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  • Question 1 - A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is at 39+5 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?

      Your Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 to 41+6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 and 36+6 weeks. Only 1% of women who go into PROM have risk of having serious neonatal infections.

      Management of PROM:
      60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
      Induction is appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and more than 24 hours post rupture when labour hasn’t started.
      If < 34 weeks, induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      206.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation

      Explanation:

      Radiotherapy causes ionisation, primarily of water. This leads to hydroxyl and other free radicals being generated. Free radicals are highly reactive and cause DNA damage to cells via their reactions with them. Free radicals are relatively short lived and eventually form stable compounds. The DNA damage leads to cellular death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the definition of puberty in girls? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of puberty in girls?

      Your Answer: Becoming capable of sexual reproduction

      Explanation:

      Puberty is the process of reproductive and sexual development and the maturation which changes a child into an adult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms? ...

    Incorrect

    • Syphilis is caused by which one of the following organisms?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Correct Answer: Treponema Pallidum

      Explanation:

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease which is caused by spirochete called treponema pallidum. It can be divided into three stages. i.e. primary, secondary and tertiary syphilis.
      – Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre formation at the site of sexual contact.
      – Secondary syphilis ranges from maculopapular lesions to scaly lesions, inguinal lymphadenopathy, condylomata lata and split papules at the corner of mouth.
      – Tertiary syphilis is the late stage of syphilis which is characterized by gummas formation and general paresis along with signs and symptoms of visceral involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?...

    Incorrect

    • Which two nerves provide the primary cutaneous sensory innervation to the labia majora?

      Your Answer: Anterior femoral and genitofemoral

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal and pudendal

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal provides cutaneous innervation to the posterior external genitalia via one of its terminal branches called the perineal nerve (this further branches into the posterior labial nerves or posterior scrotal nerve in men). The ilioinguinal nerve provides anterior sensation via the anterior labial nerves (anterior scrotal nerve in men). The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve contributes some fibres to the skin of the mons pubis and labia majora in females. The posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh sometimes overlaps sensory areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - The ascending colon drains into the superior mesenteric vein (SMV). What vein does...

    Correct

    • The ascending colon drains into the superior mesenteric vein (SMV). What vein does the SMV drain into?

      Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      The superior mesenteric vein joins the splenic vein to form the hepatic portal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In what phase do chromatids get cleaved into chromosomes and pulled apart?

      Your Answer: Metaphase

      Correct Answer: Anaphase

      Explanation:

      Mitosis is the process during which cell division occurs. It is divided into 4 stages:
      – The first stage is the prophase during which the chromosomes condense, mitotic spindles form and the chromosomes pair which each other.
      – The second stage is the metaphase during which the chromatids align at the equatorial plane.
      – The third stage is the anaphase during which the chromatids are separated into 2 daughter chromosomes.
      – The fourth phase is the telophase during which the chromatids decondense and a new nuclear envelop forms around the each of the daughter chromosomes. Cytokinesis is the process during which the cell cytoplasm divides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A biophysical profile includes all of the following assessment parameters EXCEPT: ...

    Incorrect

    • A biophysical profile includes all of the following assessment parameters EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Fetal breathing movements

      Correct Answer: Fetal weight

      Explanation:

      The biophysical profile is a composite test that collects 5 indicators of fetal well-being, including fetal heart rate reactivity, breathing movements, gross body movements, muscular tone, and quantitative estimation of amniotic fluid volume. The assessment of fetal heart rate is accomplished by performing a nonstress test, whereas the latter 4 variables are observed using real-time ultra-sonography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection...

    Incorrect

    • Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Candida parapsilosis

      Correct Answer: Candida albicans

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infection and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. Other non albicans species include C.tropicalis, C.glabrata, C.krusei and C.parapsilosis. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does...

    Incorrect

    • A patient undergoes oophorectomy and the ovarian veins are ligated. Which vein does the right ovary drain into?

