00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks,...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old boy presents with a purpuric rash on his legs and buttocks, and coffee ground emesis. The joints of his body are also painful. Blood testing reveals mild eosinophilia and a small rise in IgA levels. Urine testing reveals microscopic haematuria. Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as IgA vasculitis, is a disease of the skin, mucous membranes, and sometimes other organs that most commonly affects children. In the skin, the disease causes palpable purpura (small, raised areas of bleeding underneath the skin), often with joint pain and abdominal pain. It is an acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)–mediated disorder. The tetrad of purpura, arthritis, kidney inflammation, and abdominal pain is often observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present...

    Correct

    • A neonate was brought in by her mother, for a skin lesion present over the neonate's back which is bluish in colour, but otherwise asymptomatic. The most appropriate course of action will be?

      Your Answer: Reassure

      Explanation:

      A Mongolian spot can be present in new born babies which usually appears over the back and fades with time. There is nothing to worry about.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old girl presents with a day's history of urticarial rash.While addressing the...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with a day's history of urticarial rash.While addressing the parents' query on the cause of the rash, what would be the most appropriate statement?

      Your Answer: Individual lesions tend to last for > 24 hours and then resolve

      Correct Answer: The rash may be due to a viral infection

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of acute urticaria is a viral infection. Individual lesions typically are short-lived and last less than 24 hours. Urticaria can be due to or can be made worse by cold temperatures. One of the other causes of urticaria is salicylic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      115.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old female suffering from acne vulgaris has been started on isotretinoin. Regarding this treatment, which of the following statements is the most applicable?

      Your Answer: It can cause hirsutism

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during and 1 month after treatment

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that a woman wait one month after stopping isotretinoin before trying to become pregnant. Usually, isotretinoin is no longer found in a woman’s blood 4-5 days after the last dose and most of its by-products should be gone within 10 days after the last dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions result in a rash involving the palms and soles of the extremities?

      Your Answer: Tinea corporis

      Explanation:

      Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body. It produces an itchy rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Diagnosis can be made by skin examination. All other mentioned conditions do not affect the palms and soles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the hospital following a seizure episode. On examination, hypopigmented macules were found on her abdomen with acne-like eruptions on her face. Also, her fingers show small periungual fibrous papules. Her parents said that she has learning disabilities. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osler’s disease

      Correct Answer: Tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville’s disease)

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient, according to the clinical scenario provided is tuberous sclerosis. It is an autosomal-dominant disorder characterised by hamartomas located throughout the body, often prominently involving the central nervous system and skin. Two loci on chromosomes 9 and 16 have been identified to be associated with this condition. The condition has a variable expression and penetrance and is further characterised by:- Seizures (usually infantile spasms)- Developmental delay- Facial/cutaneous angiofibromas (adenoma sebaceum)- Periungual fibromas (pink projections from the nail folds)- Shagreen patches (leathery thickenings of the skin usually on the back) – Ash leaf macules (areas of depigmentation that become visible under a Wood’s light)- Fundoscopy may reveal white streaks along the fundal vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      158.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old girl was brought to the clinic with complaints of a rash...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl was brought to the clinic with complaints of a rash around her left wrist. Her mother recalls that the rash started to appear after the child started wearing a new bracelet for the past one week. What is this type of hypersensitivity reaction?

      Your Answer: Type 4

      Explanation:

      According to the Gell and Coombs classification of hypersensitivity reactions, the scenario provided is a type 4 (delayed) reaction.These reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and cause contact dermatitis. Nickel, commonly found in cheap jewellery, is a common cause of contact dermatitis.Note:There are two main types of contact dermatitis:- Irritant contact dermatitis: It is a common, non-allergic reaction due to weak acids or alkalis (e.g. detergents). These are often seen on the hands. They present typically with erythema, and rarely, crusting and vesicles.- Allergic contact dermatitis: These are type IV hypersensitivity reactions and are often seen on the head following hair dyes.They typically present as acute weeping eczema which predominately affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Treatment is usually with a potent topical steroid.Other options:- Allergic rhinitis is an example of a type 1 (immediate) reaction. It is an IgE mediated. It is a hypersensitivity to a previously innocuous substance.- Type 2 reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM, which binds to a cell, causing cell death. Goodpasture syndrome is an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction.- Immune complexes mediate type 3 reactions. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following disorders are NOT associated with hypertrichosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, psoriasis is not associated with hypertrichosis.The causes of hypertrichosis include:- Drugs: minoxidil, ciclosporin, and diazoxide.- Congenital hypertrichosis lanuginosa and congenital hypertrichosis terminalis.- Porphyria cutanea tarda- Anorexia nervosa

