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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is true?

      Your Answer: Air bubbles cause a hyper-resonant trace

      Correct Answer: Fluid-filled tubing conducts the intravascular pressure wave from the catheter tip to the transducer

      Explanation:

      Intra-arterial blood pressure monitoring is a common place procedure in the ICU. It is used to provide accurate beat-to-beat information using a pressure wave displayed on a monitor.

      It involves catheter insertion in a peripheral artery (most commonly the radial, brachial and dorsalis pedis arteries). Each subsequent contraction of cardiac muscles results in pressure wave which induces a mechanical motion of flow in the catheter. This mechanical motion is then passed on to a transducer through a rigid fluid-filled tubing. The transducer is the able to process this mechanical motion into electrical signals which are displayed as arterial waves and pressure represented numerically on the monitor.

      The transducer should be placed at the same level as the heart on the phlebostatic axis, and at the level of the atria (the 4th intercostal space, in the mid-axillary line).

      Air bubbles and catheter tubing with longer lengths result in wave dampening (rounding of the resulting pressure waves). This dampening causes a decrease in systolic pressure, and an increase in diastolic pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart...

    Incorrect

    • Transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) can be used to investigate the function of the heart in patients with suspected heart failure. The aim is to measure the ejection fraction, but to do that, the stroke volume must first be measured. How is stroke volume calculated?

      Your Answer: (End systolic volume / end diastolic volume)*100%

      Correct Answer: End diastolic volume - end systolic volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

      Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%

      Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume

      Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure

      Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
      Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
      -a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
      -increased stroke volume

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?...

    Incorrect

    • What vessel is NOT considered a major branch of the descending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The descending thoracic aorta begins at the lower border of T4 near the midline as a continuation of the arch of the aorta. It descends and ends at the level of T12 at the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm, where it becomes the abdominal aorta.

      The aorta gives off the following branches: (descending order)

      1. Bronchial arteries
      2. Mediastinal arteries
      3. Oesophageal arteries
      4. Pericardial arteries
      5. Superior phrenic arteries

      The posterior intercostal arteries are branches that originate throughout the length of the posterior aspect of the descending thoracic aorta.

      The inferior thyroid artery is usually derived from the thyrocervical trunk, a branch of the subclavian artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a known history of asymptomatic ventriculoseptal defect (VSD) is to undergo an orthopaedic surgery under general anaesthesia. The rest of the patient's medical history, such as allergies and previous operations, are unremarkable.

      What is the best antibiotic prophylaxis prior to surgery?

      Your Answer: A dose of co-amoxiclav IV as antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis

      Correct Answer: No antibiotic prophylaxis required as the defect is repaired and no evidence of benefit from routine prophylaxis

      Explanation:

      According to the 2015 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) Guidelines, antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis (IE) is not recommended routinely for people with any cardiac defect (corrected or uncorrected) due to lack of sufficient evidence regarding its benefits. Instead, antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended for those who are at risk of developing IE, such as those with acquired valvular heart disease with stenosis or regurgitation; hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; valve replacement; and previous IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following options will cause an artificial increase in pulse oximeter (SpO2) readings?

      Your Answer: Brown-red nail polish on finger

      Correct Answer: Heavy smoker

      Explanation:

      A pulse oximeter is a piece of medical equipment used as a non-invasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of blood.

      It works by measuring the ratio of absorption of red and infrared light in a section of blood flow, as red light is largely absorbed by deoxygenated blood, and infrared light is largely absorbed by oxygenated blood.

      Pulse oximetry relies on photoplethysmography (PPG) waveforms. The oximeter has 2 sides, with different functions. One side houses light-emitting diodes which are responsible for transmitting 2 light wavelengths, 660nm for red light and 940nm for near infrared light. The other side is a photodetector. The light emitted travels through the body and the amount that is not absorbed is measured by the photodetector.

      Smokers often have increased levels of carboxy haemoglobin (COHb). This leads to artificial increases in pulse oximeter readings as it is unable to differentiate between COHb and oxyhaemoglobin (O2HB) as they both absorb red light at 660nm. Every 1% increase of circulating carboxyhaemoglobin, results in a correlative 1% increase in oximeter readings.

