. A post-LP headache is typically frontal or occipital and occurs within three days. It is normally associated with worsening on standing and improvement when lying down. Treatment in severe cases includes an epidural blood patch, but most resolve on their own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old female is referred to the dermatologist for a rash on both her elbows. The rash is red, is papulovesicular in nature, and looks like it has many small blisters. The dermatologist diagnoses her with dermatitis herpetiformis. Which HLA haplotype is this associated with?

      Your Answer: HLA-DR3

      Explanation:

      Dermatitis herpetiformis (DH), or Duhring’s disease, is a chronic blistering skin condition,characterised by blisters filled with a watery fluid. Despite its name, it is neither related to nor caused by herpes virus: the name means that it is a skin inflammation having an appearance similar to herpes.
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is characterized by intensely itchy, chronic papulovesicular eruptions, usually distributed symmetrically on extensor surfaces (buttocks, back of neck, scalp, elbows, knees, back, hairline, groin, or face)
      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune condition associated with HLA-DR3.
      HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis. HLA-B5 is most commonly associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-DR4 is associated with both type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis. HLA-B27 is most commonly associated with several diseases, most commonly ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      61
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old male presents complaining of having intermittent trouble with swallowing. He has...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents complaining of having intermittent trouble with swallowing. He has also been regurgitating stale food material. He sometimes wakes up in the middle of the night feeling like he is suffocating. Choose the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      In benign stricture, oesophageal carcinoma, and systemic sclerosis, there is persistent dysphagia (rather than intermittent). In oesophageal spasm, there is no regurgitation of stale food material. The symptoms described are consistent with pharyngeal pouch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is referred by his general practitioner. He has a family history of premature cardiovascular disease.
      Cholesterol testing reveals triglyceride levels of 4.2 mmol/l and a high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level of 0.8 mmol/l.
      You advise him to start fibrate therapy.
      Which of the following best describes the mode of action for fibrates?

      Your Answer: They are inhibitors of lipoprotein lipase activity and increase HDL synthesis

      Explanation:

      Treatment with fibrates, a widely used class of lipid-modifying agents, results in a substantial decrease in plasma triglycerides and is usually associated with a moderate decrease in LDL cholesterol and an increase in HDL cholesterol concentrations.
      Evidence from studies is available to implicate 5 major mechanisms underlying the above-mentioned modulation of lipoprotein phenotypes by fibrates:
      1. Induction of lipoprotein lipolysis.
      2. Induction of hepatic fatty acid (FA) uptake and reduction of hepatic triglyceride production.
      3. Increased removal of LDL particles. Fibrate treatment results in the formation of LDL with a higher affinity for the LDL receptor, which is thus catabolized more rapidly.
      4. Reduction in neutral lipid (cholesteryl ester and triglyceride) exchange between VLDL and HDL may result from decreased plasma levels of TRL.
      5. Increase in HDL production and stimulation of reverse cholesterol transport. Fibrates increase the production of apoA-I and apoA-II in the liver, which may contribute to the increase of plasma HDL concentrations and a more efficient reverse cholesterol transport.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old male with a scaphoid fracture came to the clinic after 2...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male with a scaphoid fracture came to the clinic after 2 weeks of applying the scaphoid cast. After removing the cast he had difficulty moving his thumb, index and middle fingers. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Release of flexor retinaculum

      Explanation:

      This patient has carpal tunnel syndrome which involves the median nerve. The treatment is releasing of the flexor retinaculum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman has an 11mm skin lesion on her right forearm, which bleeds easily on contact and has changed in appearance over the last 11 months.

