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  • Question 1 - In which of the following cases is intravenous phenytoin contraindicated? ...

    Correct

    • In which of the following cases is intravenous phenytoin contraindicated?

      Your Answer: Second degree heart block

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin Contraindications include:

      Hypersensitivity
      Sinus bradycardia
      Sinoatrial block
      Second and third degree A-V block
      Adams-Stokes syndrome
      Concurrent use with delavirdine
      History of prior acute hepatotoxicity attributable to phenytoin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • Carbamazepine is indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Correct Answer: Myoclonic seizures

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is a drug of choice for simple and complex focal seizures and is a first-line treatment option for generalised tonic-clonic seizures. It is also used in trigeminal neuralgia and diabetic neuropathy. Carbamazepine may exacerbate tonic, atonic, myoclonic and absence seizures and is therefore not recommended if these seizures are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman was complaining of headaches. On examination, the patient is found to have weakness on the left side of her body and her eyes are deviated towards the right hand side. These are signs of damage to which of the following areas?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Some potential symptoms of frontal lobe damage can include loss of movement, either partial or complete, on the opposite side of the body.

      In the patient’s case, it is a result of motor cortex damage on the right side since her left side of the body is affected. The conjugate eye deviation symptom towards the side of the lesion is a result of damage to the frontal eye field.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral...

    Incorrect

    • A lesion to which part of the optic radiation will result in contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopia?

      Your Answer: Right occipital lobe

      Correct Answer: Right parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      A visual loss in the lower left quadrant in both visual fields is an indication of an inferior homonymous. This is due to a lesion of the superior fibres of the optic radiation in the parietal lobe on the contralateral side of the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical features is most suggestive of a lesion of the temporal lobe:

      Your Answer: Expressive dysphasia

      Correct Answer: Receptive dysphasia

      Explanation:

      Damage to the Wernicke’s speech area in the temporal lobe can result in a receptive dysphasia. Hemispatial neglect is most likely to occur in a lesion of the parietal lobe. Homonymous hemianopia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the occipital lobe. Expressive dysphasia is most likely to occur in a lesion of the Broca speech area in the frontal lobe. Conjugate eye deviation towards the side of the lesion is most likely to occur in a lesion of the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman demonstrates right-sided superior homonymous quadrantanopia upon visual field testing. A diagnosis of a brain tumour has been established.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Correct Answer: Lower optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Homonymous quadrantanopia is not a disease; it is a clinical finding that points towards a lesion of the optic radiations coursing through the temporal lobe.
      Homonymous superior quadrantanopia is caused by damage to the contralateral inferior parts of the posterior visual pathway: the inferior optic radiation (temporal Meyer loop), or the inferior part of the occipital visual cortex below the calcarine fissure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the main mechanism of action of metoclopramide: ...

    Correct

    • What is the main mechanism of action of metoclopramide:

      Your Answer: Dopamine antagonist

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide is a dopamine-receptor antagonist. Blockade of inhibitory dopamine receptors in the GI tract may allow stimulatory actions of ACh at muscarinic synapses to predominate. Metoclopramide also blocks dopamine D2-receptors within the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ). At high doses, it is also thought to have some 5-HT3antagonist activity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Which of the following is considered the best diagnosis for the case presented above?

      Your Answer: Lateral medullary syndrome

      Correct Answer: Medial medullary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is an adverse effect of carbamazepine:

      Your Answer: Rhabdomyolysis

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Common adverse effects include nausea and vomiting, sedation, dizziness, headache, blurred vision and ataxia. These adverse effects are dose related and are most common at the start of treatment.
      Other adverse effects include:
      Allergic skin reactions (and rarely, more serious dermatological conditions)
      Hyponatraemia (avoid concomitant use with diuretics)
      Leucopenia, thrombocytopenia and other blood disorders including aplastic anaemia
      Hepatic impairment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In a patient with an ongoing seizure, after what time period should treatment...

