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  • Question 1 - A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her right limbs, difficulty with coordination in her right arm, and difficulty speaking.
      Which of the following blood vessels is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:

      Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.

      Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.

      Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.

      It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 42 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a friend due to concerns the patient has been experiencing fever and increasing lethargy. The patient is known to be an intravenous drug user. The patient is found to have a high-pitched systolic murmur and crepitations in both lung bases. The following observations are noted:

      Temperature: 38.8ºC
      Pulse rate: 116 bpm
      Blood pressure: 110/68 mmHg
      Respiration rate: 22 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      The presence of both fever and a murmur in an individual who engages in intravenous drug use (IVDU) should raise suspicion for infective endocarditis. IVDU is a significant risk factor for this condition. In this particular patient, the symptoms of fever and cardiac murmur are important indicators that may be emphasized in an exam scenario. It is important to note that infective endocarditis in IVDU patients typically affects the right side of the heart, with the tricuspid valve being the most commonly affected. Murmurs in this patient population can be subtle and challenging to detect during a clinical examination. Additionally, the presence of septic emboli can lead to the entry of infected material into the pulmonary circulation, potentially causing pneumonia and pulmonary vessel occlusion, which may manifest as a pulmonary embolism (PE).

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. He...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. He has not produced any urine for the last 10 hours. After conducting additional tests, the patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What stage of AKI does he fall under?

      Your Answer: Stage 3

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, affecting approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK.

      AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from the baseline within 7 days. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.

      Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from the baseline within 7 days, or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.

      The most severe stage, stage 3 AKI, is identified by a creatinine rise of 200% or more from the baseline within 7 days. It can also be diagnosed if the creatinine level reaches 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine production) for 12 hours is indicative of stage 3 AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      42.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vision loss in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye over the past few hours. On fundoscopic examination, you observe that the entire retina appears pale and a cherry red spot is visible in the macular region.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by sudden, painless, and unilateral loss of vision. The appearance of the retina in CRAO is distinct from that of CRVO. It shows a pale retina with narrowed blood vessels. A notable feature is the presence of a ‘cherry-red spot’ at the center of the macula, which is supplied by the underlying choroid. Additionally, examination often reveals an afferent pupillary defect.

      On the other hand, branch retinal artery occlusion (BRAO) typically affects only one quadrant of the retina, leading to visual field deficits in that specific area rather than complete loss of vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman comes in sweating and in distress, complaining of abdominal discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in sweating and in distress, complaining of abdominal discomfort and feeling nauseous. She has a history of excessive alcohol consumption and has just completed a weekend of heavy drinking. During the examination, there is significant tenderness in her abdomen, particularly in the upper middle area, and bruising is noticeable around her belly button and on the sides of her abdomen.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.

      The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Many cases are also of unknown origin. To remember the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful:

      – I: Idiopathic
      – G: Gallstones
      – E: Ethanol
      – T: Trauma
      – S: Steroids
      – M: Mumps
      – A: Autoimmune
      – S: Scorpion stings
      – H: Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia
      – E: ERCP
      – D: Drugs

      The clinical features of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea and vomiting, referral of pain to specific dermatomes (or shoulder tip via the phrenic nerve), fever/sepsis, epigastric tenderness, jaundice, and signs such as Gray-Turner sign (ecchymosis of the flank) and Cullen sign (ecchymosis of the peri-umbilical area).

      The stimulation of the thoracic splanchnic nerves is responsible for the referred pain to the T6-10 dermatomes that is sometimes observed in pancreatitis and other pancreatic disorders.

      When investigating acute pancreatitis in the emergency department, it is important to perform blood glucose testing, a full blood count (which often shows an elevated white cell count), urea and electrolyte testing, calcium testing, liver function tests, coagulation screening, serum amylase testing (which should be more than 5 times the normal limit), an ECG, arterial blood gas analysis, and an abdominal X-ray.

