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Question 1
Correct
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What is the accurate information about neurasthenia?
Your Answer: It is still retained as a category in ICD-10 classification
Explanation:In 1869, George Miller Beard introduced the term ‘neurasthenia’ in an article published in the Boston Medical and Surgical Journal. He described anxiety as a key symptom of this condition, which he defined as a lack of nerve force. However, later interpretations of neurasthenia focused more on a state of fatigue and irritability rather than anxiety. While some classification systems have omitted neurasthenia, it remains a commonly used diagnosis in many countries and is still included as a category in ICD-10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Descriptive Psychopathology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Researchers have conducted a study comparing a new blood pressure medication with a standard blood pressure medication. 200 patients are divided equally between the two groups. Over the course of one year, 20 patients in the treatment group experienced a significant reduction in blood pressure, compared to 35 patients in the control group.
What is the number needed to treat (NNT)?Your Answer: 3
Correct Answer: 7
Explanation:The Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the experimental event rate (EER) from the control event rate (CER), dividing the result by the CER, and then multiplying by 100 to get a percentage. In this case, the RRR is (35-20)÷35 = 0.4285 of 42.85%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What factor would increase the likelihood of serotonin syndrome in an individual who is taking an SSRI medication?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 4
Correct
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Which cranial nerve reflex is most likely to be impacted by a vagus nerve lesion?
Your Answer: Gag
Explanation:Cranial Nerve Reflexes
When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:
– Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
– Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
– Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
– Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
– Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the meaning of the P in the PICO model used for creating a research question?
Your Answer: Population
Explanation:Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is the half-life of fluoxetine in the body?
Your Answer: 26 hours
Correct Answer: 4-6 days
Explanation:Fluoxetine has the longest half life among the commonly used SSRIs, lasting four to six days. Its active metabolite, norfluoxetine, remains active for four to 16 days. This information is important when discontinuing of switching SSRIs.
For instance, if a patient is discontinuing an SSRI with a shorter half life, such as paroxetine, they may experience SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, they can switch to fluoxetine before tapering off the antidepressant.
When cross-titrating from fluoxetine to another antidepressant, the longer half life means that the drug needs to be withdrawn and a longer period allowed for levels in the body to decrease. The recommended time to start a new antidepressant after withdrawing fluoxetine varies depending on the drug, such as waiting five to six weeks before starting an MAOI.
The incorrect answers are:
– Paroxetine has an elimination half life of 24 hours
– Sertraline has an elimination half life of 26 hours
– Escitalopram has an elimination half life of 30 hours
– Citalopram has an elimination half life of 33 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signals in the brain?
Your Answer: Glutamate
Explanation:Glutamate is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for excitatory signaling in the brain.
Glutamate: The Most Abundant Neurotransmitter in the Brain
Glutamate is a neurotransmitter that is found in abundance in the brain. It is always excitatory and can act through both ionotropic and metabotropic receptors. This neurotransmitter is believed to play a crucial role in learning and memory processes. Its ability to stimulate neurons and enhance synaptic plasticity is thought to be responsible for its role in memory formation. Glutamate is also involved in various other brain functions, including motor control, sensory perception, and emotional regulation. Its importance in the brain makes it a target for various neurological disorders, including Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease, and epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the target of disulfiram that results in its unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed?
Your Answer: Alcohol dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Explanation:Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase is irreversibly bound by disulfiram.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Where do the spinothalamic axons decussate?
Your Answer: Midbrain
Correct Answer: Spinal cord
Explanation:The second order neurons from the spinothalamic tract cross obliquely to the opposite side in the anterior grey and white commissure within one segment of the spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the most probable cause of medial temporal lobe atrophy on structural neuroimaging in an elderly individual with cognitive decline?
Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's dementia
Explanation:Medial temporal lobe atrophy (MTA) is prevalent in 80% to 90% of individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer’s dementia, and can also be present in other forms of dementia, albeit less frequently and severely. MTA is an early and relatively reliable indicator of Alzheimer’s disease, although it is not exclusive to this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which condition is linked to tardive dyskinesia?