      Your Answer: Right renal vein

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The right ovarian vein travels through the suspensory ligament of the ovary and generally joins the inferior vena cava whereas the left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Cell death via convergent thermoradiation heating effect

      Correct Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation

      Explanation:

      Radiotherapy works on the principle of ionisation. In particularly that of water leading to the formation of free radicals, these radicals are highly reactive and they react with the DNA leading to damage and cell death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with histories of obesity and type 2 diabetes Mellitus comes to you for advice as she is planning to conceive in next three months. Her blood sugar levels are under control with a HBA1C value of 6%.

      Among the following which is an essential supplement for her?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Correct Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Patient mentioned above is a known case of type 2 diabetes which makes her at high risk of having neural tube defects. She should be advised to start taking a high dose of (5mg) folic acid supplement daily for at least 1-month prior to conception and it should be continued upto 12 weeks of her pregnancy.

      Folate, which is a water-soluble B vitamin, is usually obtained from diet or through supplementation. For those patients with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, who are planning for pregnancy, high doses are recommended to prevent any possible neural tube defects.

      Vitamin A is not safe and should be avoided in pregnancy due to chances for toxicity.

      Vitamin C and iron are not considered as essential vitamins to be taken during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone?

      Your Answer: Malabsorption syndrome

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Giving DMPA to a woman with a severe bleeding disorder may result in a large haematoma at the injection site.

      Women who want to become pregnant within 18 months or who are afraid of injections should be discouraged from using DMPA. Progestogen-only methods are unsuitable for women unwilling to accept menstrual changes.

      Relative contraindications are active viral hepatitis and severe chronic liver disease. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin. This may result in lowered efficacy.

      Migraine, malabsorption syndrome, smoking and history of liver disease have not been identified as contraindications to mini pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      45.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after...

    Correct

    • You are called to review a baby with cyanosis when feeding immediately after birth. Subsequent investigation and imaging reveals choanal atresia. Upon questioning the mother reveals she had been getting repeat prescriptions from her GP in Poland without her UK GPs' or your knowledge. Which of the following medication was most likely to cause this?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Explanation:

      This is one of the defects attributable to Carbimazole use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most useful tumour marker for monitoring of ovarian cancer patients?

      Your Answer: CEA

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      CA-125 has found application as a tumour marker or biomarker that may be elevated in the blood of some patients with specific types of cancers, or other conditions that are benign. Increased level of CA125 appears in fifty percent of stage 1 ovarian cancer patients and more than 90% with stages 2-4 ovarian cancer. CA-125 is therefore a useful tool for detecting ovarian cancer after the onset of symptoms as well as monitoring response to treatment and for predicting a patient’s prognosis after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old patient presents to clinic with a maculopapular rash to the hands and soles of the feet. Examination reveals wart like lesions on the vagina and a diagnosis of condyloma latum is made. What stage of syphilis infection is this?

      Your Answer: Primary

      Correct Answer: Secondary

      Explanation:

      Condylomas are warty neoplasms of the vulvar area. The most common type are condyloma acuminatum which occur due to HPV 6 or 11. Condyloma latum are also known as secondary syphilis are less common. Both of these are sexually transmitted.

      Stages of Syphilis:
      – Primary 3-90 days
      Chancre and lymphadenopathy
      – Secondary 4-10 weeks
      Widespread rash typically affecting hands and soles of feet.
      Wart lesions (condyloma latum) of mucus membranes
      – Latent Early <1 yr. after secondary stage
      – Late >2 yr. after secondary stage
      Asymptomatic
      – Tertiary 3+ years after primary infection
      Gummas or
      Neurosyphilis or
      Cardiovascular syphilis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old G1 woman at 8 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic due to complaints of nausea and vomiting over the past week and has been occurring on a daily basis. Nausea and emesis are known to be a common symptom in early pregnancy.