      Treatment for acute pancreatitis involves providing the patient with oxygen, adequate pain relief (including antiemetics), and fluid resuscitation. A nasogastric tube and urinary catheter should be inserted, and fluid balance should be carefully monitored. Most patients require management in a high dependency unit (HDU) or intensive care unit (ICU) setting.

      Acute pancreatitis has a significant mortality rate, and complications are common. Early complications may include severe sepsis and circulatory shock, acute renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, hypocalcemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome and pancreatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old woman comes in with a reddish-brown discharge from her vagina. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in with a reddish-brown discharge from her vagina. She has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the past ten years and had regular withdrawal bleeds until three years ago.

      What is the MOST suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cervical smear

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      postmenopausal bleeding should always be treated as a potential malignancy until proven otherwise. The first step in investigating postmenopausal bleeding is a transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS). This method effectively assesses the risk of endometrial cancer by measuring the thickness of the endometrium.

      In postmenopausal women, the average endometrial thickness is much thinner compared to premenopausal women. A thicker endometrium indicates a higher likelihood of endometrial cancer. Currently, in the UK, an endometrial thickness threshold of 5 mm is used. If the thickness exceeds this threshold, there is a 7.3% chance of endometrial cancer being present.

      For women with postmenopausal bleeding, if the endometrial thickness is uniformly less than 5 mm, the likelihood of endometrial cancer is less than 1%. However, in cases deemed clinically high-risk, additional investigations such as hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy should be performed.

      The definitive diagnosis of endometrial cancer is made through histological examination. If the endometrial thickness exceeds 5 mm, an endometrial biopsy is recommended to confirm the presence of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      218.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old diabetic woman presents with a history of a shadow passing across...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old diabetic woman presents with a history of a shadow passing across her left eye 'like a curtain being drawn'. For the two weeks before this occurring, she had experienced flashing lights and floaters in the periphery of her vision in the eye. The floaters were most prominent to the nasal side of her central vision in the left eye. She has a feeling of 'heaviness in the eye' but no eye pain. She normally wears glasses for myopia, and her visual acuity in the left has been reduced to counting fingers.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cataract

      Correct Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a history consistent with retinal detachment preceded by posterior vitreous detachment.

      Posterior vitreous detachment occurs when the vitreous membrane separates from the retina. There are several risk factors for posterior vitreous detachment, including myopia, recent cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus, increasing age, and eye trauma.

      The main clinical features of posterior vitreous detachment include flashes of light (photopsia), increased numbers of floaters, a ring of floaters to the temporal side of central vision, and a feeling of heaviness in the eye. Another characteristic is Weiss’ ring, which is an irregular ring of translucent floating material in the vitreous.

      It is important to note that there is a small associated risk of retinal detachment in the 6-12 weeks following a posterior vitreous detachment. Retinal detachment can be distinguished from posterior vitreous detachment by the presence of a dense shadow in the periphery that spreads centrally, a curtain drawing across the eye, straight lines suddenly appearing curved (positive Amsler grid test), and central visual loss with decreased visual acuity.

      Given the patient’s presentation, an urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary. In most cases of retinal detachment, surgical repair will be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca...

    Incorrect

    • Your Pediatric Department has implemented a protocol for conducting landmark guided fascia iliaca compartment blocks (FICB) for pediatric patients with a fractured femoral neck.
      Which of the following nerves is consistently blocked by a FICB?

      Your Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Correct Answer: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The fascia iliaca compartment is a space within the body that has specific boundaries. It is located at the front of the hip and is surrounded by various muscles and structures. The anterior limit of this compartment is formed by the posterior surface of the fascia iliaca, which covers the iliacus muscle. Additionally, the medial reflection of this fascia covers every surface of the psoas major muscle. On the posterior side, the limit is formed by the anterior surface of the iliacus muscle and the psoas major muscle. The medial boundary is the vertebral column, while the cranially lateral boundary is the inner lip of the iliac crest. This compartment is also continuous with the space between the quadratus lumborum muscle and its fascia in a cranio-medial direction.