      Prilocaine toxicity will cause an artificial decrease in oximeter readings. This is because prilocaine metabolites cause methemoglobinemia (MetHB), which are dysfunctional haemoglobins unable to properly transport oxygen. In this case, a laboratory multiwavelength co-oximeter is recommended for a more accurate reading.

      Anaemia will not affect oximeter readings as long as haemoglobins in the blood are normal.

      Sickle cell disease does not affect oximeter readings despite its ability to cause hypoxia and shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right.

      Brown-red fingernail polish will cause an underestimation of pulse oximeter readings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with an ectopic pregnancy that has ruptured.

      The following is a description of the clinical examination:

      Anxious
      Capillary refill time of 3 seconds
      Cool peripheries
      Pulse 120 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 120/95 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute.

      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 40-50%

      Correct Answer: Reduction in blood volume of 15-30%

      Explanation:

      The following is the Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock:

      Class I haemorrhage:
      It has blood loss up to 15%. There is very less tachycardia, and no changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure. Usually, fluid replacement is not required.

      Class II haemorrhage:
      It has 15-30% blood loss, equivalent to 750 – 1500 ml. There is tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure. Patient may be frightened, hostile and anxious. It can be stabilised by crystalloid and blood transfusion.

      Class III haemorrhage:
      There is 30-40% blood loss. It portrays inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, altered mental state and fall in systolic pressure. It requires blood transfusion.

      Class IV haemorrhage:
      There is > 40% blood volume loss. It is a preterminal event, and the patient will die in minutes. It portrays tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and pulse pressure, altered mental state, and cold clammy skin. There is need for rapid transfusion and surgical intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct about a characteristic that is normally distributed in a population?

      Your Answer: There will be approximately equal numbers who have more or less of the characteristic than the mean

      Explanation:

      68% of the population will be found in one standard deviation (SD) above plus one SD below the mean. Two SDs above plus two SDs below the mean will include 95% of the population.

      The median can be greater or less than the mean as it is simply the mid point of the data after the data is arranged. Half the data are above and half below the median .

      The mode is a true score, unlike the mean or the median. It is the most common score or the score obtained from the largest number of subjects in any given data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true. ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.

      Your Answer: Production is governed by the pituitary

      Correct Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.

      ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.

      ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.

      Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.

      Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin.

      Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion

      Correct Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion

      Explanation:

      The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:

      Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
      Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
      The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
      Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.

      Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.

      The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.

      The following are some basic assumptions:

      Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
      One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
      The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
      The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
      The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
      The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
      The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old male was involved in an accident and has presented to the Emergency Department with a pelvic crush injury.

      The clinical exam according to ATLS protocol revealed the following:

      Airway-patent

      Breathing - respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute. Breath sounds are vesicular and there are no added sounds.

      Circulation - Capillary refill time - 4 seconds. Peripheries are cool. Pulse 125 beats/min. BP - 125/95 mmHg.

      Disability - GSC 15, anxious and in pain.

      Secondary survey reveals no other injuries. The patient is administered high flow oxygen and IV access is established.

      The most appropriate IV fluid regimen in this case will be which of the following?

      Your Answer: Immediate transfusion of four units of O -ve blood

      Correct Answer: Judicious infusion of Hartmann's solution to maintain a systolic blood pressure greater than 90mmHg

      Explanation:

      These clinical signs suggest that 15-30% of circulating blood volume has been lost.

      Pelvic fractures are associated with significant haemorrhage (>2000 ml) that can be concealed. This may require aggressive fluid resuscitation which is initially with crystalloids and then blood. What is also important is including stabilisation of the fracture(s) and pain relief.

      The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification of haemorrhagic shock is as follows:

      Class I haemorrhage (blood loss up to 15%):
      <750 ml of blood loss
      Minimal tachycardia
      No changes in blood pressure, RR or pulse pressure
      Patients do not normally not require fluid replacement as will be restored in 24 hours, but in trauma, this needs to be correct.

