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  • Question 1 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via Caesarean section because of pathological cardiotocography. The baby looks healthy and she has an Apgar score of 9, however, her RR is increased. The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN)

      Explanation:

      Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in new-borns and self-limiting. It can affect any new-born shortly after birth. Its most prominent feature is tachypnoea. Nasal flaring, grunting, or intercostal retractions may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most common cardiac abnormality found in Noonan syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common cardiac abnormality found in Noonan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary stenosis

      Explanation:

      Noonan syndrome is one of the most common genetic diseases associated with congenital heart defects, being second in frequency only to Down syndrome.Pulmonary stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy are generally the most common congenital heart defects found in Noonan syndrome.Pulmonary stenosis is often associated with a thickened and dysplastic valve. It is usually difficult to obtain a satisfactory result using the transcatheter balloon dilatation of such dysplastic valves, so surgical intervention is more likely to be needed.Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy involves predominantly the ventricular septum as asymmetric septal hypertrophy, but may also affect the ventricular free walls. Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction may occasionally be produced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A female presents to obstetric triage at 24 weeks with cramping pain and is threatening preterm labour. The parents would like to know the statistics relating to survival and outcome if their baby is born at this gestation. Which particular study would be useful to review before this consultation?

      Your Answer: OSCAR Xe

      Correct Answer: EPICURE

      Explanation:

      EPICure is a series of studies of survival and later health among babies and young people who were born at extremely low gestations – from 22 to 26 weeks.Boost II is a double-blind randomised controlled trial (RCT) comparing the effects of targeting arterial oxygen saturations between 85% and 89% versus 91% and 95% in preterm infants.OSCAR Xe is not the name of a study. Baby-OSCAR is an RCT to determine whether a confirmed large patent ductus arteriosus in very premature babies should be treated with ibuprofen within 72 hours of birth.SafeBoosC is a trial to examine if it is possible to stabilise the cerebral oxygenation of extremely preterm infants in the first 72 hours of life with the use of NIRS oximetry and a clinical treatment guideline. TOBY Xe is an RCT looking at the neuroprotective effects of hypothermia combined with inhaled xenon following perinatal asphyxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not included in the management of preterm babies with respiratory distress syndrome?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      A preterm with respiratory distress syndrome presents with the condition as a result of immature lungs and inadequate surfactant production. Management of RDS therefore includes surfactant therapy, oxygen administration and mechanical ventilation, as well as measures such maintaining acid base levels and blood haemoglobin in an intensive care unit. Dexamethasone is not shown to be particularly effective when given to a preterm, but can however be used to prevent or decrease RDS severity when given to the mother before delivery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neonatal skin conditions is NOT benign?

      Your Answer: Erythema toxicum neonatorum

      Correct Answer: Midline lumbosacral lipoma

      Explanation:

      A lumbosacral lipoma is a form of congenital spinal lipoma and can be regarded as a cutaneous marker of dysraphism. It is not a skin condition but rather represents a defect in the process of neurulation and leads to a constellation of other abnormalities. The most common other systemic abnormalities associated with midline lumbosacral lipoma include complex anorectal and urological malformations. Other mentioned conditions are benign rashes or birthmarks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given choices accurately defines perinatal mortality rate?

      Your Answer: Number of deaths neonatal period divided by 100 births

      Correct Answer: Number of stillbirths and deaths within 7 days of life divided by 1000 births

      Explanation:

      The perinatal mortality rate is defined as the number of perinatal deaths per 1000 total births. Perinatal death includes the death of a live-born neonate within 7-days of life (early neonatal death) and the death of a fetus ≥ 22 weeks of gestation (stillbirth). Hence, the perinatal mortality rate is calculated by dividing the number of still births+ the number of early neonatal deaths by 1000 births.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby was born following a placental abruption. There was no respiratory effort and an undetectable heart rate initially. Baby is now 20 min old and has been intubated with regular ventilation breaths. Heart rate came up to 110/min following two rounds of chest compressions. Baby appears very pale. No drugs have been given. Oxygen saturations are currently 85% measured on the right hand despite FiO2 1.0. A venous cord gas shows pH 6.89, CO2 –8, BE –14, Hb 8. What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Consider reorientating care