      The fascia iliaca compartment is important because it allows for the deposition of local anesthetic in sufficient volumes. This can be achieved through a straightforward injection, which targets the femoral and lateral femoral cutaneous nerves. These nerves supply sensation to the medial, anterior, and lateral thigh. Occasionally, the obturator nerve is also blocked, although this can vary from person to person.

      To perform a fascia iliaca compartment block (FICB), specific landmarks need to be identified. An imaginary line is drawn between the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic tubercle. This line is then divided into thirds. The injection entry point is marked 1 cm caudal (inferior) from the junction of the lateral and middle third.

      However, there are certain contraindications to performing a FICB. These include patient refusal, anticoagulation or bleeding disorders, allergy to local anesthetics, previous femoral bypass surgery, and infection or inflammation over the injection site.

      As with any medical procedure, there are potential complications associated with a FICB. These can include intravascular injection, local anesthetic toxicity, allergy to the local anesthetic, temporary or permanent nerve damage, infection, and block failure. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risks and take appropriate precautions when performing a FICB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      83.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department due to severe headaches, visual disturbances, and abdominal pain. Shortly after arrival, she experiences a seizure and collapses. Her husband mentions that she has been receiving treatment for hypertension during the pregnancy.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: IV phenytoin

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Eclampsia is the most likely diagnosis in this case. It is characterized by the occurrence of one or more convulsions on top of pre-eclampsia. To control seizures in eclampsia, the recommended treatment is magnesium sulphate. The Collaborative Eclampsia Trial regimen should be followed for administering magnesium sulphate. Initially, a loading dose of 4 g should be given intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. This should be followed by a continuous infusion of 1 g per hour for 24 hours. If the woman experiences another eclamptic seizure, the infusion should be continued for an additional 24 hours after the last seizure. In case of recurrent seizures, a further dose of 2-4 g should be administered intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. It is important to note that the only cure for eclampsia is the delivery of the fetus and placenta. Once the patient is stabilized, she should be prepared for an emergency caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 4 year old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old female is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that the patient started vomiting yesterday and has had multiple episodes of diarrhea since then. The patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The parents mention that there has been no recent travel and that the patient's immunizations are up to date. On examination, the patient has dry lips and buccal mucosa. The abdomen is soft, but the child becomes irritable when the abdomen is palpated. The peripheries are warm with a capillary refill time of 2.5 seconds. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Pulse: 146 bpm
      Respiration rate: 32 bpm
      Temperature: 37.9ºC

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Viral gastroenteritis

      Explanation:

      Based on the given information, the most likely diagnosis for the 4-year-old female patient is viral gastroenteritis. This is supported by the symptoms of vomiting and diarrhea, as well as the fact that the patient has been drinking less than usual and has vomited after being given a drink. The absence of recent travel and up-to-date immunizations also suggest that this is a viral rather than a bacterial infection.

      Further Reading:

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.

      Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children.

      When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.

      In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.

      Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.

      Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      80.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department after experiencing episodes...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department after experiencing episodes of vomiting blood. The patient reports feeling nauseated on and off for several days prior to the vomiting, but became concerned when she noticed that the vomit consisted mostly of bright red blood. She has no regular medication and denies any significant medical history. The patient states that she consumes approximately 12 units of alcohol per week and quit smoking 10 years ago.

      What is the most probable underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcer disease is a leading cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Further Reading:

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for a high mortality rate, in the range of 5-10% for non-variceal and 20% for variceal UGIB, respectively.

      The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.

      Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.

      Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.

      Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.

      For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      301.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 32 year old individual presents to the emergency department with swollen and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old individual presents to the emergency department with swollen and numb fingertips after spending the night outdoors in freezing temperatures due to excessive alcohol consumption during a New Year's celebration. You suspect that the patient is experiencing second degree frostbite. What is the most accurate description of second degree frostbite?