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Explanation:

      Melanoma is more common in men than women. Reasons for the disease includes: UV light and genetic predisposition or mutations. Diagnosis is by biopsy and analysis of any skin lesion that has signs of being potentially cancerous.
      Early warning signs of melanoma ABCDE:
      Asymmetry
      Borders (irregular with edges and corners)
      Colour (variegated)
      Diameter (greater than 6 mm)
      Evolving over time

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presented with bloody diarrhoea and weight loss. Which one of the following would favour the diagnosis of Crohn's disease on rectal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Patchy inflammation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is patchy inflammation. Superficial ulceration as well as non-patchy inflammation are seen in ulcerative colitis (UC) in the colon and rectum; you would expect to see transmural inflammation in Crohn’s disease and it can be patchy and located anywhere from mouth to anus. Crypt distortion and crypt abscesses are seen in both UC and Crohn’s, however they are more common in ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is advised to start taking...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is advised to start taking an ACE-inhibitor in order to control his hypertension. However, he also needs to monitor his renal function. Keeping in mind that he just started an ACE-inhibitor, how long should he wait until he undergoes a blood test to check creatinine and potassium levels?

      Your Answer: One to two weeks after starting the medication

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors effectively reduce systemic vascular resistance in patients with hypertension, heart failure or chronic renal disease. This antihypertensive efficacy probably accounts for an important part of their long term renoprotective effects in patients with diabetic and non-diabetic renal disease. Systemic and renal haemodynamic effects of ACE inhibition, both beneficial and adverse, are potentiated by sodium depletion. Consequently, sodium repletion contributes to the restoration of renal function in patients with ACE inhibitor-induced acute renal failure. On the other hand, co-treatment with diuretics and sodium restriction can improve therapeutic efficacy in patients in whom the therapeutic response of blood pressure or proteinuria is insufficient. Patients at the greatest risk for renal adverse effects (those with heart failure, diabetes mellitus and/or chronic renal failure) also can expect the greatest benefit. Therefore, ACE inhibitors should not be withheld in these patients, but dosages should be carefully titrated, with monitoring of renal function and serum potassium levels. The optimum period to check this is one to two weeks after starting the medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath.
      Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?

      Your Answer: Chest x ray is contraindicated

      Correct Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%

      Explanation:

      Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30-56% and 11-28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
      The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
      CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice,...

    Correct

    • A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infection causes; jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, petechia, microcephaly, hearing loss and seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 30 year male admitted following a stab injury to his left upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year male admitted following a stab injury to his left upper chest. He complained of difficulty in breathing. On examination his chest movements were unequal on the left side. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be damaged?

      Your Answer: Thoraco-dorsal nerve

      Correct Answer: Left phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Difficulty in breathing and unequal chest movements are due to paralysis of the diaphragm. So the nerve affected is the left phrenic nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman was referred for endoscopy and found to have a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. She was given lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for 7 days.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate way of determining the successful eradication of H. pylori?

      Your Answer: Urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Urea breath test is the most sensitive test to determine if there has been RESOLUTION/ERADICATION of the infection with H. pylori. The best test for initial diagnosis would be EGD with biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is referred to endocrinology with thyrotoxicosis. Following a discussion of management options, she chooses to have radioiodine therapy. Which one of the following is the most likely adverse effect?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Approximately one third of patients treated with radioiodine therapy develop transient hypothyroidism. Unless a patient is highly symptomatic, thyroxine replacement may be withheld if hypothyroidism occurs within the first 2 months of therapy. If it persists for longer than 2 months, permanent hypothyroidism is likely and replacement with T4 should be initiated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea. The complaint...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old factory worker presents with a history of episodic dyspnoea. The complaint worsens when he is working. He starts to feel wheezy, with a tendency to cough. Which diagnostic investigation would be the most useful in this case?

      Your Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Serial Peak Expiratory Flow measurement at work and home is a feasible, sensitive, and specific test for the diagnosis of occupational asthma. For a diagnosis of occupational asthma, it is important to establish a relationship objectively between the workplace exposure and asthma symptoms and signs. Physiologically, this can be achieved by monitoring airflow limitation in relation to occupational exposure(s). If there is an effect of a specific workplace exposure, airflow limitation should be more prominent on work days compared with days away from work (or days away from the causative agent). Airflow limitation can be measured by spirometry, with peak expiratory flow (PEF) and/or forced expiratory volume in 1 s(FEV1) being the most useful for observing changes in airway calibre. Other tests mentioned are less reliable and would not help in establishing a satisfactory diagnosis of occupational asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection.
    On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old man has been admitted with a respiratory tract infection.
      On examination, he was found to be confused and dyspnoeic with O2 saturation of 88%. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. An arterial blood gas analysis reveals CO2 retention. He has been deemed unfit for admission into the intensive care unit. The physician elects to begin a doxapram infusion.
      Among the following statements which best fits with the characteristics of doxapram?

