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  • Question 1 - An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 month old baby is admitted with vomiting. He is crying but is afebrile. Clinical examination reveals a diffusely tender abdomen, however, the doctor does not detect any palpable masses. Which of the following should you exclude first?

      Your Answer: Colic

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is an urgent condition that must be excluded first as it may lead to life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      70.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old female was given an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection. After taking the medication the patient developed Steven-Johnson syndrome. Which particular antibiotic usually causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Sulphonamides

      Explanation:

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a type of severe skin reaction. The most common cause is certain medications such as lamotrigine, carbamazepine, allopurinol, sulphonamide antibiotics, and nevirapine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying...

    Incorrect

    • A 10 year old boy presented with episodic bluish pale skin while crying and brief episodes of loss of consciousness. On examination he has clubbing, cyanosis and a pansystolic murmur. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Coarctation of Aorta

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      Except Tetralogy of Fallot, the others are acyanotic heart diseases. The cyanotic spells and loss of consciousness are due to spasm of the infundibular septum, which acutely worsens the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction. The given murmur is due to a ventricular septal defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help. She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication. Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Check paracetamol level now

      Correct Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time

      Explanation:

      According to the Rumack-Matthew Normogram, accurate levels of paracetamol can be measured only between 4-15 hours. The levels measured before 4 hours post-ingestion would highly underestimate the level of paracetamol ingested.The patient in question presents 2 hours after ingestion. Hence the most appropriate time to measure the levels of acetaminophen would be a further 2 hours later. Other options:- Note that the treatment with NAC can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram.- Furthermore, haemodialysis is only indicated if she develops hepato-renal syndrome that is likely to occur 72-96 hours post-ingestion.- Indications for acute liver transplantation include persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome and worsening coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old boy presents with breathlessness, central cyanosis, irregular pulse, and oedema. On cardiac auscultation, he has a displaced apical beat laterally and a profound right ventricular heave. On lung auscultation, he has bilateral basal crackles. X-ray of the chest reveals gross cardiomegaly. Heart ultrasound shows mitral valve prolapse. Finally, ECG shows a prolonged and widened QRS complex with a short PR interval. Doctors establish the diagnosis of a right bundle branch block with a dominant R wave in V1. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Heart failure

      Correct Answer: Type A Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (WPWS)

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a pre-excitation syndrome characterised by re-entry tachycardia that most commonly presents as a recurrent supraventricular tachycardia. ECG will show a short PR interval and a prolonged QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting blood glucose. Her HBA1c was found to be 31 mmol/mol (5.0%). What is the most probable co-existing condition that can lead to these unusual HBA1c levels?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      HbA1c stands for glycated haemoglobin. In patients with haemolytic diseases associated with a shortened RBC survival, HbA1c levels can be unusually low despite controlled diabetes mellitus.These haemolytic diseases can include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and sickle cell anaemia.HbA1c:It is a measure of non-enzymatic glycation which occurs due to haemoglobin’s exposure to plasma glucose. As plasma glucose increases so does HbA1c.The level of HbA1c quantitively assesses the control of diabetes mellitus over the last 120 days (as this is the life span of a red blood cell).Haemoglobin type A is separated on cation exchange chromatographyOther subsections include HbA1O, HbA1a, HbA1b.According to the updated NICE recommendations (2015):The target level of HbA1c in children with T1DM is 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. It is monitored every three months. Better control is associated with fewer long term complications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago. All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Congenital TB symptoms typically develop during the second or third week of life and include poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, and irritability. Other symptoms include fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions.Signs of congenital TB include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the anterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The majority of hormone production occurs in the pars distalis

      Explanation:

      The pituitary gland synthesizes and releases various hormones that affect several organs throughout the body.The pituitary gland is entirely ectodermal in origin but is composed of 2 functionally distinct structures that differ in embryologic development and anatomy: the adenohypophysis (anterior pituitary) and the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary).The anterior pituitary has three main regions:Pars distalis: Where the main hormone production occursPars tuberalis: Joins the pituitary stalk arising from the posterior pituitary glandPars intermedia: Divides the anterior and posterior parts of the pituitary gland. The pars distalis forms the majority of the adenohypophysis and resembles a typical endocrine gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following criteria can be used to diagnose neonatal polycythaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous blood haematocrit > 65%

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is described as an abnormal increase in the red cell mass. As this influences hyper-viscosity, a peripheral venous sample of blood haematocrit can be used to determine the packed cell volume. Polycythaemia is present if the venous haematocrit is >65% or <22g/dl if converted into a haemoglobin value. Though it is the method of choice for screening, capillary blood samples obtained though heel pricks in new-born may be as much as 15% higher than venous samples and thus high values must be confirmed with a venous sample.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
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  • Question 10 - A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents to the hospital with a history of multiple episodes of generalized tonic-clonic seizures for the past week. Prior to this, he has had multiple admissions for the same reason and has been on anti-epileptic drugs since the age of 11 months with poor control. He was born of non-consanguineous parents with an uneventful birth history. There is no history of seizures in other family members. On examination, he has multiple hyperpigmented papules over the nasolabial region suggestive of adenoma sebaceum. A full body examination revealed a total of 5 hypopigmented ash leaf macules over the lower limbs along with a shagreen patch over the lateral aspect of the left buttock. The mode of inheritance of the boy's condition has a pattern similar to that of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis Type 1

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical scenario provided, the most probable diagnosis for this patient would be tuberous sclerosis which is an autosomal dominant condition.Among the options provided, only Neurofibromatosis Type 1 is inherited by an autosomal dominant pattern. Other options:- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is an example of an imprinting disorder and results from abnormalities of inheritance or methylation of chromosome 11p15.- Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition.- Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is an example of an X-linked recessive condition.- Hypophosphataemic (Vitamin D resistant) rickets is an X-linked dominant condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 8 year old male is brought by the paramedics to the emergency department after having an episode of generalised tonic-clonic seizures. The seizures started at 10:55. The paramedics gave him buccal midazolam at 11:04 and waited for the seizures to end, until 11:06. Afterwards, they gave him oxygen via face mask and set up a venous line. His blood glucose at that moment was 5.2 mmol/L and he remained unconscious during the whole trip to the hospital. The paramedics arrived at the emergency department at 11:16 and you observe that he has a patent airway and a good air entry. His RR is 12 and his O2 saturation is 98% on 10L O2. His heart rate is 122 bpm and his CRT is 2 seconds. At 11:19, you observe that the child is not responsive to pain and he starts experiencing subtle but persistent jerking movements of his jaw and left upper limb. You notice that the child's pupils are deviated to the right and are bilaterally constricted. It's 11:20. What should you do next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer IV lorazepam now

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines suggest that at the premonitory stage (pre-hospital) the patient should receive Diazepam 10−20 mg given rectally, or midazolam 10 mg given buccally. If seizures continue, the patient should receive lorazepam IV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 12 - A 15-year-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was brought to the hospital by her mother with complaints of an acute onset of oliguria and gross haematuria. On examination, she was found to have pedal oedema and a blood pressure of 164/112 mmHg. Given the likely diagnosis, what would be the most characteristic finding on urine microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Red blood cell casts

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, the most characteristic finding that can be expected in his patient’s urine microscopy is RBC casts. Red cell casts are a characteristic feature of acute nephrotic syndrome. Other options:- Hyaline casts may be seen in normal urine, particularly after exercise. – Coarse granular casts occur in glomerular and tubular disease. – Tubular cell casts may be seen in patients with acute tubular necrosis. – The presence of 10 or more white blood cells/mm3 is abnormal and indicates an inflammatory reaction, most commonly due to infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC)....