      Your Answer: Full thickness skin necrosis involving superficial muscles

      Correct Answer: Skin necrosis affecting the epidermis and a variable depth of the dermis

      Explanation:

      Second degree frostbite is characterized by tissue necrosis that affects both the epidermis and a variable depth of the dermis. However, there is still some healthy dermis present, which allows for regeneration and recovery of the skin. This type of frostbite is often referred to as partial thickness. Clinically, it is observed as the formation of blisters filled with clear or milky fluid on the surface of the skin, accompanied by redness and swelling.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman was involved in a car accident where her car collided with a tree at a high speed. She was not wearing a seatbelt and was thrown forward onto the steering wheel of her car. She has bruising over her anterior chest wall and is experiencing chest pain. A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest reveals a traumatic aortic injury.

      Where is her injury most likely to have occurred anatomically?

      Your Answer: Aortic orifice

      Correct Answer: Proximal descending aorta

      Explanation:

      Traumatic aortic rupture, also known as traumatic aortic disruption or transection, occurs when the aorta is torn or ruptured due to physical trauma. This condition often leads to sudden death because of severe bleeding. Motor vehicle accidents and falls from great heights are the most common causes of this injury.

      The patients with the highest chances of survival are those who have an incomplete tear near the ligamentum arteriosum of the proximal descending aorta, close to where the left subclavian artery branches off. The presence of an intact adventitial layer or contained mediastinal hematoma helps maintain continuity and prevents immediate bleeding and death. If promptly identified and treated, survivors of these injuries can recover. In cases where traumatic aortic rupture leads to sudden death, approximately 50% of patients have damage at the aortic isthmus, while around 15% have damage in either the ascending aorta or the aortic arch.

      Initial chest X-rays may show signs consistent with a traumatic aortic injury. However, false-positive and false-negative results can occur, and sometimes there may be no abnormalities visible on the X-ray. Some of the possible X-ray findings include a widened mediastinum, hazy left lung field, obliteration of the aortic knob, fractures of the 1st and 2nd ribs, deviation of the trachea to the right, presence of a pleural cap, elevation and rightward shift of the right mainstem bronchus, depression of the left mainstem bronchus, obliteration of the space between the pulmonary artery and aorta, and deviation of the esophagus or NG tube to the right.

      A helical contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest is the preferred initial investigation for suspected blunt aortic injury. It has proven to be highly accurate, with close to 100% sensitivity and specificity. CT scanning should be performed liberally, as chest X-ray findings can be unreliable. However, hemodynamically unstable patients should not be placed in a CT scanner. If the CT results are inconclusive, aortography or trans-oesophageal echo can be performed for further evaluation.

      Immediate surgical intervention is necessary for these injuries. Endovascular repair is the most common method used and has excellent short-term outcomes. Open repair may also be performed depending on the circumstances. It is important to control heart rate and blood pressure during stabilization to reduce the risk of rupture. Pain should be managed with appropriate analgesic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old patient presents with a 48-hour history of right-sided facial weakness accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presents with a 48-hour history of right-sided facial weakness accompanied by pain behind the right ear. On examination, there is noticeable asymmetry in the face, with the patient unable to raise the right eyebrow or lift the right side of the mouth. There is no tenderness or swelling in the mastoid area, and the external auditory canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Evaluation of the remaining cranial nerves shows no abnormalities, and there are no other focal neurological deficits detected. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to neurology for immunoglobulin treatment

      Correct Answer: Prescribe prednisolone 50 mg daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      The main treatment options for Bell’s palsy are oral prednisolone and proper eye care. Referral to a specialist is typically not necessary. It is recommended to start steroid treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset. Currently, NICE does not recommend the use of antiviral medications for Bell’s palsy.

      Further Reading:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle weakness or drooping. The exact cause is unknown, but it is believed to be related to viral infections such as herpes simplex or varicella zoster. It is more common in individuals aged 15-45 years and those with diabetes, obesity, hypertension, or upper respiratory conditions. Pregnancy is also a risk factor.

      Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy is typically based on clinical symptoms and ruling out other possible causes of facial weakness. Symptoms include rapid onset of unilateral facial muscle weakness, drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth, loss of the nasolabial fold, otalgia, difficulty chewing or dry mouth, taste disturbance, eye symptoms such as inability to close the eye completely, dry eye, eye pain, and excessive tearing, numbness or tingling of the cheek and mouth, speech articulation problems, and hyperacusis.

      When assessing a patient with facial weakness, it is important to consider other possible differentials such as stroke, facial nerve tumors, Lyme disease, granulomatous diseases, Ramsay Hunt syndrome, mastoiditis, and chronic otitis media. Red flags for these conditions include insidious and painful onset, duration of symptoms longer than 3 months with frequent relapses, pre-existing risk factors, systemic illness or fever, vestibular or hearing abnormalities, and other cranial nerve involvement.

      Management of Bell’s palsy involves the use of steroids, eye care advice, and reassurance. Steroids, such as prednisolone, are recommended for individuals presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset. Eye care includes the use of lubricating eye drops, eye ointment at night, eye taping if unable to close the eye at night, wearing sunglasses, and avoiding dusty environments. Reassurance is important as the majority of patients make a complete recovery within 3-4 months. However, some individuals may experience sequelae such as facial asymmetry, gustatory lacrimation, inadequate lid closure, brow ptosis, drooling, and hemifacial spasms.

      Antiviral treatments are not currently recommended as a standalone treatment for Bell’s palsy, but they may be given in combination with corticosteroids on specialist advice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary if the patient has eye symptoms such as pain, irritation, or itch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to aid in the care of a 45-year-old male who has suffered a head injury. A fellow healthcare provider informs you that the patient is exhibiting Cushing's triad of symptoms. What is the most accurate description of Cushing's triad?

      Your Answer: Hypotension, bradycardia and papilloedema

      Correct Answer: Widened pulse pressure, bradycardia and bradypnoea

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s triad is a combination of widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and reduced respirations. It is a physiological response of the nervous system to acute increases in intracranial pressure (ICP). This response, known as the Cushing reflex, can cause the symptoms of Cushing’s triad. These symptoms include an increase in systolic blood pressure and a decrease in diastolic blood pressure, a slower heart rate, and irregular or reduced breathing. Additionally, raised ICP can also lead to other symptoms such as headache, papilloedema, and vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old man who has presented with visual problems. He has been taking amiodarone for several years.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding the effects of amiodarone on the eye is true?

      Your Answer: Visual field defects are irreversible on stopping treatment

      Correct Answer: Corneal microdeposits are almost universally present in patients taking amiodarone for longer than six months

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her boyfriend as he is concerned the patient has become drowsy after intermittent vomiting throughout the day. The boyfriend informs you that the patient is a type 1 diabetic. After evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and started on fluids and an insulin infusion. Due to a lack of available beds, the patient is transferred to the A&E observation ward. Several hours later, you are asked about discontinuing the insulin infusion. What criteria must be met before stopping the insulin infusion?

      Your Answer: Venous pH over 7.3 and bicarbonate over 15 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: Ketones less than 0.3 mmol/l and venous pH over 7.3

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to continue the infusion of insulin until certain criteria are met. These criteria include ketone levels being less than 0.3 mmol/L and the pH of the blood being above 7.3 or the bicarbonate levels being above 18 mmol/L. Additionally, the patient should feel comfortable enough to eat at this point. It is crucial not to stop the intravenous insulin infusion until at least 30 minutes after administering subcutaneous short-acting insulin.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly consuming peanuts in a dish at a Thai eatery. She has a history of hypertension, but her blood pressure is effectively managed with a daily dose of atenolol 50 mg and amlodipine 5 mg. You have given her two injections of IM adrenaline, but her condition continues to worsen.
      Which of the following interventions is most likely to quickly improve her condition?

      Your Answer: IV hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: IM glucagon

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on beta-blockers may not respond effectively to adrenaline during anaphylaxis. Research conducted on animals and reported cases have indicated that glucagon can be utilized to counteract the effects of beta-blockade if initial adrenaline doses prove ineffective.