Your Answer: Spastic dysarthria
Correct Answer: Hyperkinetic dysarthria
Explanation:Dysarthria is a speech disorder that affects the volume, rate, tone, of quality of spoken language. There are different types of dysarthria, each with its own set of features, associated conditions, and localisation. The types of dysarthria include spastic, flaccid, hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic.
Spastic dysarthria is characterised by explosive and forceful speech at a slow rate and is associated with conditions such as pseudobulbar palsy and spastic hemiplegia.
Flaccid dysarthria, on the other hand, is characterised by a breathy, nasal voice and imprecise consonants and is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis.
Hypokinetic dysarthria is characterised by slow, quiet speech with a tremor and is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease.
Hyperkinetic dysarthria is characterised by a variable rate, inappropriate stoppages, and a strained quality and is associated with conditions such as Huntington’s disease, Sydenham’s chorea, and tardive dyskinesia.
Finally, ataxic dysarthria is characterised by rapid, monopitched, and slurred speech and is associated with conditions such as Friedreich’s ataxia and alcohol abuse. The localisation of each type of dysarthria varies, with spastic and flaccid dysarthria affecting the upper and lower motor neurons, respectively, and hypokinetic, hyperkinetic, and ataxic dysarthria affecting the extrapyramidal and cerebellar regions of the brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 12
Correct
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On which chromosome is the APOE allele situated?
Your Answer: 19
Explanation:Gene Chromosome
APP 21
PSEN-1 14
PSEN-2 1
APOE 19Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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In which sensory modality does formication occur?
Your Answer: Olfactory
Correct Answer: Tactile
Explanation:The feeling of insects crawling on the skin, also known as tactile hallucination, is referred to as formication. This symptom has been extensively studied and can be caused by various factors.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Correct
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What does each codon code for?
Your Answer: Amino acid
Explanation:Codons and Amino Acids
Codons are made up of three bases and each codon codes for an amino acid. There are 64 different triplet sequences, with three of them indicating the end of the polypeptide chain. The start codon always has the code AUG in mRNA and codes for the amino acid methionine. This leaves 61 codons that code for a total of 20 different amino acids. As a result, most of the amino acids are represented by more than one codon. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which can form short polymer chains called peptides of longer chains called polypeptides of proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Correct
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What diagnostic tool is utilized to determine the underlying reason for ataxia?
Your Answer: Romberg's test
Explanation:A positive Romberg test suggests the presence of sensory ataxia.
Romberg’s Test for Investigating Ataxia
Romberg’s test is a diagnostic tool used to determine the cause of ataxia. A positive result indicates that the cause is sensory in nature. The test involves asking the patient to stand upright with their feet together and eyes closed. If the patient begins to sway of fall over, the test is considered positive. In cases where there is a cerebellar problem, the patient will exhibit ataxia even when their eyes are open. Romberg’s test is an important tool in diagnosing ataxia and determining the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is an example of an optical illusion that creates the perception of motion?
Your Answer: Müller-Lyer illusion
Correct Answer: Phi phenomenon
Explanation:The Hering illusion is an optical illusion where straight and parallel lines appear to be curved of bowed outwards when presented in front of a radial background, such as the spokes of a bicycle wheel.
Gestalt Psychology and the Laws of Perceptual Organization
Gestalt psychology emerged as a response to structuralism, which aimed to break down thoughts into their basic components. Instead, Gestalt psychologists recognized that individual items must be examined together, as they interact and add complexity to the overall picture. Max Wertheimer, Kurt Koffka, and Wolfgang Köhler are important names associated with Gestalt psychology. Wertheimer discovered the phi phenomenon, which explains how rapid sequences of perceptual events create the illusion of motion. The Gestalt laws of perceptual organization explain how we tend to organize parts into wholes. These laws include symmetry and order, similarity, proximity, continuity, closure, and common fate. These laws help us understand how the mind groups similar elements into collective entities of totalities, and how spatial or temporal grouping of elements may induce the mind to perceive a collective of totality. Additionally, the laws explain how points that are connected by straight of curving lines are seen in a way that follows the smoothest path, and how things are grouped together if they seem to complete a picture. Finally, elements with the same moving direction are perceived as a collective of unit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Social Psychology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 40 year old female is admitted to the ward with a diagnosis of depression. On admission the doctor notes skin changes consistent with erythema nodosum and also notes that the patient complains of being short of breath. Unfortunately the lady commits suicide shortly after admission. A post-mortem biopsy reveals Asteroid bodies. Which of the following diagnosis would you most suspect?:
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Pathology Findings in Psychiatry
There are several pathology findings that are associated with various psychiatric conditions. Papp-Lantos bodies, for example, are visible in the CNS and are associated with multisystem atrophy. Pick bodies, on the other hand, are large, dark-staining aggregates of proteins in neurological tissue and are associated with frontotemporal dementia.