    Correct

    • In a patient with an ongoing seizure, after what time period should treatment be commenced?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Immediate emergency care and treatment should be given to children, young people and adults who have prolonged or repeated convulsive seizures.
      Prolonged seizures last 5 minutes or more.
      Repeated seizures refer to 3 or more seizures in an hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of lithium toxicity: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT a typical feature of lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Miosis

      Explanation:

      Features of toxicity include:
      Increasing gastrointestinal disturbances (vomiting, diarrhoea, anorexia)
      Visual disturbances
      Polyuria and incontinence
      Muscle weakness and tremor
      Tinnitus
      CNS disturbances (dizziness, confusion and drowsiness increasing to lack of coordination, restlessness, stupor)
      Abnormal reflexes and myoclonus
      Hypernatraemia
      With severe overdosage (serum-lithium concentration > 2 mmol/L) seizures, cardiac arrhythmias (including sinoatrial block, bradycardia and first-degree heart block), blood pressure changes, electrolyte imbalance, circulatory failure, renal failure, coma and sudden death may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 34-year-old man presents with loss of vision in his left eye due...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old man presents with loss of vision in his left eye due to an episode of optic neuritis. Upon history taking, it was noted that he has a history of multiple sclerosis.

      Which of the following anatomical points in the visual pathway has the lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Upper optic radiation

      Correct Answer: Optic nerve

      Explanation:

      A lesion in the optic nerve causes ipsilateral monocular visual loss.
      Optic neuritis is an inflammatory demyelination of the optic nerve that is highly associated with multiple sclerosis. The two most common symptoms of optic neuritis are vision loss and eye pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is: ...

    Correct

    • The most common complication of paracetamol overdose is:

      Your Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      The maximum daily dose of paracetamol in an adult is 4 grams. Doses greater than this can lead to hepatotoxicity and, less frequently, acute kidney injury. Early symptoms of paracetamol toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, and usually settle within 24 hours. Symptoms of liver damage include right subcostal pain and tenderness, and this peaks 3 to 4 days after paracetamol ingestion. Other signs of hepatic toxicity include encephalopathy, bleeding, hypoglycaemia, and cerebral oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following classes of drugs may predispose to lithium toxicity:

      Your Answer: Theophylline

      Correct Answer: Thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Excretion of lithium may be reduced by thiazide diuretics, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors thus predisposing to lithium toxicity. Loop diuretics also cause lithium retention but are less likely to result in lithium toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is a well recognised adverse effect of prochlorperazine: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a well recognised adverse effect of prochlorperazine:

      Your Answer: Acute dystonic reaction

      Explanation:

      Adverse actions include anticholinergic effects such as drowsiness, dry mouth, and blurred vision, extrapyramidal effects, and postural hypotension. Phenothiazines can all induce acute dystonic reactions such as facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises; children (especially girls, young women, and those under 10 kg) are particularly susceptible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following cervical nerves is likely to be affected if your patient is complaining of elbow extension weakness and loss of sensation in her middle finger? She also has pain and tenderness in her cervical region, which is caused by a herniated disc, all after a whiplash-type injury in a car accident.

      Your Answer: C8

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      A C7 spinal nerve controls elbow extension and some finger extension.

      Damage to this nerve can result in a burning pain in the shoulder blade or back of the arms. The ability to extend shoulders, arms, and fingers may also be affected. Dexterity may also be compromised in the hands or fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - After an accidental fall, a 75-year-old patient complains of neck pain and weakness...

    Incorrect

    • After an accidental fall, a 75-year-old patient complains of neck pain and weakness in his upper limbs. Select the condition that most likely caused the neck pain and weakness of the upper limbs of the patient.

      Your Answer: Brown-Sequard syndrome

      Correct Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      The cervical spinal cord is the section of the spinal cord that goes through the bones of the neck.

      It is injured incompletely in the central cord syndrome (CCS). This will result in arm weakness more than leg weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in...