      Although prednisolone and hydrocortisone can be beneficial later on, it typically takes 6-8 hours for them to take full effect. Therefore, they are unlikely to have any impact on the patient during the brief period it will take for the ambulance to arrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      40.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being attacked by a snake while hiking in the mountains. The patient arrives in the emergency department appearing pale and sickly about 15 minutes after the attack and experiences vomiting during the initial assessment. You suspect the presence of systemic envenomation. What is the recommended minimum period of monitoring for individuals with suspected snake bite envenoming?

      Your Answer: 48 hours

      Correct Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been bitten by a venomous snake, such as the adder in the UK, should be admitted to the hospital for a minimum of 24 hours. While most snake bites only cause localized symptoms, there is a small chance of life-threatening reactions to the venom. When patients arrive at the emergency department after a snake bite, they should undergo a quick assessment to determine the severity of the envenoming and receive resuscitation if necessary. If indicated, anti-venom should be administered. Following this, patients should be closely monitored for changes in blood pressure and the progression of envenoming for at least 24 hours.

      Further Reading:

      Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.

      It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with snake bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.

      Initial investigations for snake bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.

      First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.

      Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old patient with type II diabetes mellitus has ingested an excessive amount...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient with type II diabetes mellitus has ingested an excessive amount of gliclazide.
      What are the possible antidotes that can be administered in cases of sulphonylurea poisoning?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Correct Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      There are various specific remedies available for different types of poisons and overdoses. The following list provides an outline of some of these antidotes:

      Poison: Benzodiazepines
      Antidote: Flumazenil

      Poison: Beta-blockers
      Antidotes: Atropine, Glucagon, Insulin

      Poison: Carbon monoxide
      Antidote: Oxygen

      Poison: Cyanide
      Antidotes: Hydroxocobalamin, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphate

      Poison: Ethylene glycol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Heparin
      Antidote: Protamine sulphate

      Poison: Iron salts
      Antidote: Desferrioxamine

      Poison: Isoniazid
      Antidote: Pyridoxine

      Poison: Methanol
      Antidotes: Ethanol, Fomepizole

      Poison: Opioids
      Antidote: Naloxone

      Poison: Organophosphates
      Antidotes: Atropine, Pralidoxime

      Poison: Paracetamol
      Antidotes: Acetylcysteine, Methionine

      Poison: Sulphonylureas
      Antidotes: Glucose, Octreotide

      Poison: Thallium
      Antidote: Prussian blue

      Poison: Warfarin
      Antidote: Vitamin K, Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

      By utilizing these specific antidotes, medical professionals can effectively counteract the harmful effects of various poisons and overdoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      63.5
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  • Question 21 - You are caring for a 68-year-old patient who has been intubated and placed...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a 68-year-old patient who has been intubated and placed on a ventilator and is not expected to recover. Consider the facilitation of organ and tissue donation. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Tissue retrievals can occur up to 7 days after death

      Correct Answer: The emergency department doctor is not involved in gaining consent from the next of kin for tissue donation

      Explanation:

      The emergency department doctor does not play a role in obtaining consent from the next of kin for tissue or organ donation. Instead, it is important to involve the Specialist Nurse in Organ Donation (SNOD) as early as possible. The SNOD can provide valuable support and guidance to both the medical team and the family. They will assess the patient’s suitability for organ donation and approach the next of kin for consent, if appropriate. On the other hand, for tissue donation, a referral should be made to the tissue donation national referral centre. Retrievals can take place within 24 hours after death. In the UK, referrals can be made by phone to the tissue donation national referral centre (the contact number can be found in the notes below). It is important to note that the responsibility of gaining consent from the next of kin does not fall on the emergency department doctor.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      558.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 60 year old comes to the emergency department with worries of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old comes to the emergency department with worries of feeling nauseated and vomiting blood. The patient shows you a tissue paper with mostly coffee ground vomit and a few specks of fresh red blood. The patient mentions experiencing on-and-off abdominal pain for a few weeks. You suspect that the patient is experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed. What is the primary cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding in adults?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding in adults is peptic ulcer disease. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the lining of the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine. These ulcers can be caused by factors such as infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or excessive alcohol consumption. When a peptic ulcer bleeds, it can result in the vomiting of blood, which may appear as coffee ground vomit or have speckles of fresh red blood. Other symptoms that may accompany an upper gastrointestinal bleed include abdominal pain, nausea, and a feeling of fullness.