      Which of the following is considered an indicator of a more serious diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      In severe cases of hyperemesis, complications include vitamin deficiency, dehydration, and malnutrition, if not treated appropriately. Wernicke encephalopathy, caused by vitamin-B1 deficiency, can lead to death and permanent disability if left untreated. Additionally, there have been case reports of injuries secondary to forceful and frequent vomiting, including oesophageal rupture and pneumothorax.

      Electrolyte abnormalities such as hypokalaemia can also cause significant morbidity and mortality. Additionally, patients with hyperemesis may have higher rates of depression and anxiety during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy. She also has a past medical history of a migraine.

      What among the following will be the most appropriate management in this case?

      Your Answer: Codein and metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: Codein and promethazine

      Explanation:

      This patient should be given promethazine and codeine as she presents with severe migraine.

      Usage of metoclopramide is safe during pregnancy and for increasing effectiveness it can be added to paracetamol. However, because of its risk for causing extrapyramidal effects it should be used only as a second-line therapy and Promethazine should be considered as the first line choice of remedy. So the answer is Codeine and promethazine.

      Opioid pain relievers such as codeine are not been reported of having any associated with increased birth defects or miscarriage, but its long-term use can lead to dependency in mother and withdrawal signs in the baby.

      Paracetamol alone or combined with codeine is not found to be useful in controlling vomiting.

      It is advised to completely avoid dihydroergotamine and the triptans throughout pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In the foetus, the most well oxygenated blood flows into which part of...

    Incorrect

    • In the foetus, the most well oxygenated blood flows into which part of the heart:

      Your Answer: Ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Right atrium

      Explanation:

      The placenta accepts the blue, unoxygenated blood from the foetus through blood vessels that leave the foetus through the umbilical cord (umbilical arteries, there are two of them). When blood goes through the placenta it picks up oxygen and becomes red. The red blood then returns to the foetus via the third vessel in the umbilical cord, the umbilical vein. The red blood that enters the foetus passes through the fetal liver and enters the right side of the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      48.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.

    She complains of a fever...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old university student presents to the emergency department.

      She complains of a fever and purulent vaginal discharge.

      She add that's four days ago, she underwent a suction curettage for an unwanted pregnancy which occurred after a university party.

      On examination, she has a temperature of 38.4°C.

      Which organism is the most probable cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause of her presentation is a mixed infection with Chlamydia trachoma and vaginal pathogens.

      Her most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) as suggested by a purulent vaginal discharge alongside a fever which indicates a systemic infection.

      The most common causative organisms in PID after sexual activity are chlamydia and gonorrhoea, of which chlamydia has a much higher prevalence.

      Chlamydia has also been shown to be present in about 15% of subjects who underwent pregnancy termination with no constant sexual partner.

      PID occurring after a gynaecologic surgical procedure is most commonly a result of mycoplasma or vaginal pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct in the treatment of a case of threatened abortion:

      Your Answer: Oral stilbesterol

      Correct Answer: Bed rest

      Explanation:

      Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the normal pH value of an umbilical arterial sample of a...

    Incorrect

    • What is the normal pH value of an umbilical arterial sample of a new born term baby?

      Your Answer: 7.1

      Correct Answer: 7.2

      Explanation:

      The normal range for a term baby is pH: 7.18 – 7.38, and preterm pH: 7.14 – 7.4. A pH below 7.1 therefore indicates acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old lady presents with amenorrhea of 11-months’ duration. Her periods were previously normal and regular. She is planned for an assessment of her FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) and oestradiol (E2) levels.

      Assuming she has attained menopause, which pattern would most likely be found?

      Your Answer: Normal FSH and normal E2.

      Correct Answer: High FSH and low E2.

      Explanation:

      High FSH and low E2 levels would be expected in menopause. FSH levels would be raised as her body attempts to stimulate ovarian activity and E2 would be low due to reduced ovarian function. The other options would be possible if she was younger, and if occurring with amenorrhea, would warrant further hormonal tests.