Lewy bodies are another common pathology finding in psychiatry and are associated with Parkinson’s disease and Lewy Body dementia. These are round, concentrically laminated, pale eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are aggregates of alpha-synuclein.
Other pathology findings include asteroid bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are acidophilic, stellate inclusions in giant cells. Barr bodies are associated with stains of X chromosomes and are inactivated X chromosomes that appear as a dark staining mass in contact with the nuclear membrane.
Mallory bodies are another common pathology finding and are associated with alcoholic hepatitis, alcoholic cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, and primary-biliary cirrhosis. These are eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in hepatocytes that are made up of intermediate filaments, predominantly prekeratin.
Other pathology findings include Schaumann bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are concentrically laminated inclusions in giant cells. Zebra bodies are associated with Niemann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs disease, of any of the mucopolysaccharidoses and are palisaded lamellated membranous cytoplasmic bodies seen in macrophages.
LE bodies, also known as hematoxylin bodies, are associated with SLE (lupus) and are nuclei of damaged cells with bound anti-nuclear antibodies that become homogeneous and loose chromatin pattern. Verocay bodies are associated with Schwannoma (Neurilemoma) and are palisades of nuclei at the end of a fibrillar bundle.
Hirano bodies are associated with normal aging but are more numerous in Alzheimer’s disease. These are eosinophilic, football-shaped inclusions seen in neurons of the brain. Neurofibrillary tangles are another common pathology finding in Alzheimer’s disease and are made up of microtubule-associated proteins and neurofilaments.
Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with Wilson’s disease and are rings of discoloration on the cornea. Finally, Kuru plaques are associated with Kuru and Gerstmann-Sträussler syndrome and are sometimes present in patients with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). These are composed partly of a host-encoded prion protein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which statement regarding the volume of distribution is not true?
Your Answer: Drugs which tend to stay in central compartments (e.g. Plasma) have a low volume of distribution
Correct Answer: It is calculated by dividing the drug concentration in the plasma by the amount in the body
Explanation:Which of the following is NOT true regarding the equation Vd = amount in body / plasma concentration?
Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology
The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.
The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.
The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following cells originates from a monocyte and resembles a macrophage?
Your Answer: Schwann cell
Correct Answer: Microglia
Explanation:Microglia act as the macrophages of the central nervous system, and they contribute to innate and adaptive immune responses. Studies have shown that microglial cells recognize monocyte antigens, and there are similarities between them that demonstrate that they originate from these monocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is mainly a noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (NARI)?
Your Answer: Acamprosate
Correct Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:Medication Types:
Atomoxetine (Strattera) is a medication used to treat ADHD by inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline. It has a similar structure to some antidepressants.
Acamprosate is a medication that acts as an antagonist at NMDA receptors and is the only medication licensed for the relief of cravings in alcohol dependence.
Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine medication.
Amisulpride is an atypical (second generation) antipsychotic medication that works as a serotonin and dopamine antagonist.
Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic medication that acts as a partial agonist at dopamine receptors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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What landmark divides the frontal and parietal lobes?
Your Answer: Central sulcus
Explanation:The central sulcus divides the frontal lobe from the parietal lobe. It contains the motor cells for the movement function of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neuro-anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which artery is likely to be affected if a patient is unable to read but can still write after experiencing a stroke?