      Further Reading:

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.

      The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.

      Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.

      The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.

      For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she discovered in her father's bag.

      Which of the following symptoms of ibuprofen overdose is more frequently observed in children compared to adults?

      Your Answer: Tinnitus

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperpyrexia and hypoglycemia are more frequently observed in children than in adults due to salicylate poisoning. Both adults and children may experience common clinical manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, deafness, sweating, dehydration, hyperventilation, and cutaneous flushing. However, it is important to note that xanthopsia is associated with digoxin toxicity, not salicylate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man with a lengthy history of frequent urination at night and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with a lengthy history of frequent urination at night and dribbling at the end of urination comes in with a fever, chills, and muscle soreness. He is experiencing pain in his perineal area and has recently developed painful urination, increased frequency of urination, and a strong urge to urinate. During a rectal examination, his prostate is extremely tender.
      According to NICE, which of the following antibiotics is recommended as the initial treatment for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Ofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Acute bacterial prostatitis is a sudden inflammation of the prostate gland, which can be either focal or diffuse and is characterized by the presence of pus. The most common organisms that cause this condition include Escherichia coli, Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus aureus, and Neisseria gonorrhoea. The infection usually reaches the prostate through direct extension from the posterior urethra or urinary bladder, but it can also spread through the blood or lymphatics. In some cases, the infection may originate from the rectum.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), acute prostatitis should be suspected in men who present with a sudden onset of feverish illness, which may be accompanied by rigors, arthralgia, or myalgia. Irritative urinary symptoms like dysuria, frequency, urgency, or acute urinary retention are also common. Perineal or suprapubic pain, as well as penile pain, low back pain, pain during ejaculation, and pain during bowel movements, can occur. A rectal examination may reveal an exquisitely tender prostate. A urine dipstick test showing white blood cells and a urine culture confirming urinary infection are also indicative of acute prostatitis.

      The current recommendations by NICE and the British National Formulary (BNF) for the treatment of acute prostatitis involve prescribing an oral antibiotic for a duration of 14 days, taking into consideration local antimicrobial resistance data. The first-line antibiotics recommended are Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or Ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily. If these are not suitable, Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily can be used. Second-line options include Levofloxacin 500 mg once daily or Co-trimoxazole 960 mg twice daily, but only when there is bacteriological evidence of sensitivity and valid reasons to prefer this combination over a single antibiotic.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on acute prostatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a known history of lumbar radiculopathy causing neuropathic pain presents with an increase in his symptoms. He describes the pain as a severe burning sensation on the right side of his lower back and leg. You discuss his treatment options.
      Which of the following pharmacological therapies is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the management of neuropathic pain? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      The first line of treatment for neuropathic pain includes options such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. The dosage should be adjusted based on how the individual responds to the medication and their ability to tolerate it. If the initial treatment does not provide relief or is not well tolerated, one of the remaining three medications can be considered as an alternative option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A middle-aged individual comes in with hearing loss on one side, ringing in...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged individual comes in with hearing loss on one side, ringing in the ears, dizziness, and numbness in the face. An MRI scan shows the presence of an acoustic neuroma.
      Which of the following nerves is the LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve

      Explanation:

      An acoustic neuroma, also referred to as a vestibular schwannoma, is a slow-growing tumor that develops from the Schwann cells of the vestibulocochlear nerve (8th cranial nerve). These growths are typically found at the cerebellopontine angle or within the internal auditory canal.