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Erythema nodosum is NOT caused by which one of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Erythema nodosum is NOT caused by which one of the following?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum is the most common type of inflammation of the subcutaneous fat tissue, referred to as panniculitis. Erythema nodosum appears as painful, erythematous round lumps, usually symmetrically on the anterior aspect of lower extremities. These lesions are self-limiting and tend to resolve within 2-8 weeks without undergoing necrosis. There are various causes of erythema nodosum, but the most important among children is the streptococcal throat infection. Other causes include autoimmune conditions like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, mycobacterial infection (TB), and drugs like penicillin and sulphonamides. Coeliac disease is not linked with the formation of erythema nodosum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy, who has a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, presents with signs and symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Liver function tests reveal raised unconjugated bilirubin levels. Subsequent genetic testing led to a diagnosis of Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason for the unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is an autosomal recessive condition that results from defective bilirubin conjugation due to a deficiency of UDP glucuronyl transferase – 1. The prevalence is approximately 1-2% in the general population.The clinical presentation of Gilbert’s syndrome include:- Unconjugated hyperbilinaemia- Jaundice can occur during an intercurrent illnessManagement:Blood investigations usually reveal a rise in bilirubin following prolonged fasting or intravenous nicotinic acid.No treatment required for these patients.Other options:- CYP2C9 deficiency causes reduced warfarin metabolism, and subsequent enhanced drug effects. – Pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption and certain drugs are common causes of raised GGT levels- Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin is related to the pathophysiology of Dubin-Johnson syndrome- Reduced CYP2C19 levels can lead to the disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs such as proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants and sedatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      80.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with a rash on his buttocks and extensor surfaces following a sore throat. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) rashes are commonly found on the legs, feet, and buttocks while Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) rashes manifest predominantly on the lower legs. HSP happens following a sore throat while ITP usually happens following an URTI or Flu. HSP is an inflammation of a blood vessel (vasculitis) while ITP is immune mediated insufficiency of platelets.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-month-old baby is referred with a recurrent itchy eruption affecting his trunk and soles. Examination shows diffuse eczema on the trunk and pink-red papules on both soles.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies infection in neonates typically manifests as nodular eruptions involving the face, neck, scalp, palms, and soles in contrast to the predominant involvement of the hands, wrists, elbows, and ankles in adults. Differential diagnoses for the nodular eruption in neonates are broad, and scabies often is misdiagnosed as Langerhans cell histiocytosis, urticaria pigmentosa, or another pruritic, bullous, or lymphoproliferative dermatosis. Histopathology of the reactive nodules usually is not diagnostic, because scabetic organisms are often unidentified and histologic findings are nonspecific. Furthermore, because of the atypical presentation, scabies in children is often missed until persons in close contact with the child present with similar symptoms. Thus, a thorough history and close follow-up are crucial to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary aggressive treatment. Moreover, synchronized treatment of patients and their close contacts is needed to ensure the success of therapy, considering that relapse is 2-3 times more frequent in children and infants

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the prevalence of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15-20%

      Explanation:

      Atopic dermatitis (AD), also called atopic eczema, is a common chronic or recurrent inflammatory skin disease and affects 15-20% of children and 1-3% of adults worldwide. It is characterized by acute flare-ups of eczematous pruritic lesions over dry skin.The incidence has increased by 2- to 3-fold during the past decades in industrialized countries.Some of the most valuable AD prevalence and trend data have come from the International Study of Asthma and Allergies in Childhood (ISAAC). This is the biggest (close to 2 million children in 100 countries) and only allergy study that has taken a truly global approach. The strength of the study is the use of a uniformly validated methodology allowing a direct comparison of results between paediatric populations all over the world (http://isaac.auckland.ac.nz/index.html).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 17-month-old boy is brought by his mother to the hospital. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-month-old boy is brought by his mother to the hospital. She is concerned that he is having symptoms of itching, being very upset and unsettled. They hail from a low socioeconomic background and have poor living conditions. On examination, an itchy, papular rash is noted on the palms of his hands specifically in the web spaces between the fingers, as well as in the groin region. He was normothermic. The mother explains that his sister also has similar symptoms.What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcoptes scabiei

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is Sarcoptes scabeii.Scabies:The boy in the scenario presents with a pruritic rash affecting the palms of the hands, especially in the web spaces between the fingers. Additionally, the fact that his sister is showing similar symptoms is an indication of its infectivity. The female Sarcoptes scabiei var hominis mite burrows into the webs of fingers and the sides of digits as seen in the child.This parasitic skin infestation presents typically with nocturnal itching. Other options:- Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This can affect this age group but would usually present with a vesicular perioral rash with associated erythema. – Human papillomavirus (HPV): Cutaneous human papillomavirus infection causes warts, which can form a dome and fleshy shaped lesions on the palms of the hands, but these are not usually itchy. Similar to the causative agent in the boy, they are contagious.- Poxvirus: These viruses cause molluscum contagiosum which presents as dome-shaped lesions anywhere on the body, rather than specifically in palms of hands or finger webs as seen in the boy. Poxviruses are also very infectious.- Staphylococcal infection: This causes impetigo, which presents with yellow discharge and underlying erythema. Impetigo is not usually itchy and can present on any part of the body, rather than the specific areas seen in the boy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old baby appears to have experienced a fit. The parents noticed jerking of one arm followed by generalised shaking. A flat erythematous lesion under the right lower eyelid, which has not changed in size or appearance, has been present since birth.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sturge–Weber syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sturge-Weber syndrome (SWS), also called encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis, is a neurocutaneous disorder with angiomas that involve the leptomeninges (leptomeningeal angiomas [LAs]) and the skin of the face, typically in the ophthalmic (V1) and maxillary (V2) distributions of the trigeminal nerve. The hallmark of SWS is a facial cutaneous venous dilation, also referred to as a nevus flammeus or port-wine stain (PWS).Signs and symptoms:SWS is generally diagnosed clinically, based on the typical cutaneous, central nervous system (CNS), and ocular abnormalities associated with it.Neurological signs include the following:Developmental delay/intellectual disabilityLearning problemsAttention deficit-hyperactivity disorderInitial focal seizures progressing to frequent, secondarily generalized seizuresIncreasing seizure frequency and duration despite the use of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)Increasing duration of a transient postictal deficitIncrease in focal or diffuse atrophy – Determined by serial neuroimagingProgressive increase in calcificationsDevelopment of hemiparesisDeterioration in cognitive functioningPhysical signs of SWS are as follows:Port-wine stainMacrocephalyOcular manifestationsSoft-tissue hypertrophyHemiparesisVisual lossHemianopsiaOcular involvement in SWS may include the following signs:BuphthalmosGlaucomaTomato-catsup colour of the fundus (ipsilateral to the nevus flammeus) with glaucomaConjunctival and episcleral haemangiomasDiffuse choroidal haemangiomasHeterochromia of the iridesTortuous retinal vessels with occasional arteriovenous communications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true of scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of scabies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mite lives in the stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      Scabies is a dermatological condition caused by infestation of the Sarcoptes Scaibie. The tiny mite, often unseen by the naked human eye, is able to burrow into the stratum corneum where it lays its eggs, causing irritation and a rash related to the immune response against the mite and its eggs, saliva and faeces. On examination, the pathognomic small burrows are often seen on the skin along with small red papules and scratch marks| granulomatous nodules may also be seen especially in darker skin types. Other clinical subtypes such as bullous, and Norwegian (crusted) also exist. Common areas of infection include the hands, wrists, and the interdigital spaces. Infestation can also occur on the genital area, the buttocks, feet, ankles, flexor surfaces. First line treatment is with permethrin 5% dermal cream. It is important that all members of the household are also treated at the same time, and that contaminated bedding, clothes and furniture is adequately disinfected. Scabies is usually associated with overcrowded conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following does not cause a scaly scalp?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cutaneous lupus erythematous

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis amiantacea: This condition is characterized by thick, asbestos-like scales on the scalp and is often associated with psoriasis or seborrheic dermatitis.

      Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis: Also known as cradle cap, this condition causes greasy, yellowish scales on the scalp.

      Tinea capitis: A fungal infection of the scalp that leads to scaling, hair loss, and sometimes redness and swelling.

      Cutaneous lupus erythematosus: While lupus can cause skin lesions, it is less commonly associated with a scaly scalp compared to the other conditions listed. It can cause hair loss and erythema, but significant scaling is not a primary feature.

      Scalp psoriasis: This condition is well-known for causing thick, silvery scales on the scalp

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scarlet fever

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is a childhood infectious disease caused by group A Streptococcus. It produces a papular rash, which is classically described as a sand-paper rash. The rash initially appears on the trunk, groin, and underarms and then spreads to extremities, usually sparing the palms and soles. Circumoral area is also spared, giving it pallor-like appearance. Diseases like erythema multiforme, contact dermatitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, and rubella produce a rash that classically affects the palms and soles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a painless swelling on the superotemporal aspect of his orbit. It was smooth on examination and produced no visual disturbances. Following excision, it was found to be lined by squamous epithelium and hair follicles.Which lesion is most probably associated with these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermoid cyst

      Explanation:

      The most probable lesion in the patient is a dermoid cyst.Rationale:Dermoid cysts are embryological remnants and may be lined by hair and squamous epithelium (like teratomas). They are often located in the midline and may be linked to deeper structures resulting in a dumbbell shape to the lesion. Complete excision is required as they have a propensity to local recurrence if not excised.Note:Desmoid tumours are a different entity entirely. These lesions most commonly develop in ligaments and tendons. They are also referred to as aggressive fibromatosis and consist of dense fibroblastic lesions (resembling scar tissue). They should be managed in a similar manner to soft tissue sarcomas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - All of the following are features of tinea corporis EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are features of tinea corporis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is less common on glabrous skin

      Explanation:

      Tinea corporis is a type of dermatophytosis, caused by Trichophyton or Microsporum. The disease is highly contagious and rapidly spreads to all the areas of the body, including the glabrous skin. It produces an erythematous itchy skin rash with a central area of clearance surrounded by raised scaly borders. Lesions can appear as concentric circles that overlap, referred to as tinea imbricate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A boy with atopic eczema presents with a flare up. In which of...

    Incorrect

    • A boy with atopic eczema presents with a flare up. In which of the following situations would you suspect herpes simplex virus versus a bacterial infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesions were present at different stages

      Explanation:

      Lesions caused by herpes simplex virus may appear in various clinical stages. They are usually the result of an HSV-1 infection and they may appear on the face and neck. They start as fluid-filled blisters which eventually erupt into small painful ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is true of miliaria? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of miliaria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Miliaria crystalline causes tiny, fragile clear vesicles

      Explanation:

      Miliaria is a common skin disease caused by blockage and/or inflammation of eccrine sweat ducts. Miliaria is frequently seen in hot, humid or tropical climates, in patients in the hospital, and in the neonatal period. Miliaria is also known as sweat rash.Based on the level of the sweat duct obstruction, miliaria is divided into three subtypes:- Miliaria crystallina (sudamina), caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts close to the surface of the skin (epidermis)|- Miliaria rubra, caused by obstruction of the sweat ducts deeper in the epidermis|- Miliaria profunda (tropical anhidrosis), the result of sweat leaking into the middle layer of skin (dermis).Miliaria crystallina appears as 1–2 mm superficial clear blisters that easily break. The blisters can look like beads of sweat. There is no inflammation. The blisters are usually seen widely spread on the head, neck, and upper trunk.Miliaria rubra is the most common type of miliaria results in red, 2–4 mm, non-follicular papules and papulovesicles. They are very itchy. Background erythema is often present. In children, miliaria affects the skin folds of the neck, axilla or groin. In adults, miliaria often affects the upper trunk, scalp, neck and flexures, particularly areas of friction with clothing. Miliaria pustulosa is a variant of milia rubra in which there are pustules.Miliaria profunda describes asymptomatic deep papules. The flesh–coloured, 1–3 mm diameter papules usually arise on the trunk and extremities.Mild Topical steroids can be used as a treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 1-week-old baby presents with a large blue bruise-like mark on his back. His mother noticed the mark that same morning and she is concerned about its severity. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mongolian spot

      Explanation:

      Mongolian spots, otherwise called congenital dermal melanocytosis, are pigmented birthmarks. They are usually located on the buttocks or back and although they’re usually present at birth, they may appear soon after. They are flat and have a blue-grey colour (bruise-like). They are benign and present no health risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment: ...

    Incorrect

    • In Psoriasis, the following is true with regards to topical treatment:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical corticosteroid associated side effects include striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising

      Explanation:

      Topical treatments are useful in the treatment of mild Psoriasis, or as adjuvant therapy in ultraviolet and systematic treatments. These treatments include moisturisers, dithranol, coal tar, salicylic acid, topical immunomodulators such as calcineurin, topical retinoids, Vitamin D analogues and topical steroids. Topical steroids are known to have a number of side effects such as striae, atrophy of the skin, telangiectasia, acneiform rash, and easy bruising. Localised pustular psoriasis is also associated with topical steroids in higher doses. Use of more than 500 g of hydrocortisone or 50 g clobetasol propionate have been shown to suppress adrenal function. Calcitriol, a vitamin D analogue, is only available as an ointment and does not stain clothes and skin the way dithranol and coal tar are known to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are most commonly associated with pruritus:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Itchy skin conditions include:Allergy & anaphylaxisAthletes footAtopic dermatitisContact dermatitisDrug allergyErythema multiformeFolliculitisImpetigoInsect bites, stings, infestationsKawasaki diseaseLichen planusNummular eczemaPityriasis roseaPsoriasisScabiesTinea corporisToxic epidermal necrolysisUrticariaVaricellaViral exanthemNote: Miliaria rubra is itchy, miliaria profunda usually isn’t.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is true regarding the histopathology of psoriasis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Histological features seen in psoriasis include acanthosis and parakeratosis

      Explanation:

      Histology of psoriasis is characterised by parakeratosis (cell nuclei within stratum corneum) and thickened projections of the prickle cell layer of keratinocytes (psoriasiform hyperplasia or acanthosis). Orthokeratosis refers to the formation of a pathological anuclear keratin layer in the skin.The stratum granulosum is actually thinned or absent in patients with psoriasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Hypopigmentation is a clinical feature of all of the given conditions EXCEPT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hypopigmentation is a clinical feature of all of the given conditions EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Hypopigmentation refers to a decrease in the amount of the pigment melanin in the skin, which leads to an abnormally lighter skin tone. Hypopigmentation can be generalized or localized. Generalized hypopigmentation occurs in albinism or can be ethnicity related. Causes of localized hypopigmentation include Incontinentia pigmenti, Lichen planus, Tuberous sclerosis, Piebaldism, vitiligo, and leprosy. Celiac disease is not associated with hypopigmentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions are associated with erythema migrans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lyme disease

      Explanation:

      Erythema Migrans is associated with Lyme disease, a tic transmitted infection caused by the spirochete Borrelia Burgdorferi. The rash usually appears at the bite site after 7 to 10 days. It is flat or slightly raised and migrates as the name suggests. Streptococcal throat infection and Crohn’s disease are both associated with erythema nodosum.Herpes simplex and Rheumatic fever may present with Erythema Multiforme and Erythema Marginatum respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (6/10) 60%
Passmed