      Your Answer: Epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use

      Explanation:

      The statement that fits the characteristics of doxapram is, epilepsy is a contraindication for doxapram use. Concurrent use with theophylline may increase agitation not relaxation.

      Doxapram is a central respiratory stimulant. In clinical practice, doxapram is usually used for patients who have an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who are unsuitable for admission to the intensive therapy unit for ventilatory support. Doxapram infusion may buy an extra 24 h to allow for recovery.

      Contraindications include: ischaemic heart disease, epilepsy, cerebral oedema, acute stroke, asthma, hypertension, hyperthyroidism, and pheochromocytoma.
      The infusion may worsen agitation and dyspnoea and lead to hypertension, nausea, vomiting and urinary retention.

      Drug interactions:
      Concomitant administration of doxapram and aminophylline (theophylline) can cause increased skeletal muscle activity, agitation, and hyperactivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man is being investigated for excessive bleeding following a tooth extraction.

      His coagulation profile shows:
      Plts: 173 x 10^9/L
      PT: 12.9 secs
      APTT: 84 secs

      Which clotting factor is he most likely deficient in?

      Your Answer: Factor VIII

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely a case of haemophilia A which is the genetic deficiency of clotting factor VIII in blood.

      Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation. Up to 30% of patients have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is more common than haemophilia B and accounts for 90% of the cases. In haemophilia B (Christmas disease), there is a deficiency of clotting factor IX.

      Characteristic features of haemophilia include hemarthrosis, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding following trauma or surgery. Coagulation profile of a haemophiliac person shows prolonged bleeding time, activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), thrombin time (TT), but a normal prothrombin time (PT).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 24-year-old patient known with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is expecting her first child. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old patient known with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is expecting her first child. She is concerned whether her child will be affected or not. What is the pattern of inheritance of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Polygenic

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is inherited in an autosomal codominant pattern, meaning that one defective allele tends to result in milder disease than two defective alleles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      94.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 37-year-old woman presents with sudden blindness. She claims she had a similar...

    Correct

    • A 37-year-old woman presents with sudden blindness. She claims she had a similar episode last year which resolved in three months. Fundoscopy is normal. Upon examination, mild weakness of the right upper limb is found. Reflexes on the same limb are exaggerated. What is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      The age of the patients together with sudden loss of vision, remission and relapse of optic neuritis, focal neurological symptoms and exaggerated reflexes all suggest multiple sclerosis. This is treated with corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nervous System
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient is admitted with recurrent pancreatitis. He also has a history of parotitis. CT scan is carried out revealing no pancreatic mass, but evidence of widespread lymphadenopathy is seen. Dedicated liver imaging reveals a stricture in the common bile duct but no stones.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IgG4 disease

      Explanation:

      IgG4-related disease (IgG4-RD) is a fibro-inflammatory condition that can affect nearly any organ system: the pancreas, biliary tree, salivary glands, periorbital tissues, kidneys, lungs, lymph nodes, meninges, aorta, breast, prostate, thyroid, pericardium, and skin. The histopathological features are similar across organs, regardless of the site. IgG4-RD is analogous to sarcoidosis, in which diverse organ manifestations are linked by similar histopathological characteristics. Raised concentrations of IgG4 in tissue and serum can be helpful in diagnosing IgG4 disease, but neither is a specific diagnostic marker.

      Some IgG4-RDs are:
      1. Autoimmune pancreatitis
      2. Riedel’s Thyroiditis
      3. Mediastinal and Retroperitoneal Fibrosis
      4. Periaortitis/periarteritis/Inflammatory aortic aneurysm
      5. Kuttner Tumour (submandibular glands)
      6. IgG4-related Mikulicz disease (lacrimal, parotid, and submandibular glands)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following conditions is not linked to hyperuricemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not linked to hyperuricemia?