      Correct Answer: Umbilical venous catheter (UVC) placement

      Explanation:

      Umbilical vein catheterization utilizes the exposed umbilical stump in a neonate as a site for emergency central venous access up to 14 days old. Umbilical vein catheterization can provide a safe and effective route for intravenous delivery of medications and fluids during resuscitation.The indication for umbilical vein catheterization is when there is a need for IV access in a neonate for resuscitation, transfusions, or short-term venous access when otherwise unobtainable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      85.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can cause an increase in alpha-fetoprotein in the pregnant mother?

      Your Answer: Hydatidiform mole

      Correct Answer: Posterior urethral valves

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is a plasma protein produced by the embryonic yolk sac and the fetal liver. AFP levels in serum, amniotic fluid, and urine functions as a screening test for congenital disabilities, chromosomal abnormalities, as well as some other adult occurring tumours and pathologies.Pregnant maternal serum AFP levels are elevated in:- Neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly)- Omphalocele- Gastroschisis- posterior urethral valves- nephrosis- GI obstruction- teratomas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a risk factor for neonatal death and stillbirth?

      Your Answer: The mother's multiparity

      Correct Answer: Parental unemployment

      Explanation:

      Risk factors for neonatal death and stillbirth (weak predictive value):- African American race- Advanced maternal age- History of fetal demise- Maternal infertility- History of small for gestational age infant- Small for gestational age infant- Obesity- Paternal age- Poverty and poor quality of careSo in this case the risk factor is the parental unemployment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially...

    Correct

    • A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially appears to be stable. However, over the next 24 hours, he develops worsening neurological function.Which one of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences.Loss of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is a pathophysiologic feature of germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Prematurity itself results in derangements in cerebral autoregulation. In some patients, a history of additional events that result in loss of autoregulation can be obtained. Furthermore, events that can result in beat-to-beat variability of cerebral blood flow may be identified in some patients.There may be no symptoms. The most common symptoms seen in premature infants include:- Breathing pauses (apnoea)- Changes in blood pressure and heart rate- Decreased muscle tone- Decreased reflexes- Excessive sleep- Lethargy- Weak suck- Seizures and other abnormal movements

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?

      Your Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?

      Your Answer: Embryoblast

      Correct Answer: Blastocyst

      Explanation:

      Time- EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following congenital diseases is NOT associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels?

      Your Answer: Anencephaly

      Correct Answer: Down's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Alpha-fetoprotein has significance primarily as a tumour marker, but maternal levels are frequently measured to detect some of the congenital abnormalities, in which the levels of alpha-fetoprotein are either increased or decreased. The conditions associated with raised alpha-fetoprotein levels are: spina bifida, anencephaly, myelomeningocele, oesophageal atresia, congenital nephrotic syndrome, and turner’s syndrome. Down’s syndrome or trisomy 21 is associated with low levels of maternal alpha-fetoprotein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old...

    Incorrect

    • A term baby weighing 3.3kg is admitted to NICU at 3 hours old with increased respiratory effort. The baby was delivered by spontaneous vaginal delivery following an uncomplicated pregnancy. Membranes ruptured 30 hours before delivery and there are no other risk factors for infection. On examination the baby is visibly tachypnoeic with intercostal recession and nasal flaring. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are present bilaterally. Capillary refill time is 3 seconds centrally and baby has cool hands and feet. Respiratory rate is 90/min, heart rate 170/min and oxygen saturations measured on the right hand are 85% in room air. IV access has been obtained and antibiotics are being given. Enough blood was obtained for culture, blood sugar and venous blood gas. Blood sugar is 2.6 mmol/l. Blood gas shows: pH 7.25, CO2 8.5 kPa, BE –8. Despite low flow nasal cannula oxygen baby’s saturations remain around 88%. What should be the next step in this baby’s management?