      It is often challenging to interpret hormone test results close to the time of menopause, especially if the woman is still experiencing irregular menstruation, as remaining ovarian follicles might still produce oestrogen, causing both bleeding and FSH suppression. Elevation of FSH then can be seen again once the oestrogen level drops. Hence, the results would be influenced by the timing of blood sample collection. Once amenorrhea occurs more consistently, it would be easier to interpret the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old mother with a 9-year-old child is considering having a second child. Her first pregnancy was complicated by puerperal psychosis. Following electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), she promptly recovered and has been well until now. She is in excellent health and her husband has been very supportive. According to patient files, she was noted to be an excellent mother.

      What would be the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: If she gets pregnant, then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy.

      Correct Answer: There is a 15-20% chance of recurrence of psychosis postpartum.

      Explanation:

      Puerperal psychosis seems to be mainly hereditary and closely associated with bipolar disorder especially the manic type, rather than being a distinct condition with a group of classical symptoms or course. Postpartum psychoses typically have an abrupt onset within 2 weeks of delivery and may have rapid progression of symptoms. Fortunately, it is generally a brief condition and responds well to prompt management. If the condition is threatening the mother and/or baby’s safety, hospital admission is warranted. A patient can present with a wide variety of psychotic symptoms ranging from delusion, passivity phenomenon, catatonia, and hallucinations. While depression and mania may be the predominating features, it is not surprising to see symptoms such as confusion and stupor. Although the rate of incidence is about 1 in 1000 pregnancies, it is seen in about 20% of women who previously had bipolar episodes prior to pregnancy. It has not been shown to be linked with factors such as twin pregnancies, stillbirth, breastfeeding or being a single parent. However, it might be more commonly seen in women who are first-time mothers and pregnancy terminations.

      The risk of recurrence is 20%. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment guideline but organic causes should first be ruled out. First generation/typical anti-psychotics are often associated with extrapyramidal symptoms. Nowadays, atypical antipsychotics such as risperidone or olanzapine can be used along with lithium which is a mood stabiliser. As of now, there hasn’t been any significant side effects as a result of second generation antipsychotic use in pregnancy. While women are usually advised to stop breast-feeding, it might be unnecessary except if the mother is being treated with lithium which has been reported to cause side effects on the infants in a few instances. ECT is considered to be highly efficacious for all types of postpartum psychosis and may be necessary if the mother’s condition is life-threatening to herself or/and the baby. If untreated, puerperal psychosis might persist for 6 months or even longer.

      The options of saying ‘in view of her age and previous problem, further pregnancies are out of the question’ and so is ‘By all means start another pregnancy and see how she feels about it. If she has misgivings, then have the pregnancy terminated.’ are inappropriate.

      As mentioned earlier, considering there is a 20% chance of recurrence it is not correct to say that since she had good outcomes with her first pregnancy, the risk of recurrence is minimal.

      Anti-psychotics are not recommended to be used routinely both during pregnancy and lactation due to the absence of long-term research on children with intrauterine and breastmilk exposure to the drugs. Hence it is not right to conclude that ‘if she gets pregnant then she should take prophylactic antipsychotics throughout the pregnancy’ as it contradicts current guidelines. Each case should be individualised and the risks compared with the benefits to decide whether anti-psychotics should be given during pregnancy. It is important to obtain informed consent from both the mother and partner with documentation.

      Should the mother deteriorates during the pregnancy that she no longer is capable of making decisions about treatment, then an application for temporary guardianship should be carried out to ensure that she can be continued on the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following amniotic fluid indexes define oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: < 8 cm

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      An assessment of amniotic fluid in pregnancy can be done by taking ultrasound measurements of the depth of amniotic fluid pockets. The combination of the measurements in four quadrants is called the amniotic fluid index (AFI), one of the major determinants of the biophysical profile which predicts pregnancy outcome. An AFI of less than 5 cm, or less than the 5th percentile is defined as oligohydramnios while an AFI of more than 25 cm is considered polyhydramnios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      68
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for antenatal advice because she plans to get pregnant soon. However, she is worried about how she should change her diet once she becomes pregnant already.