      Your Answer: Osteoarthritis

      Explanation:

      Hyperuricemia is an elevated uric acid level in the blood. The normal upper limit is 6.8mg/dL, and anything over 7 mg/dL is considered saturated, and symptoms can occur. Causes of hyperuricemia can be classified into three functional types:
      1. Increased production of uric acid – Purine rich diet, Tumour lysis syndrome, HGPRT deficiency (Lesch-Nyhan and Kelley-Seegmiller syndromes), Increased PRPP synthetase activity and Polycythaemia
      2. Decreased excretion of uric acid – Renal impairment, Metabolic syndrome, Drugs (diuretics, low-dose aspirin, cyclosporin, tacrolimus, pyrazinamide, ethambutol, levodopa, nicotinic acid), Acidosis, Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia, Hypothyroidism and hyperparathyroidism, Sarcoidosis, Familial juvenile gouty nephropathy, Chronic lead intoxication, Trisomy 21
      3. Idiopathic and mixed type – Alcohol, Exercise, Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, Aldolase B deficiency

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 41-year-old gentleman underwent kidney transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Now, 2 months...

    Correct

    • A 41-year-old gentleman underwent kidney transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Now, 2 months after the operation, he has developed fever and features suggestive of bilateral diffuse interstitial pneumonia.
       
      What is the most likely etiological cause?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      After renal transplantation, cytomegalovirus has been identified to affect 1/4 of the post-op patients. It is the most common viral infection causing morbidity and mortality in post-op patients in the first 3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is referred to the clinic by his GP. He complains of lethargy and tiredness. He has recently been discharged from the hospital after being admitted to the intensive care unit following a motorbike accident.
      His thyroid function testing is :
      TSH 0.3 IU/l (0.5-4.5)
      Free T4 8 pmol/l (9-25)
      Free T3 3.1 pmol/l (3.4-7.2)

      Which of the following is most likely to be the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sick euthyroid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Euthyroid sick syndrome (also known as nonthyroidal illness syndrome) can be described as abnormal findings on thyroid function tests that occurs in the setting of a nonthyroidal illness (NTI), without pre-existing hypothalamic-pituitary and thyroid gland dysfunction. After recovery from an NTI, these thyroid function test result abnormalities should be completely reversible.
      Multiple alterations in serum thyroid function test findings have been recognized in patients with a wide variety of NTIs without evidence of pre-existing thyroid or hypothalamic-pituitary disease. The most prominent alterations are low serum triiodothyronine (T3) and elevated reverse T3 (rT3), leading to the general term low T3 syndrome. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), thyroxine (T4), free T4 (FT4), and free T4 index (FTI) also are affected in variable degrees based on the severity and duration of the NTI. As the severity of the NTI increases, both serum T3 and T4 levels drop, but they gradually normalize as the patient recovers.
      Reverse T3 is used to differentiate between this condition and secondary thyroid failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.
       
      What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?

      Your Answer: Electrolyte abnormalities

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has consistently elevated levels of white blood cells in the blood, despite several courses of antibiotics.

      His full blood count done (FBC) today shows:
      Hb: 9.1 g/dL
      Plts: 250 x 10^9/L
      WCC: 32.2 x 10^9/L
      Neutrophils: 28.1 x 10^9/L

      However, he has at no point shown signs of any infection. The consultant suggests contacting the haematology department for ascertaining the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score.

      Out of the following, which related condition would have a high LAP score?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Correct Answer: Leukemoid reaction

      Explanation:

      Leukemoid reaction has a high LAP score.

      Leukemoid reaction refers to leucocytosis occurring as a physiological response to stress or infection which may be mistaken for leukaemia, especially chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). Leucocytosis occurs, initially, because of accelerated release of cells from the bone marrow and is associated with increased count of more immature neutrophils in the blood (left-shift). In order to differentiate, LAP score is used. Leukocytic alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activity is high in a leukemoid reaction but low in CML.