      Your Answer: Trial of CPAP

      Correct Answer: Prepare to intubate baby

      Explanation:

      Infants may require tracheal intubation if:- direct tracheal suctioning is required- effective bag-mask ventilation cannot be provided- chest compressions are performed- endotracheal (ET) administration of medications is desired- congenital diaphragmatic hernia is suspected, or – a prolonged need for assisted ventilation exists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts? ...

    Incorrect

    • Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts?

      Your Answer: The mortality rate in oligohydramnios is lower than polyhydramnios

      Correct Answer: There is a higher incidence of chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. It also leads to multiple complications, out of which the incidence of chorioamnionitis is very high. Other complications include fetal growth retardation, limb contractures, GI atresia, and even fetal death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Delayed clamping of the umbilical cord

      Correct Answer: Jaundice

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a commonly occurring neonatal disorder, which is characterized by a venous haematocrit ≥ 65%. It increases the blood viscosity and causes microcirculatory flow impairment in the end-organs. Causes of polycythaemia are multi-factorial, but the significant risk factors are maternal diabetes, SGA, LGA or post-term birth, infants with chromosomal abnormalities, and delayed clamping of the cord. Jaundice is not a recognized risk factor for polycythaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby...

    Correct

    • What is the most important investigation to perform in a 2-week-old new-born baby boy who is well feed and thriving, but jaundiced?

      Your Answer: Total serum bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Usually, a total serum bilirubin level test is the only one required in an infant with moderate jaundice who presents on the second or third day of life without a history and physical findings suggestive of a pathologic process. Measurement of bilirubin fractions (conjugated vs unconjugated) in serum is not usually required in infants who present as described above. However, in infants who have hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, thrombocytopenia, or other findings suggestive of hepatobiliary disease, metabolic disorder, or congenital infection, early measurement of bilirubin fractions is suggested. The same may apply to infants who remain jaundiced beyond the first 7-10 days of life, and to infants whose total serum bilirubin levels repeatedly rebound following treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported...

    Incorrect

    • A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported to be in a critical state. Birth weight is 550g and the baby shows a poor respiratory effort. The membranes ruptured just prior to the delivery with no signs of maternal fever or sepsis. The infant received no antenatal steroids. After delivery, the neonate was subsequently intubated, resuscitated and given a dose of Curo surf. he was extubated onto CPAP within 6 hours. UVC and UAC access was established and benzylpenicillin and gentamicin were administered. Small amounts of maternal breast milk were given for mouthcare. The baby's cardiovascular system was stable and early ABG samples were within acceptable ranges. At 24 hours of age the baby deteriorates with numerous desaturations and bradycardias requiring reintubation. First gas following reintubation shows pH 7.19, CO2 8.6 kPa, BE -10. Oxygen requirement is 60%. FBC is unremarkable. The baby is cool peripherally and central CRT is 3-4 seconds. There is a loud machinery murmur. Abdominal radiograph shows a football sign. What is the most likely cause of the baby's deterioration?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous intestinal perforation

      Explanation:

      Spontaneous intestinal perforation (SIP) of the new-born, also referred to as isolated perforation or focal intestinal perforation (FIP) of the new-born, is a single intestinal perforation that is typically found at the terminal ileum. SIP occurs primarily in preterm infants with very low birth weight (VLBW, birth weight <1500 g) and extremely low birth weight (ELBW, birth weight <1000 g), umbilical catheter placement, maternal drug use and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. SIP is a separate clinical entity from necrotizing enterocolitis, the most severe gastrointestinal complication of preterm infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born has several strawberry naevi. You're concerned about internal haemangiomas. How many naevi should warrant further investigation?

      Your Answer: More than 2

      Correct Answer: More than 5

      Explanation:

      Eight percentage of infantile haemangiomas are focal and solitary. Sixty percent of cutaneous haemangiomas occur on the head and neck, 25% on the trunk, and 15% on the extremities. Haemangiomas also can occur in extracutaneous sites, including the liver, gastrointestinal tract, larynx, CNS, pancreas, gall bladder, thymus, spleen, lymph nodes, lung, urinary bladder, and adrenal glands.Guidelines on the management of infantile haemangioma were released in December 2018 by the American Academy of Paediatrics stating that:Imaging is not necessary unless the diagnosis is uncertain, there are five or more cutaneous infantile haemangiomas present, or there is suspicion of anatomic abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A woman gives birth to a baby at 32 weeks of gestation by...