      Class II haemorrhage (15-30% blood volume loss):
      Uncomplicated haemorrhage requiring crystalloid resuscitation
      Represents about 750 – 1500 ml of blood loss
      Tachycardia, tachypnoea and a decrease in pulse pressure (due to a rise in diastolic component due action of catecholamines).
      There are minimal systolic pressure changes.
      There may be associated anxiety, fright or hostility

      Class III haemorrhage (30-40% blood volume loss):
      Complicated haemorrhagic state – crystalloid and probably blood replacement are required
      There are classical signs of inadequate perfusion, marked tachycardia, tachypnoea, significant changes in mental state and measurable fall in systolic pressure.
      Almost always require blood transfusion, but decision based on patient initial response to fluid resuscitation.

      Class IV haemorrhage (> 40% blood volume loss):
      Preterminal event patient will die in minutes
      Marked tachycardia, significant depression in systolic pressure and very narrow pulse pressure (or unobtainable diastolic pressure)
      Mental state is markedly depressed
      Skin cold and pale.
      Needs rapid transfusion and immediate surgical intervention.

      A blood loss of >50% results in loss of consciousness, pulse and blood pressure.

      Fluid resuscitation following trauma is a controversial area.

      This clinical scenario points to a 15-30% blood loss. However, further crystalloid and blood replacement may be required after assessing the clinical situation. There is increasing evidence to suggest that transfusion of large volumes of crystalloid in the hospital setting are likely to be deleterious to the patient and hypotensive resuscitation and judicious blood and blood product resuscitation is a more appropriate option. A ratio of 1 unit of plasma to 1 unit of red blood cells is used to replace fluid volume in adults.

      This patient does not require immediate transfusion of O negative blood and there is time for a formal crossmatch. The argument about colloids versus crystalloids has existed for decades. However, while they have a role in fluid resuscitation, they are not first line.

      There is a risk of anaphylaxis, Hypernatraemia, and acute renal injury with colloidal solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      273.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?

      Your Answer: Type IIa skeletal muscle

      Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle

      Explanation:

      Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.

      Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.

      Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.

      Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip...

    Incorrect

    • While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.

      What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Avoid paracetamol for the next 12 hours and monitor the patient clinically

      Correct Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals

      Explanation:

      After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You've been summoned to the paediatric ward after a 4-year-old child was discovered...

    Correct

    • You've been summoned to the paediatric ward after a 4-year-old child was discovered 'collapsed' in bed.

      The child had been admitted the day before with febrile convulsions and was scheduled to be discharged. It is safe to approach the child.

      What should your first life-saving action be?

      Your Answer: Apply a gentle stimulus and ask the child if they are alright

      Explanation:

      Paediatric life support differs from adult life support in that hypoxia is the primary cause of deterioration.

      After checking for danger, the child should be given a gentle stimulus (such as holding the head and shaking the arm) and asked, Are you alright? according to current advanced paediatric life support (APLS) guidelines. Safety, Stimulate, Shout is a phrase that is frequently remembered. Any airway assessment should be preceded by these actions.

      Although the algorithm includes five rescue breaths, they are performed after the airway assessment.

      It is not recommended to ask parents to leave unless they are obstructing the resuscitation. A team member should be with them at all times to explain what is going on and answer any questions they may have.

      CPR should not begin until the child has been properly assessed and rescue breaths have been administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?

      Your Answer: An a wave due to atrial contraction

      Explanation:

      The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:

      A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.

      C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.

      X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.

      V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.

      Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant,...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized study aimed at finding out the efficacy of a novel anticoagulant, in preventing stroke in patients suffering from atrial fibrillation, relative to those already available in the market was performed. A 59 year old woman volunteered for it and was randomised to the treatment arm. A year later, following findings were reported:

      165 out of 1050 patients who were prescribed the already prevalent medicine had a stroke while the number of patients who had a single stroke after using the new drug was 132 out of 1044.

      In order to avoid one stroke case, what is the number of patients that need to be treated?

      Your Answer: 30

      Correct Answer: 32

      Explanation:

      Number needed to treat can be defined as the number of patients who need to be treated to prevent one additional bad outcome.