      LAP score is high in:
      1. Leukemoid reaction
      2. Infections
      3. Myelofibrosis
      4. Polycythaemia rubra vera
      5. Steroids, Cushing’s syndrome
      6. Pregnancy, oral contraceptive pill

      LAP score is low in:
      1. CML
      2. Pernicious anaemia
      3. Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH)
      4. Infectious mononucleosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman complains of a tender lump that is smooth and mobile in her left breast measuring 1-2 cm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      Fibroadenoma usually occurs in younger women. These non-tender masses can be removed for aesthetic purposes. Breast cysts are common shifting masses inside the breast tissue more common in women over the age of 35.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Women's Health
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman presents for review. She is concerned due to absence of menstruation for 5 months.
      She is 1.76 m in height and weighs only 43.7 kg (7 stone).
      A pregnancy test is negative and thyroid function testing is normal.

      Which of the following is the diagnosis of this case?

      Your Answer: Weight-related amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 65-year-old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of 40 bpm....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman was referred due to a pulse rate of 40 bpm. Which of the following answers is associated with the least risk of asystole?

      Your Answer: Complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS

      Explanation:

      From the given answers, complete heart block with a narrow complex QRS complex is associated with the least risk of asystole. Transvenous pacing is indicated by the other given responses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical...

    Correct

    • Around 30 patients have been admitted to the hospital following a suspected chemical attack in the city. The patients are extremely unwell, with symptoms of excessive salivation, lacrimation, diarrhoea, and emesis. Sarin gas was suspected as the most likely agent used in the attack. What is the mechanism of action of this chemical agent?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

      Explanation:

      Sarin acts by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.

      Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
      Sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound which causes inhibition of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. This results in high levels of acetylcholine (ACh).

      The effects of excessive ACh can be remembered by the mnemonic DUMBELLS:
      Diarrhoea
      Urination
      Miosis/muscle weakness
      Bronchorrhea/Bradycardia
      Emesis
      Lacrimation
      Salivation/sweating

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning:
      One of the effects of organophosphate poisoning is inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
      Features can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine (mnemonic = SLUD)
      Salivation
      Lacrimation
      Urination
      Defecation/diarrhoea
      cardiovascular: hypotension, bradycardia
      miosis, muscle fasciculation.

      Organophosphate poisoning is treated with the anti-muscarinic atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency & Critical Care
      55
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 57-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male arrives at the clinic due to intermittent vertigo, tinnitus and hearing loss. Which of the following will be the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral fluphenazine

      Correct Answer: Buccal prochlorperazine

      Explanation:

      This patient’s history of intermittent attacks suggests Meniere’s disease. Meniere’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear that can lead to dizzy spells (vertigo) and hearing loss. In most cases, Meniere’s disease affects only one ear. Prochlorperazine can be used for complaints of nausea, vomiting and vertigo associated with Meniere’s disease. It is available as a tablet, injection and buccal preparation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - The digital rectal examination and flexible sigmoidoscopy of a 30-year-old woman are normal....

    Correct

    • The digital rectal examination and flexible sigmoidoscopy of a 30-year-old woman are normal. However, she still complains of recurrent and brief episodes of severe rectal pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Proctalgia fugax

      Explanation:

      The digital rectal examination and sigmoidoscopy are normal, a fact that excludes all the other possible diagnoses. Proctalgia fugax is a functional anorectal disorder characterized by severe, intermittent episodes of rectal pain that are self-limiting. The diagnosis of proctalgia fugax requires exclusion of other causes of rectal or anal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a long-lasting autoimmune disease characterized by patches of skin typically red, dry, itchy, and scaly. Psoriasis can affect the nails and produces a variety of changes in the appearance of finger and toe nails including pitting and onycholysis. Nail psoriasis occurs in 40-45% of people with psoriasis affecting the skin and has a lifetime incidence of 80-90% in those with psoriatic arthritis. Psoriasis is mediated by type 1 helper T cells which are involved in the cell mediated response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • The Skin
      55.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/3) 33%
Nervous System (7/7) 100%
Men's Health (1/1) 100%
Endocrine System & Metabolism (5/6) 83%
Haematology & Oncology (5/7) 71%
Musculoskeletal System (2/2) 100%
Emergency & Critical Care (2/3) 67%
Renal System (4/5) 80%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Respiratory System (2/5) 40%
The Skin (3/3) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (4/4) 100%
Women's Health (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular System (1/1) 100%
Passmed