    Correct

    • A woman gives birth to a baby at 32 weeks of gestation by spontaneous vaginal delivery. The new-born looks floppy, irritable, and drowsy and soon has a seizure. His blood sugar levels and CRP are normal and the doctors refer the baby for urgent neuroimaging. What is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Intracranial haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests intracranial haemorrhage which is uncommon but prevalent in pre-term babies. The rest of the options suggest peripheral causes which do not affect the central function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?...

    Incorrect

    • Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?

      Your Answer: Urea cycle disorders

      Correct Answer: Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common yet serious condition characterized by blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. There are multiple aetiologies and various risk factors that lead to hypoglycaemia in new-borns like prematurity, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, and maternal diabetes- induced hyperinsulinism in the new-born. Among the inborn errors of metabolism, fatty acid oxidation defects can lead to persistent hypoglycaemia in new-borns. One such defect is the medium- chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, which is the enzyme needed for the breakdown of medium- chain fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is delivered at 26 weeks. Full course of antenatal steroids was administered. There was a delay in clamping the cord. No respiratory effort is observed, and the heart rate is slow. What should be the next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Two minutes of chest compressions

      Correct Answer: 5× inflation breaths

      Explanation:

      Most infants have a good heart rate after birth and establish breathing by about 90 s. If the infant is not breathing adequately aerate the lungs by giving 5 inflation breaths, preferably using air. Until now the infant’s lungs will have been filled with fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities? ...

    Incorrect

    • Macrosomia is NOT commonly found in which of the following genetic abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Perlman syndrome

      Correct Answer: Silver-Russell syndrome

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia can be defined as either a birth weight greater than 4kg or birth weight greater than 90% for the gestational age. Risk factors for macrosomia include maternal diabetes, excessive gestational weight gain, pre-pregnancy obesity, male gender, ethnicity, and advanced gestational age. Genetic conditions associated with macrosomia are Bardet-Biedl syndrome, Perlman syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome. Silver-Russell syndrome is associated with intrauterine growth retardation and post-natal failure to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?

      Your Answer: Ventricular Septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: USS

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is NOT a recognized cause of respiratory distress syndrome (SDLD)?

      Your Answer: Male sex

      Correct Answer: Maternal hypertension

      Explanation:

      Insufficient surfactant production in premature infants leads to respiratory distress syndrome or surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), characterized by structurally immature lungs. There are many risk factors of this disease, some of them include male gender, caesarean section, infants of diabetic mothers, being the second born of the premature twins, perinatal asphyxia, sepsis, and hypothermia. Maternal hypertension is not a recognized risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome| instead, pregnancy-induced hypertension and chronic maternal hypertension are the protective factors against this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration...

    Correct

    • A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Settings are mean airway pressure 14 cmH2O, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 1.0. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 84%. Blood gas shows pH 7.32, CO2 6.5 kPa, BE –4. Chest X-ray shows poorly inflated lungs.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?

      Your Answer: Increase mean airway pressure

      Explanation:

      The baby needs more oxygen saturation which could be attempted by increasing the mean airway pressureAfter initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - All of the following conditions because feeding problems for a neonate except for...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following conditions because feeding problems for a neonate except for which one?

      Your Answer: Cerebral birth trauma

      Correct Answer: Physiological jaundice

      Explanation:

      Physiological jaundice is the condition in which there is a yellow discolouration of the eyes and the skin of the baby caused by the build up of bilirubin in the blood due to an immature liver. No other symptoms accompany physiological jaundice, thus it will not present with difficulty in feeding. All the other conditions listed can present with feeding problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features? ...

    Incorrect

    • Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?

      Your Answer: Hypertonia

      Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      7.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neonatology (8/30) 27%
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