      It can be found as:

      NNT=1/Absolute Risk Reduction (rounded to the next integer since number of patients can be integer only).

      where ARR= (Risk factor associated with the new drug group) — (Risk factor associated with the currently available drug)

      So,

      ARR= (165/1050)-(132/1044)

      ARR= (0.157-0.126)

      ARR= 0.031

      NNT= 1/0.031

      NNT=32.3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive...

    Correct

    • Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems.

      In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?

      Your Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.

      These include:
      Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
      Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
      Apoptosis
      Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
      Lymphocyte activation
      Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.

      cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.

      The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:

      Beta (?1, ?2, and ?3)
      Dopamine (D1 and D5)
      Histamine (H2)
      Glucagon
      Vasopressin (V2).

      The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.

      The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Incorrect

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer: Attributable proportion - the risk of an event relative to exposure.

      Correct Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department in an ambulance. She was found collapsed on the street. She has visual and oculomotor deficits on examination, but her motor function is intact.

      A digital subtraction angiography is performed that shows occlusion of the basilar artery at the site where the vertebral arteries fuse to form the basilar artery.

      Which anatomical landmark corresponds to this site of occlusion?

      Your Answer: The base of the thalamus

      Correct Answer: The base of the pons

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is a large vessel that is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the junction of the medulla and pons. It lies in the pontine cistern and follows a shallow groove on the ventral pontine surface, extending to the upper border of the pons.

      The basilar artery then bifurcates into the two posterior cerebral arteries that form part of the Circle of Willis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      284.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about fluid balance?

      Your Answer: 0.9% sodium chloride solution contains no free water and is thus restricted to the extracellular compartment

      Correct Answer: After intravenous administration of crystalloids, the distribution of these fluids throughout the body depends on its osmotic activity

      Explanation:

      When there is capillary leakage as seen in dependent oedema or ascites, oncotic pressure becomes a problem.

      The intracellular sodium concentration is very sensitive to the extracellular sodium concentrations. When there is an imbalance, osmosis occurs resulting in shifts in water between the two compartments.

      The microvascular endothelium relies upon osmosis and other processes as it is not freely permeable to water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates...

    Incorrect

    • The Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) regulations recommend air supply rates to specific environments. Which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Anaesthetic rooms receive a volume of 0.65 m3 of air per second

      Correct Answer: Preparation rooms receive a volume of 0.1 m3 of air per second

      Explanation:

      Control of Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) was established by government under the Health and Safety at Work act in 1989. Their employers work on identification and management of those substances that are dangerous to health. The implications for anaesthetists include gas scavenging, equipment contamination and environmental safety. Adequate ventilation is required in areas where anaesthetic gases are present. The minimum air supply that is legally required in each specific area is: Operating theatres: 0.65 m3/second. Anaesthetic rooms: 0.15 m3/s. Preparation rooms: 0.1 m3/s. Recovery rooms need 15 air changes per hour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man with a previous history of ischaemic heart disease is admitted to hospital. He is scheduled for a cardiopulmonary exercise test (CPX) before he undergoes an elective abdominal aneurysm repair.

      What measurement obtained during a CPX test alone provides the best indication for postoperative mortality?

      Your Answer: Expired CO2

      Correct Answer: Anaerobic threshold

      Explanation:

      Cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPX, CPEX, CPET) is a non-invasive testing method used to determine the performance of the heart, lungs and skeletal muscle. It measures the exercise tolerance of the patient.

      The parameters measured include:

      ECG and ST-segment analysis and blood pressure
      Oxygen consumption (VO2)
      Carbon dioxide production (VCO2)
      Gas flows and volumes
      Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)
      Respiratory rate
      Anaerobic threshold (AT)

      The anaerobic threshold (AT) is an estimate of exercise ability. Any measurement below 11 ml/kg/min is usually related with an increase in mortality, especially when there is a background of myocardial ischaemia occurring during the test.