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal trauma

      Explanation:

      Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given neural tube defects occur in association with Arnold-Chiari malformation type II?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelomeningocele

      Explanation:

      Arnold-Chiari malformation type II is one of the congenital hindbrain abnormalities that leads to a disruption of the relationship between different hindbrain structures. It is characterized by congenital hydrocephalus, herniation of cerebellar tonsils into the pinal canal with an enlarged 4th ventricle, spina bifida associated with myelomeningocele, and various levels of denervation atrophy of the muscles of the lower limb. The association of type II Arnold-Chiari with myelomeningocele carries importance from an etiological perspective, forming the basis of CSF escape theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is consistent with ventricular septal defect (VSD) murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short diamond shaped diastolic murmur after the third heart sound

      Explanation:

      Auscultatory findings of VSD vary with the size of the defect. Small VSDs typically produce murmurs ranging from a grade 1 to 2/6 high-pitched, short systolic murmur (due to tiny defects that actually close during late systole) to a grade 3 to 4/6 holosystolic murmur (with or without thrill) at the lower left sternal border| this murmur is usually audible within the first few days of life (see table Heart Murmur Intensity). The precordium is not hyperactive, and the 2nd heart sound (S2) is normally split and has normal intensity.Moderate to large VSDs produce a holosystolic murmur that is present by age 2 to 3 wk| S2 is usually narrowly split with an accentuated pulmonary component. An apical diastolic rumble (due to increased flow through the mitral valve) and findings of heart failure (e.g., tachypnoea, dyspnoea with feeding, failure to thrive, gallop, crackles, hepatomegaly) may be present. In moderate, high-flow VSDs, the murmur is often very loud and accompanied by a thrill (grade 4 or 5 murmur). With large defects allowing equalization of left ventricular and right ventricular pressures, the systolic murmur is often attenuated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy was admitted in the A&E with a history of a 38.4°C fever and 15 minute tonic clonic seizure episode at home. However, he is conscious now, his temperature is normal and the fit has stopped. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Febrile convulsion

      Explanation:

      Febrile seizures are convulsions that can happen when a child, most often between the ages of six months and three years, has a fever. They usually last for less than five minutes and although the child may lose consciousness, they are relatively harmless. However, sometimes they can last for up to 15 minutes and when they are termed complex febrile seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes...

    Incorrect

    • Conjugated bilirubin is converted and metabolised into urobilinogen before excretion. This metabolism takes place in which part of the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated to glucuronic acid in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin passes into the enterohepatic circulation and the bilirubin which evades this system is metabolised by bacteria, primarily in the large intestine, to urobilinogen, then stercobilinogen and eventually oxidised to stercobilin. Stercobilin gives faeces its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl...

    Incorrect

    • A nursery teacher has expressed concern to the parents of an 18-month-old girl about her language development.Which feature would NOT be associated with language delay in an 18-month-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of imitative gesture

      Explanation:

      18-month-old milestonesSocial and EmotionalLikes to hand things to others as play May have temper tantrums May be afraid of strangers Shows affection to familiar people Plays simple pretend, such as feeding a doll May cling to caregivers in new situations Points to show others something interesting Explores alone but with parent close by Language/CommunicationSays several single words Says and shakes head “no” Points to show someone what he wants Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Knows what ordinary things are for| for example, telephone, brush, spoon Points to get the attention of others Shows interest in a doll or stuffed animal by pretending to feed Points to one body part Scribbles on his own Can follow 1-step verbal commands without any gestures| for example, sits when you say “sit down” Movement/Physical DevelopmentWalks alone May walk up steps and run Pulls toys while walking Can help undress herself Drinks from a cup Eats with a spoon

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Adolescent Health
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  • Question 20 - A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct

      Explanation:

      The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - Absence of which of the following milestones warrants further assessment in a 15-month-old...