      The most commonly affected nerves are the vestibulocochlear and trigeminal nerves. Patients typically present with a gradual deterioration of hearing in one ear, along with numbness and tingling in the face, ringing in the ears, and episodes of dizziness. Additionally, some patients may have a history of headaches. In rare cases, the facial nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, vagus nerve, or accessory nerve may also be affected.

      It is important to note that the trochlear nerve, which passes through the superior orbital fissure, is not impacted by an acoustic neuroma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - You evaluate a 40-year-old man with a sudden onset entrapment neuropathy involving the...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 40-year-old man with a sudden onset entrapment neuropathy involving the ulnar nerve in his left arm.
      Which of the following hand muscles is MOST likely to be impacted in this individual?

      Your Answer: Extensor digitorum

      Correct Answer: Medial two lumbricals

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve provides innervation to several muscles in the hand. These include the palmar interossei, dorsal interossei, medial two lumbricals, and abductor digiti minimi. On the other hand, the median nerve innervates the opponens pollicis, lateral two lumbricals, and flexor pollicis brevis. Lastly, the radial nerve is responsible for innervating the extensor digitorum muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an acute myocardial infarction and she is immediately taken to the cath lab. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Lateral

      Correct Answer: Right ventricle

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After being evaluated...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a severe skin rash. After being evaluated by the dermatology consultant on call, she is diagnosed with Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about Stevens-Johnson syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer: It is always caused by a drug reaction

      Correct Answer: Epidermal detachment is seen in less than 10% of the body surface area

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe and potentially deadly form of erythema multiforme. It can be triggered by anything that causes erythema multiforme, but it is most commonly seen as a reaction to medication within 1-3 weeks of starting treatment. Initially, there may be symptoms like fever, fatigue, joint pain, and digestive issues, followed by the development of severe mucocutaneous lesions that are blistering and ulcerating.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are considered to be different stages of the same mucocutaneous disease, with toxic epidermal necrolysis being more severe. The extent of epidermal detachment is used to differentiate between the two. In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, less than 10% of the body surface area is affected by epidermal detachment, while in toxic epidermal necrolysis, it is greater than 30%. An overlap syndrome occurs when detachment affects between 10-30% of the body surface area.

      Several drugs can potentially cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, including tetracyclines, penicillins, vancomycin, sulphonamides, NSAIDs, and barbiturates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination. A urine dipstick test shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on these findings, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection and prescribe antibiotics. Her recent blood tests indicate that her estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is greater than 60 ml/minute.
      Which antibiotic would be the most suitable to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      NICE provides the following recommendations for the treatment of non-pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs):

      1. Consider prescribing a back-up antibiotic or an immediate antibiotic for women with lower UTIs, taking into account the severity of symptoms, the risk of complications, previous urine culture results, previous antibiotic use, and the woman’s preferences.

      2. If a urine sample has been sent for culture and susceptibility testing and an antibiotic prescription has been given, review the choice of antibiotic when the microbiological results are available. Change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if bacteria are resistant and symptoms are not improving.

      3. The first-choice antibiotics for non-pregnant women aged 16 years and over are nitrofurantoin (100 mg modified-release tablets taken twice daily for 3 days) or trimethoprim (200 mg tablets taken twice daily for 3 days), if there is a low risk of resistance.

      4. If there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms after at least 48 hours on the first-choice antibiotic or if the first-choice antibiotic is not suitable, the second-choice options are nitrofurantoin (100 mg modified-release tablets taken twice daily for 3 days), pivmecillinam (400 mg initial dose followed by 200 mg three times daily for 3 days), or fosfomycin (3 g single sachet dose).

      5. The risk of resistance to antibiotics may be lower if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, previous urine culture suggests susceptibility, and in younger people in areas with low resistance rates. The risk of resistance may be higher with recent antibiotic use and in older people in residential facilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (2/2) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Surgical Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Pain & Sedation (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose & Throat (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (0/4) 0%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (0/1) 0%
Urology (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
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