      Peak VO2 <20 mL/kg with a low AT have a correlation with postoperative complications and a 30 day mortality. The CPX test is used for risk-testing patients prior to surgery to determine the appropriate postoperative care facilities. The V slope measured in CPX testing represents VO2 versus VCO2 relationship. During AT, the ramp of V slope increases, but does not provide a picture of postoperative mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters? ...

    Correct

    • Which is the most appropriate statement describing the function of flowmeters?

      Your Answer: Constant pressure, variable orifice - Heidbrink flowmeters

      Explanation:

      There are different models of flowmeters determined by the applied pressure and its orifice. For instance, the watersight flowmeter functions through applying variable pressure, and it has a variable orifice. In contrast, the bubble flowmeter is operated using a constant pressure and orifice. Flowmeters such as rotameters, Heidbrink and Peak have a constant pressure but variable orifice. On the other hand, flowmeters including a simple pressure gauge, water depression, and pneumotachograph have a constant orifice but variable pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • Modified rapid sequence induction with 1mg/kg rocuronium was done is a 42-year-old male for emergency appendicectomy. The patient weight was 70 kg and a failed intubation indicated immediate reversal of neuromuscular blockade.

      Which of the following is the correct dose of sugammadex for this patient?

      Your Answer: 2400 mg

      Correct Answer: 1120 mg

      Explanation:

      Sugammadex is used for immediate reversal of rocuronium-induced neuromuscular blockade.
      It is used at a dose of 16 mg/kg.

      Since the patient in the question is 70 kg, the required dose of sugammadex can be calculated as:
      16×70 = 1120 mg.

      Sugammadex selectively binds rocuronium or vecuronium, thereby reversing their neuromuscular blocking action. Due to its 1:1 binding of rocuronium or vecuronium, it can reverse any depth of neuromuscular block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan...

    Incorrect

    • A patient visits the radiology department for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan (MRI). The presence of metal implants must be ruled out prior to the scan.

      In a strong magnetic field, which of the following metals is the safest?

      Your Answer: Neodymium

      Correct Answer: Chromium

      Explanation:

      Ferromagnetism is the property of a substance that is magnetically attracted and can be magnetised indefinitely. A material is said to be paramagnetic if it is attracted to a magnetic field. A substance is said to be diamagnetic if it is repelled by a magnetic field.

      Cobalt, iron, gadolinium, neodymium, and nickel are ferromagnetic.

      Gadolinium is a ferromagnetic rare earth metal that is ferromagnetic below 20 degrees Celsius (its Curie temperature). MRI scans are enhanced with gadolinium-based contrast media.

      When ferromagnetic materials are exposed to a magnetic field, they can cause a variety of issues like magnetic field interactions, heating, and image artefacts.

      Titanium, lead, chromium, copper, aluminium, silver, gold, and tin are non ferromagnetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true with regards to the Krebs' cycle (also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle)?

      Your Answer: Krebs' cycle can function under anaerobic conditions

      Correct Answer: Alpha-ketoglutarate is a five carbon molecule

      Explanation:

      Krebs’ cycle (tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle) is a sequence of reactions in which acetyl coenzyme A (acetyl-CoA) is metabolised and this results in carbon dioxide and hydrogen atoms production.

      This series of reactions occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells, not the cytoplasm. The cycle requires oxygen and so, cannot function under anaerobic conditions.

      It is the common pathway for carbohydrate, fat and some amino acids oxidation and is required for high energy phosphate bond formation in adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

      When pyruvate enters the mitochondria, it is converted into acetyl-CoA. This represents the formation of a 2 carbon molecule from a 3 carbon molecule. There is loss of one CO2 but formation of one NADH molecule. Acetyl-CoA is condensed with oxaloacetate, the anion of a 4 carbon acid, to form citrate which is a 6 carbon molecule.

      Citrate is then converted into isocitrate, alpha-ketoglutarate, succinyl-CoA, succinate, fumarate, malate and finally oxaloacetate.

      The only 5 carbon molecule in the cycle is alpha-ketoglutarate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements are false regarding propranolol except:

      Your Answer: Has intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

      Correct Answer: Has a plasma half life of 3-6 hours.