Your Answer: Right posterior cerebral
Correct Answer: Left posterior cerebral
Explanation:An infarction to the left posterior cerebral artery typically results in pure alexia, also known as alexia without agraphia, which is characterized by the inability to read but the ability to write.
Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion
The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What factors can cause an increase in the levels of lamotrigine?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Correct Answer: Valproate
Explanation:This question is quite challenging, and it’s understandable if you didn’t get the answer right. Even healthcare professionals like consultants and pharmacists may struggle with this. However, for the record, the levels of lamotrigine can be increased by sertraline and valproate.
Lamotrigine: An Anticonvulsant Drug for Epilepsy, Bipolar Disorder, and Depression
Lamotrigine is a medication that belongs to the class of anticonvulsants. It is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy, bipolar disorder, and depression. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, while bipolar disorder is a mental illness that causes extreme mood swings. Depression, on the other hand, is a mood disorder that affects a person’s thoughts, feelings, and behavior.
Lamotrigine works by stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain, which helps to prevent seizures and mood swings. It is often used as a first-line treatment for epilepsy and is effective in reducing the frequency and severity of seizures. In bipolar disorder, lamotrigine is used to prevent episodes of mania and depression. It can also be used as an add-on therapy for depression, particularly in cases where other antidepressants have not been effective.
Overall, lamotrigine is a versatile medication that can be used to treat a range of neurological and psychiatric conditions. It is generally well-tolerated and has few side effects, making it a popular choice for many patients. However, as with all medications, it is important to discuss the risks and benefits with your healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism?
Your Answer: Brisk reflexes
Explanation:Hyperthyroidism is typically associated with brisk reflexes, while hypothyroidism is associated with reduced reflexes. However, the other symptoms and signs can be present in both hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism.
Thyroid Examination Findings
Hypothyroidism:
– Weight gain (with decreased appetite)
– Intolerance to cold
– Lethargy
– Constipation
– Menstrual disturbances
– Decreased perspirationExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Bradycardia
– Periorbital puffiness and dry skin
– Coarse, brittle, straw-like hair
– Myxoedema
– HyporeflexiaHyperthyroidism:
– Weight loss (with increased appetite)
– Intolerance to heat
– Palpitations
– Menstrual disturbancesExam findings:
– Hair loss
– Tachycardia
– Warm, moist, and smooth skin
– Tremor
– Brisk reflexes -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of the following is not a recognized symptom associated with hyponatremia?
Your Answer: Chest pain
Explanation:Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A teenager has a delusional belief that he is the son of god. He remains in touch with reality and incorporates actual facts into his delusional belief system. What is the most appropriate term to describe the structure of his delusion?
Your Answer: Grandiose
Correct Answer: Polarised
Explanation:The structure of a delusion is not described by the term grandiose, but rather the content.
Delusional Structure
Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.
The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Incorrect
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At what age and developmental stage does Freud's psychosexual stage theory align with Erikson's 'Initiative versus Guilt' stage?
Your Answer: Latency
Correct Answer: Phallic
Explanation:Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development includes eight stages of crises, while Freud’s psychosexual theory of development consists of five stages. However, there is some overlap between the two theories. For example, Freud’s phallic stage, which focuses on the development of sexual identity, broadly coincides with Erikson’s ‘initiative versus guilt’ stage, which focuses on the development of a sense of purpose and direction.
Erikson’s stages are as follows: trust vs. mistrust (0-18 months), autonomy vs. doubt (18-36 months), initiative vs. guilt (3-6 years), competence vs. inferiority (6-12 years), identity vs. confusion (12 years to adulthood), intimacy vs. isolation (adulthood), generativity vs. stagnation (middle-age), and integrity vs. despair (maturity).
Freud’s stages are: oral (0-18 months), anal (18-36 months), phallic (3-6 years), latency (6-12 years), and genital (12 years to adulthood).
While there are similarities between the two theories, it is important to note that they approach development from different perspectives and emphasize different aspects of human growth and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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Question 28
Correct
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A 25-year-old diabetic is on regular insulin medication. His primary care physician regularly checks on him, reviews blood sugar levels and administers the insulin injection.