    Incorrect

    • Absence of which of the following milestones warrants further assessment in a 15-month-old child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stand holding onto furniture

      Explanation:

      By 15 months, it’s common for many toddlers to:- say three to five words.- understand and follow simple commands.- point to one body part.- walk alone and begin to run.- climb on furniture.- make marks with a crayon.- imitate activities, such as housework.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
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  • Question 22 - Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would a 9-year old girl with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes not require annually?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinopathy screening

      Explanation:

      Retinopathy screening need not be done on an annual basis for a 9-year-old child. Screening for diabetic retinopathy should begin at the age of 12.Diabetes mellitus is an increasing problem in both developing and developed countries alike. Some of the risk factors include:ObesityFamily historyFemale sex Asian and African racesPresence of acanthosis nigricans is seen with type 2 but not type 1 diabetesThe diagnosis is mostly incidental or subacute.The treatment aims are good blood sugar control, maintenance of normal BMI, and reduction of complications. The treatment modality also includes lifestyle modifications and cessation of smoking. Even after all this, diabetic ketoacidosis can still occur.Management of diabetes mellitus – NICE guidelines (Updated, 2015): – Standard release metformin should be offered from the moment of diagnosis.- HBA1c should be measured every three months. The target HBA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower is ideal for minimising the risk of long term complications.- Children should undergo an eye examination by an optician every two years.- Annual immunisation against influenza and pneumococcal infections are essential.- There is an increased risk of psychological and psychosocial difficulties if the child with type 1 diabetes is on insulin or oral hypoglycaemic medications. These include anxiety disorder, depression, behavioural and conduct disorders and family conflict.- Annual monitoring to be done for:Hypertension starting at diagnosis.Dyslipidaemia starting at diagnosis.Screening for microalbuminuria starting at diagnosis.Diabetic retinopathy from 12 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old child presents with fever, hypertension and haematuria, two weeks after an episode of infective diarrhoea.Which of the following is a possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) is a clinical syndrome characterized by progressive renal failure that is associated with microangiopathic (nonimmune, Coombs-negative) haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. HUS is the most common cause of acute kidney injury in children. It predominantly occurs in infants and children after prodromal diarrhoea. In summer epidemics, the disease may be related to infectious causes.Bacterial infections may include the following:S dysenteriaeE ColiSalmonella typhiCampylobacter jejuniYersinia pseudotuberculosisNeisseria meningitidisS pneumoniaLegionella pneumophilaMycoplasma speciesRickettsial infections may include Rocky Mountain spotted fever and microtatobiotesViral infections may include the following:Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)CoxsackievirusEchovirusInfluenza virusEpstein-Barr virusHerpes simplex virusFungal infections can include Aspergillus fumigatus.Vaccinations may include the following:Influenza triple-antigen vaccineTyphoid-paratyphoid A and B (TAB) vaccinePolio vaccinePregnancy-associated HUS occasionally develops as a complication of preeclampsia. Patients may progress to full-blown haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets (HELLP) syndrome. Postpartum HUS usually occurs within 3 months of delivery. The prognosis is poor, with a 50-60% mortality rate, and residual renal dysfunction and hypertension occur in most patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
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  • Question 24 - An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of...

    Incorrect

    • An infant presents with the following constellation of symptoms:- Cleft palate- Tetralogy of Fallot- HypocalcaemiaBased on the clinical scenario, what is the most probable diagnosis for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Di George syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for the patient would be DiGeorge syndrome due to 22q11 deletion. It causes embryonic defects of the third and fourth branchial arches. It is sporadic in 90% of cases and 10 % inherited from parents as autosomal dominant.Characterised by distinct facial features (micrognathia, cleft palate, short philtrum, and low-set ears), hypocalcaemia, mental retardation, cardiac defects (especially tetralogy of Fallot), and immune deficiencies.A useful memory aid is CATCH-22:- Cardiac defects- Abnormal facial features- Thymic aplasia/hypoplasia- Cleft palate- Hypocalcaemia/Hypoparathyroidism- 22 – Due to 22q11 deletion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 25 - A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of...