    Correct

    • Which of the following clinical features would you least expect to see in a lesion of the frontal lobe:

      Your Answer: Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

      Explanation:

      Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing results from damage to the primary visual cortex of the occipital lobe. Incontinence may occur due to damage of the cortical micturition centre in the prefrontal cortex. Primitive reflexes and inability to problem solve may occur due to damage to the prefrontal cortex. Motor weakness of the contralateral limb with UMN signs may occur due to damage of the primary motor cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 70-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room after suffering a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room after suffering a traumatic fall while showering. Upon physical examination, the attending physician noted a hyperextended neck, 1/5 muscle strength in both upper extremities, 4/5 muscle strength in both lower extremities, and variable loss in sensation. The patient is placed in the wards for monitoring. For the next 24 hours, anuria is noted.

      Which of the following spinal cord injuries is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central cord syndrome

      Explanation:

      Central cord syndrome is the most common type of incomplete cord injury and almost always occurs due to a traumatic injury. It results in motor deficits that are worse in the upper extremities as compared to the lower extremities. It may also cause bladder dysfunction (retention) and variable sensory deficits below the level of injury.

      The majority of these patients will be older and present with symptoms after a fall with hyperextension of their neck. On examination, patients will have more significant strength impairments in the upper extremities (especially the hands) compared to the lower extremities. Patients often complain of sensory deficits below the level of injury, but this is variable. Pain and temperature sensations are typically affected, but the sensation of light touch can also be impaired. The most common sensory deficits are in a cape-like distribution across their upper back and down their posterior upper extremities. They will often have neck pain at the site of spinal cord impingement.

      Bladder dysfunction (most commonly urinary retention) and priapism can also be signs of upper motor neuron dysfunction. The sacral sensation is usually preserved, but the clinician should assess the rectal tone to evaluate the severity of the compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 54 year old patient presents with vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54 year old patient presents with vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis.

      Which of these blood vessels has most likely been occluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) occlusion is characterised by vertigo, ipsilateral hemiataxia, dysarthria, ptosis and miosis. PICA occlusion causes infarction of the posterior inferior cerebellum, inferior cerebellar vermis and lateral medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following predisposes to lithium toxicity in patients taking long-term therapy EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypernatraemia

      Explanation:

      A common complication of long term lithium therapy results in most cases of lithium intoxication. It is caused by reduced excretion of the drug which can be due to several factors including deterioration of renal function, dehydration, hyponatraemia, infections, and co-administration of diuretics or NSAIDs or other drugs that may interact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a contraindication for aspirin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children under 16 years

      Explanation:

      Aspirin contraindications include: hypersensitivity to NSAIDs; asthma, rhinitis, and nasal polyps; and usage in children or teens.
      There is little evidence of allergic cross-reactivity for salicylates. However, due to similarities in chemical structure and/or pharmacologic activities, the possibility of cross-sensitivity cannot be completely ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A patient complains of headache and visual loss. CT scan demonstrates a lesion of the temporal lobe. What type of visual field defect would you most expect to see in this patient:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia

      Explanation:

      Axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) carry visual information, via the upper and lower optic radiations, to the visual cortex in the occipital lobe:
      The upper optic radiation carries fibres from the superior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the inferior visual field quadrants) and travels through the parietal lobe to reach the visual cortex.
      The lower optic radiation carries fibres from the inferior retinal quadrants (corresponding to the superior visual field quadrants) and travels through the temporal lobe to reach the visual cortex of the occipital lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year old boy is referred to the Paediatrics Department due to slurred speech. Upon further examination, the attending physician noted the presence of dysdiadochokinesia, intention tremors, and nystagmus. An MRI is taken, which revealed a brain tumour.

      Which of the following options is the most probable diagnosis given the clinical features of the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma of cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Pilocytic astrocytoma (PCA), previously known as cystic cerebellar astrocytoma or juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma, was first described in 1931 by Harvey Cushing, based on a case series of cerebellar astrocytomas; though he never used these terms but rather described a spongioblastoma. They are low-grade, and usually well-circumscribed tumours, which tend to occur in young patients. By the World Health Organization (WHO) classification of central nervous system tumours, they are considered grade I gliomas and have a good prognosis.