The main aim is to prevent complications and maintain his overall health and well-being.
Which type of prevention is most likely being implemented in this scenario?Your Answer: Tertiary prevention
Explanation:Prevention Strategies in Healthcare
There are different prevention strategies in healthcare that aim to address various health concerns. Primary prevention, for instance, focuses on protecting healthy individuals from acquiring a disease. Meanwhile, indicated prevention targets high-risk individuals who exhibit early signs of symptoms of a mental disorder of have biological markers indicating predisposition for such a condition. Tertiary prevention, on the other hand, aims to help people manage long-term health problems and prevent further deterioration while maximizing their quality of life. Lastly, universal prevention interventions are targeted at the general public of a whole population group that has not been identified as having an increased risk of a particular health issue. By understanding these prevention strategies, healthcare providers can develop appropriate interventions that can help promote better health outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What is the method used by bodybuilders to alleviate the negative effects of misusing anabolic steroids?
Your Answer: Growth hormone
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Anabolic Steroids: Uses, Misuse, and Complications
Anabolic steroids are synthetic derivatives of testosterone that have both anabolic and androgenic properties. They are commonly used by athletes to enhance performance and by individuals to improve physical appearance. However, their misuse is not uncommon, with nearly half of users of dedicated bodybuilding gyms admitting to taking anabolic agents. Misuse can lead to dependence, tolerance, and the development of psychiatric disorders such as aggression, psychosis, mania, and depression/anxiety.
There are three common regimes practised by steroid misusers: ‘cycling’, ‘stacking’ and ‘pyramiding’. Anabolic steroids can be taken orally, injected intramuscularly, and applied topically in the form of creams and gels. Other drugs are also used by athletes, such as clenbuterol, ephedrine, thyroxine, insulin, tamoxifen, human chorionic Gonadotropin, diuretics, and growth hormone.
Medical complications are common and can affect various systems, such as the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, hepatic, reproductive (males and females), dermatological, and other systems. Complications include muscular hypertrophy, increased blood pressure, decreased high-density lipoprotein cholesterol and increased low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, cholestatic jaundice, benign and malignant liver tumours, testicular atrophy, sterility, gynaecomastia, breast tissue shrinkage, menstrual abnormalities, masculinisation, male-pattern baldness, acne, sleep apnoea, exacerbation of tic disorders, polycythaemia, altered immunity, and glucose intolerance.
Anabolic steroids are a class C controlled drug and can only be obtained legally through a medical prescription. It is important to educate individuals about the risks and complications associated with their misuse and to promote safe and legal use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which Piagetian stage is accurately paired with the corresponding developmental period?
Your Answer: Concrete operational - 11 years and upwards
Correct Answer: Preoperational - 2-7 years
Explanation:Piaget’s Stages of Development and Key Concepts
Piaget developed four stages of development that describe how children think and acquire knowledge. The first stage is the Sensorimotor stage, which occurs from birth to 18-24 months. In this stage, infants learn through sensory observation and gain control of their motor functions through activity, exploration, and manipulation of the environment.
The second stage is the Preoperational stage, which occurs from 2 to 7 years. During this stage, children use symbols and language more extensively, but they are unable to think logically of deductively. They also use a type of magical thinking and animistic thinking.
The third stage is the Concrete Operational stage, which occurs from 7 to 11 years. In this stage, egocentric thought is replaced by operational thought, which involves dealing with a wide array of information outside the child. Children in this stage begin to use limited logical thought and can serialise, order, and group things into classes on the basis of common characteristics.
The fourth and final stage is the Formal Operations stage, which occurs from 11 through the end of adolescence. This stage is characterized by the ability to think abstractly, to reason deductively, to define concepts, and also by the emergence of skills for dealing with permutations and combinations.
Piaget also developed key concepts, including schema, assimilation, and accommodation. A schema is a category of knowledge and the process of obtaining that knowledge. Assimilation is the process of taking new information into an existing schema, while accommodation involves altering a schema in view of additional information.
Overall, Piaget’s stages of development and key concepts provide a framework for understanding how children learn and acquire knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychological Development
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