    Incorrect

    • A study done on a group of epileptics records the numbers of seizures in the weeks before and after a dietary intervention. The decrease in seizures is on average 20. (95% CI=15 to 25| P=0.0024)Which of the following options is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This is a before and after study with no control group and so the results should be viewed with great caution

      Explanation:

      While the results of this before and after study can provide some preliminary insight into the effects of the dietary intervention, the results should be viewed with great caution as they may be considered merely anecdotal. The lack of a control group contributes to confounding the data. Therefore, while the difference may be statistically significant and the confidence interval is compatible with a fall in the number of seizures after therapy, the results cannot be introduced as the standard without a control group to compare with.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
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  • Question 26 - A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-year old girl with a history of febrile convulsions presents to the community clinic with constipation. During the examination, she goes into a seizure. The physician carries her to the treatment room and administers oxygen. After 5 minutes, the fits continue, and there is lack of buccal midazolam. Which of the following would be the best strategy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 5 mg rectal diazepam

      Explanation:

      Diazepam given rectally may be helpful in treating prolonged convulsions outside and within hospital when intravenous injection is not possible. A rectal dose of 0.5 mg/kg (maximum 10 mg) of injectable diazepam, undiluted or diluted with a 50% propylene glycol solution, can stop seizures in up to 80% of children. There are few adverse reactions. Seizures in children usually cease spontaneously within 5-10 minutes and are rarely associated with significant sequelae. The chance of a seizure stopping spontaneously decreases significantly after 10-15 minutes. Similarly, the efficacy of anticonvulsant medication decreases after 10-15 minutes of fitting and the risk of adverse effects increases. Convulsive seizures lasting longer than 30 minutes constitute status epilepticus and may be complicated by cardio respiratory depression and brain injury. Diazepam or clonazepam, given intravenously, is generally the drug of choice for the emergency treatment of convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous diazepam may be difficult to administer to the young convulsing child and, because of the need for intravenous access, is not ideal for rapid treatment in the community by non-medical carers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 27 - An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his partner whose HIV status is not known. He is concerned about his risk of acquiring HIV. He is feeling well and shows no symptoms. The physician offers him a post exposure prophylaxis, which consists of 3 different antiviral drugs. Two of these drugs act by which of the following mechanisms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of viral reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      Recommended regimens3 NRTI (e.g., zidovudine, lamivudine, abacavir) OR2 NRTI (e.g., lamivudine + abacavir) AND1 NNRTI (e.g., efavirenz) OR1 PI (e.g., lopinavir) OR1 INI (e.g., raltegravir)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
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  • Question 28 - A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back....

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old child has developed a fever and maculopapular rash on his back. What diagnosis should he be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chicken pox

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. The clinical signs of infection are fever and a maculopapular rash – this is a unique rash with both flat and raised lesions on the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 29 - A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old child presents with a history of recurrent, intense nausea and vomiting. His mum reveals he hasn’t passed urine the whole day. Upon inspection, he looks lethargic and his eyes are sunken. What would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture suggests that the child is severely dehydrated. IV fluid bolus then IV maintenance fluids is the correct option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 30 - A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy sustains a fracture to the medial third of his clavicle following a fall from his bicycle.Which vessel is at the highest risk of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclavian vein

      Explanation:

      Being anatomically situated immediately posterior to the subclavius muscle and the medial part of the clavicle, the subclavian vein is at the highest risk of injury in the above patient.As a direct tributary of the brachiocephalic vein, it’s injury poses a high risk of massive bleeding.The brachiocephalic vein rests on the first rib, below and in front of the third part of the subclavian artery, and then on scalenus anterior which separates it from the second part of the artery (posteriorly).Anatomy of the clavicle:The clavicle extends from the sternum to the acromion and helps prevent the shoulder falling forwards and downwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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