      PCA most commonly occurs in the cerebellum but can also occur in the optic pathway, hypothalamus, and brainstem. They can also occur in the cerebral hemispheres, although this tends to be the case in young adults. Presentation and treatment vary for PCA in other locations. Glial cells include astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, and microglia. Astrocytic tumours arise from astrocytes and are the most common tumour of glial origin. The WHO 2016 categorized these tumours as either diffuse gliomas or other astrocytic tumours. Diffuse gliomas include grade II and III diffuse astrocytomas, grade IV glioblastoma, and diffuse gliomas of childhood. The other astrocytic tumours group include PCA, pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma, subependymal giant cell astrocytoma, and anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma.

      PCA can present with symptoms secondary to the posterior fossa mass effect. This may include obstructive hydrocephalus, with resultant headache, nausea and vomiting, and papilledema. If hydrocephalus occurs before the fusion of the cranial sutures (<18-months-of-age), then an increase in head circumference will likely occur. Lesions of the cerebellar hemisphere result in peripheral ataxia, dysmetria, intention tremor, nystagmus, and dysarthria. In contrast, lesions of the vermis cause a broad-based gait, truncal ataxia, and titubation. Posterior fossa lesions can also cause cranial nerve palsies. Diplopia may occur due to abducens palsy from the stretching of the nerve. They may also have blurred vision due to papilledema. Seizures are rare with posterior fossa lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is referred to the Medicine Department for complaints of unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus and facial numbness. Upon further investigation, an acoustic neuroma is given as the final diagnosis.

      Which of the following nerves is least likely to be affected in acoustic neuroma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Explanation:

      Acoustic neuroma is also called vestibular schwannoma (VS), acoustic neuroma, vestibular neuroma or acoustic neurofibroma. These are tumours that evolve from the Schwann cell sheath and can be either intracranial or extra-axial. They usually occur adjacent to the cochlear and vestibular nerves and most often arise from the inferior division of the latter. Anatomically, acoustic neuroma tends to occupy the cerebellopontine angle. About 5-10% of cerebellopontine angle (CPA) tumours are meningiomas and may occur elsewhere in the brain. Bilateral acoustic neuromas tend to be exclusively found in individuals with type 2 neurofibromatosis.

      The following nerves may be affected due to nerve compression:

      Facial nerve: usually minimal with late presentation except for very large tumours. Depending on the degree of engagement of the nerve, the symptoms may include twitching, increased lacrimation and facial weakness.

      Trigeminal Nerve: paraesthesia in the trigeminal distribution, tingling of the tongue, impairment of the corneal reflex, and less commonly pain which may mimic typical trigeminal neuralgia.

      Glossopharyngeal and Vagus nerves: palatal paresis, hoarseness of voice and dysphagia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of amitriptyline:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects include:
      Antimuscarinic effects: Dry mouth, Blurred vision, Constipation, Urinary retention, Sedation, Confusion
      Cardiovascular effects: Heart block, Arrhythmias, Tachycardia, Postural hypotension, QT-interval prolongation, Hepatic impairment, Narrow-angle glaucoma

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man presents with complaints of double vision. Upon physical examination, it was observed that he exhibits left-sided hemiplegia and left-sided loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense and discriminatory touch. In addition, he has the inability to abduct his right eye and is holding his head towards the right side. A CT scan was ordered and showed that he has suffered a right-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar artery

      Explanation:

      Inferior medial pontine syndrome, also known as Foville syndrome, is one of the brainstem stroke syndromes which occurs when there is infarction of the medial inferior aspect of the pons due to occlusion of the paramedian branches of the basilar artery.

      It is characterized by ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy, facial palsy, contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral loss of proprioception and vibration, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral facial weakness, and lateral gaze paralysis and diplopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - At which opioid receptors do opioid analgesics act primarily? ...

    Incorrect

    • At which opioid receptors do opioid analgesics act primarily?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mu

      Explanation:

      Opioid receptors are widely distributed throughout the central nervous system. Opioid analgesics mimic endogenous opioid peptides by causing prolonged activation of these receptors, mainly the mu(μ)-receptors which are the most highly concentrated in brain areas involved in nociception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke.

      Branches of which of the following arteries are most likely implicated in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.

      It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Central Nervous System (9/19) 47%
Pharmacology (7/10) 70%
Anatomy (2/9) 22%
Passmed