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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old previously well female presented with yellowish discolouration of her sclera. Investigations revealed low haemoglobin, a retic count of 8% and the occasional spherocyte on blood film. Which of the following is the most appropriate single investigation?

      Your Answer: Indirect coombs test

      Correct Answer: Direct coombs test

      Explanation:

      A low haemoglobin and a high retic count is suggestive of a haemolytic anaemia. Occasional spherocytes can be seen on blood film during haemolysis and it is not a specific finding. Direct Coombs test will help to identify autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where there are antibodies attached to RBCs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness.
    Blood tests reveal normal thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old lawyer presents with non-specific symptoms of tiredness.
      Blood tests reveal normal thyroid function, cortisol, growth hormone and gonadotropins. Pituitary MRI reveals a 0.8cm microadenoma.

      Which of the following represents the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      The patient has a non-functioning pituitary tumour as her hormone profile is normal.
      Non-functioning pituitary tumours are relatively common. A large number of these tumours are incidentally found pituitary microadenomas (<1 cm) and are usually of no clinical importance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 3 - A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman develops hyperthyroidism 6 weeks after delivery. On examination, she has a painless, firm enlarged thyroid gland.
      Which of the following statements is most correct regarding her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition is more likely in those in whom thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies were positive prior to delivery

      Explanation:

      Up to 10% of postpartum women may develop lymphocytic thyroiditis (postpartum thyroiditis) in the 2-12 months after delivery. The frequency may be as high as 25% in women with type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Some patients return spontaneously to a euthyroid state within a few months, but most patients experience a phase of hypothyroidism that takes 2 to 6 months to resolve; of this group, some develop permanent hypothyroidism. About 50% of patients, however, will develop permanent hypothyroidism within 5 years of the diagnosis of postpartum thyroiditis.

      High titres of anti-TPO antibodies during pregnancy have been reported to have high sensitivity and specificity for postpartum autoimmune thyroid disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent headaches, 2-3 times a day, associated with sweating and palpitations.
      His blood pressure during the attacks is around 220/120 mmHg.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the next appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hour urinary collection of metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Classically, pheochromocytoma manifests with the following 4 characteristics:
      – Headaches
      – Palpitations
      – Sweating
      – Severe hypertension

      The Endocrine Society, the American Association for Clinical Chemistry, and the European Society of Endocrinology have released clinical practice guidelines for the diagnosis and management of pheochromocytoma.
      Biochemical testing via measurement of plasma free metanephrines or urinary fractionated metanephrines should be performed in patients suspected of having pheochromocytoma.

      Catecholamines produced by pheochromocytomas are metabolized within chromaffin cells. Norepinephrine is metabolized to normetanephrine and epinephrine is metabolized to metanephrine. Because this process occurs within the tumour, independently of catecholamine release, pheochromocytomas are best diagnosed by measurement of these metabolites rather than by measurement of the parent catecholamines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female had an oral glucose tolerance test. Her oral glucose test...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female had an oral glucose tolerance test. Her oral glucose test after 2 hrs was 10mml/l. What is the result of her test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Impaired glucose tolerance is a pre-diabetic state of hyperglycaemia that is associated with insulin resistance and increased risk of cardiovascular pathology. To diagnose impaired glucose tolerance, the OGTT value after 2 hrs should be 140-199mg/dl (7.7 – 11.0 mmol/l). Impaired fasting glucose is diagnosed as fasting blood sugar between 100 mg/dl to 125 mg/dl.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is being treated with ADH for diabetes insipidus. His blood results show:
      fasting plasma glucose level: 6 mmol/l (3- 6)
      sodium 148 mmol/l (137-144)
      potassium 4.5 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
      calcium 2.8 mmol/l (2.2-2.6).

      However, he still complains of polyuria, polydipsia and nocturia.
      What could be the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney.
      The boy most probably has nephrogenic diabetes insidious (DI) not central DI so he is not responding to the ADH treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 7 - A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset....

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is admitted with headaches, polyuria and polydipsia of recent onset. She has a history of mastectomy for breast cancer. A CT head scan shows multiple cerebral metastases.

      Her admission biochemistry results are as follows:
      Sodium 153 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.0 mmol/l
      Urea 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 110 micromol/l
      Glucose 5 mmol/l.
      Over the next 24 hours, she has a urinary volume of 4.4 litres and further tests reveal plasma osmolality 320 mOsm/kg and urinary osmolality: 254 mOsm/kg.

      Which one of the following treatments should be used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin (DDAVP)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is defined as the passage of large volumes (>3 L/24 hr) of dilute urine (< 300 mOsm/kg). It has the following 2 major forms:
      – Central (neurogenic, pituitary, or neurohypophyseal) DI, characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH; also referred to as arginine vasopressin [AVP])
      – Nephrogenic DI, characterized by decreased ability to concentrate urine because of resistance to ADH action in the kidney
      This patient has the central type from metastases.
      In patients with central DI, desmopressin is the drug of choice. It is a synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). It is available in subcutaneous, IV, intranasal, and oral preparations. Generally, it can be administered 2-3 times per day. Patients may require hospitalization to establish fluid needs. Frequent electrolyte monitoring is recommended during the initial phase of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old lady presented with increased bowel motions, palpitations, heat intolerance and loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old lady presented with increased bowel motions, palpitations, heat intolerance and loss of weight. She is also tachycardiac. The investigation of choice in this case would be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function test

      Explanation:

      Hyperthyroidism is characterised by heat intolerance, loss of weight, increased sweating, increased bowel frequency and tachycardia. On GPE, there might be proptosis of eyes and tremors in the hands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 9 - A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with weight loss, palpitations, diarrhoea and cessation of periods. She has been treated by her GP for anxiety. Examination reveals a single nodule on the left of her thyroid, about 1.5 cm in diameter.
      Thyroid scan shows increased uptake within the nodule with reduced activity throughout the rest of the gland.
      Thyroid function tests showed a free thyroxine of 30 pmol/l (9-25 pmol/l), TSH < 0.05 mU/l (0.5-5).
      Based on these findings, what would be the definitive treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radioactive iodine therapy

      Explanation:

      Patients who have autonomously functioning nodules should be treated definitely with radioactive iodine or surgery.
      Na131 I treatment – In the United States and Europe, radioactive iodine is considered the treatment of choice for Toxic Nodular Goitre. Except for pregnancy, there are no absolute contraindications to radioiodine therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man, newly diagnosed with acromegaly, may have all of the following, except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypohydrosis

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly occurs due to excessive action of insulin-like growth factor I (IGF-I) after the growth plate cartilage fuses in adulthood.
      It can be an insidious disease. Symptoms, which may precede diagnosis by several years, can be divided into the following groups:
      1. Symptoms due to local mass effects of an intracranial tumour
      Tumour damage to the pituitary stalk may cause hyperprolactinemia (Increased blood prolactin levels associated with galactorrhoea) due to loss of inhibitory regulation of prolactin secretion by the hypothalamus
      2. Symptoms due to excess of GH/IGF-I including:
      – Hyperhidrosis (Not hypohidrosis)
      – Arthritis
      – Peripheral Neuropathies e.g. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System & Metabolism
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