      Explanation:

      Propranolol is a nonselective beta-blocker with a half-life of 3 to 6 hours.

      Since it is lipid-soluble it crosses the blood-brain barrier and causes Central Nervous System side effects like sedation, nightmares, and depression.

      They are contraindicated in asthma, Congestive heart failure, and diabetes.

      It has a large volume of distribution with no intrinsic sympathomimetic action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department with a traumatic amputation of his leg at mid-thigh level. Resuscitation with 1 L gelofusine was done and four units of packed red blood cells were given before theatre. Thirty minutes following blood transfusion, the patient became flushed, breathless, hypotensive, develops haemoglobinuria, and had a fever of 38oC.

      Which one of the following correctly explains the patient signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Non-immune haemolytic transfusion reaction

      Correct Answer: Activation of classic complement pathway

      Explanation:

      This may be the classical case of blood transfusion reaction due to ABO incompatibility.

      Here red cells are destroyed in the bloodstream with the release of haemoglobin in circulation (causing haemoglobinuria). Here, IgM or IgG anti-A or anti-B antibody can cause rapid activation of complement cascade usually the classical pathway. This is called intravascular haemolysis.

      There may be extravascular haemolysis by cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system situated in the liver and spleen. Extravascular red cell destruction can increase breakdown products of haemoglobin, such as bilirubin and urobilinogen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It...

    Correct

    • A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.

      What is most likely reason for this?

      Your Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.

      The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.

      Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.

      Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.

      Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.

      Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old lady comes in for a right-sided elective bunionectomy with a realignment osteotomy under local anaesthetic on her first (large) toe.

      For the operation, which of the following nerve blocks will be most effective?

      Your Answer: Saphenous, superficial peroneal and deep peroneal nerves

      Correct Answer: Superficial peroneal, deep peroneal and posterior tibial nerves

      Explanation:

      An ankle block is commonly used for anaesthesia and postoperative analgesia when operating on bunions. It results in the selective block of the superficial peroneal, deep peroneal, and posterior tibial nerves.

      The deep peroneal nerve supplies sensory input to the web space between the first and second toes (L4-5).

      The L2-S1 nerve, often known as the superficial peroneal nerve, is a mixed motor and sensory neuron. It gives sensory supply to the anterolateral region of the leg, the anterior aspect of the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, and 4th toes, and innervates the peroneus longus and brevis muscles (with the exception of the web space between 1st and 2nd toes).

      The sensory area of the saphenous nerve (L3-4) in the foot stretches from the proximal portion of the midfoot on the medial side to the proximal part of the midfoot on the lateral side.

      The lateral side of the little (fifth) toe is innervated by the sural nerve’s sensory supply (S1-2). The heel, medial (medial plantar nerve), and lateral (lateral plantar nerve) soles of the foot are all served by the posterior tibial nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Left ventricular afterload is mostly calculated from systemic vascular resistance.

      Which one of the following factors has most impact on systemic vascular resistance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small arterioles

      Explanation:

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR), also known as total peripheral resistance (TPR), is the amount of force exerted on circulating blood by the vasculature of the body. Three factors determine the force: the length of the blood vessels in the body, the diameter of the vessels, and the viscosity of the blood within them. The most important factor that determines the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is the tone of the small arterioles.

      These are otherwise known as resistance arterioles. Their diameter ranges between 100 and 450 µm. Smaller resistance vessels, less than 100 µm in diameter (pre-capillary arterioles), play a less significant role in determining SVR. They are subject to autoregulation.

      Any change in the viscosity of blood and therefore flow (such as due to a change in haematocrit) might also have a small effect on the measured vascular resistance.

      Changes of blood temperature can also affect blood rheology and therefore flow through resistance vessels.

      Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is measured in dynes·s·cm-5

      It can be calculated from the following equation:

      SVR = (mean arterial pressure − mean right atrial pressure) × 80 cardiac output

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Physiology And Biochemistry (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology (5/5) 100%
Clinical Measurement (3/3) 100%
Physiology (5/6) 83%
Statistical Methods (2/3) 67%
Pathophysiology (7/7) 100%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (2/2) 100%
Passmed