      Which of the following is considered the best to give to the patient in addition to giving folic acid?

      Your Answer: Fish oil

      Correct Answer: Iodine

      Explanation:

      There is evidence that folic acid, iodine and vitamin D are important for reproductive outcomes. Folic acid and iodine supplementation is recommended for women planning to conceive and in pregnancy.

      The recommended dose of folic acid for women without special considerations planning to conceive is 400-500 mcg. The recommended dose of folic acid for women with special considerations is 2-5 mg per day.

      Women planning a pregnancy, including those with thyroid disease, should take iodine supplements in the dose of 150 mcg per day prior to and during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      42.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Uterine Cervix: ...

    Incorrect

    • Uterine Cervix:

      Your Answer: Laterally is attached to the round ligament

      Correct Answer: Is the portion of the uterus below the isthmus

      Explanation:

      The uterus is divisible into two portions. The portion above the isthmus is termed the body, and that below, the cervix. The uterine cervix is the narrow inferior segment of the uterus, which projects into the vaginal cavity. It is a fibromuscular organ lined by a mucous membrane and measures approximately 3cm in length and 2.5cm in diameter. The cervix is continuous at its superior margins with the body of the uterus and at its inferior margins with the vagina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy....

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient with a scan suggestive of partial molar pregnancy. What is the typical genotype of a partial molar pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 69 XXY

      Explanation:

      The partial mole is produced when an egg is fertilized by two sperm producing genotype 69 XXY (triploid). It can also occur when one sperm reduplicates itself yielding the genotypes 92 XXXY (tetraploid) though this is less common The genotype of a complete mole is typically 46 XX (diploid) but can also be 46 XY (diploid)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman with irregular menstrual cycle has a positive pregnancy test. She wants to know the age of her baby.

      Which of the following methods is considered the most accurate for estimating gestational age?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 20 weeks

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound at 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Ultrasound has emerged as the more accurate method of assessing fetal gestational age, especially in the first trimester. Both transvaginal and transabdominal probe assessments are used to obtain a more accurate measurement of gestational age. Transvaginal is more helpful in first trimester pregnancies.

      A transvaginal ultrasound exam should not be performed in a pregnant patient with vaginal bleeding and known placenta previa, a pregnant patient with premature rupture of membranes, and a patient who refuses exam despite informed discussion.

      Sonographic assessment within the first 13 weeks and 6 days will provide the most accurate estimate of gestational age. Both transvaginal and transabdominal approaches may be used. However, the transvaginal approach may provide a more clear and accurate view of early embryonic structures. Although the gestational sac and yolk sac are the first measurable markers visible on ultrasound, these poorly correlate with gestational age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of action of Tranexamic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits Plasminogen Activation

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic drug which is one of the treatment options in menorrhagia i.e. heavy menstrual bleeding. It acts by binding to the receptor sites on plasminogen thus preventing plasmin from attaching to those receptors thus inhibiting plasminogen activation.

      If pharmaceutical treatment is appropriate NICE advise treatments should be considered in the following order:

      1. levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS) provided at least 12 months use is anticipated
      2. tranexamic acid or NSAIDs* or combined oral contraceptives (COCs) or cyclical oral progestogens
      3. Consider progesterone only contraception e.g. injected long-acting progestogens

      *When heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) coexists with dysmenorrhoea NSAIDs should be preferred to tranexamic acid. Also note NSAIDs and tranexamic are appropriate to use if treatment needed pending investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Management (5/6) 83%
Biophysics (2/4) 50%
Anatomy (0/4) 0%
Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (5/7) 71%
Gynaecology (1/4) 25%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Physiology (0/2) 0%
Passmed