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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a pillar outlined in the PMTCT program for achieving zero HIV, syphilis, and TB transmissions from mothers to their infants?
Your Answer: Primary prevention of HIV, especially among women of childbearing potential
Correct Answer: Providing appropriate treatment, care, and support to women living with TB, their children, partners, and families
Explanation:The PMTCT program focuses on preventing HIV, syphilis, and TB transmissions from mothers to their infants. The pillars outlined in the program include primary prevention of HIV and TB, preventing unintended pregnancies among women living with HIV, preventing disease transmission from a woman diagnosed with syphilis to her infant, and providing appropriate treatment, care, and support to women living with HIV and their families.
The statement Providing appropriate treatment, care, and support to women living with TB, their children, partners, and families is not a pillar outlined in the PMTCT program. While it is important to provide appropriate treatment, care, and support to individuals living with TB, this specific aspect is not directly related to preventing transmissions from mothers to their infants. The focus of the PMTCT program is on preventing transmissions of HIV, syphilis, and TB specifically from mothers to their infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man notices a pruritic scaly annular rash on his thigh. He claims that the rash appeared after a walk in the park. Which drug would you suggest he starts?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Correct Answer: Doxycycline
Explanation:The 32-year-old man likely has erythema migrans, which is a characteristic rash seen in Lyme disease. This rash typically appears as a red, expanding rash with central clearing, resembling a bull’s eye. The rash is often accompanied by flu-like symptoms such as fever, fatigue, and headache.
Doxycycline is the antibiotic of choice for treating Lyme disease caused by Borrelia burgdorferi. It is effective in treating the infection and preventing further complications. Erythromycin, penicillin, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin are not typically used to treat Lyme disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Approximately what percentage of the world is infected with tuberculosis:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Tuberculosis (TB) is a highly contagious bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs. It is estimated that one-third of the world’s population is infected with TB, with the majority of cases occurring in developing countries. This means that approximately 0.3 (or 30%) of the world’s population is infected with TB.
TB is spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, making it easy for the bacteria to be transmitted to others. While not everyone who is infected with TB will develop active disease, those who do can experience symptoms such as coughing, chest pain, and fatigue.
Efforts to control and prevent the spread of TB include early detection, treatment with antibiotics, and vaccination. Despite these efforts, TB remains a significant global health concern, particularly in regions with limited access to healthcare and resources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough and an enlarged cervical lymph node. Examination reveals a caseating granuloma in the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TB adenitis
Explanation:Tuberculous lymphadenitis, also known as TB adenitis, is the most likely diagnosis in this case. This condition is caused by an infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or a related bacteria. The presence of a caseating granuloma in the enlarged cervical lymph node is a characteristic finding in tuberculous lymphadenitis.
Lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system and typically presents with painless swelling of lymph nodes, rather than caseating granulomas. Thyroid carcinoma, goitre, and thyroid cyst are all conditions that affect the thyroid gland and would not typically present with an enlarged cervical lymph node containing a caseating granuloma.
Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and examination findings, TB adenitis is the most likely diagnosis in this case. Treatment typically involves a combination of antibiotics to target the mycobacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with blisters on her skin. She reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by her primary care physician, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, the patient has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral lesions that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy with immunofluorescent examination reveals circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other symptoms may this patient be experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes
Explanation:Understanding Pemphigus Vulgaris: An Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Pemphigus vulgaris is a blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged individuals. It is caused by IgG autoantibodies against desmosomal components, specifically desmogleins 1 and 3, in the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that easily rupture, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early on, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are typically positive. Treatment involves high-dose steroids and may require life-long maintenance doses. In contrast, bullous pemphigoid, which affects older individuals, is characterized by antibodies against hemidesmosomes in the deeper basement membrane of the skin, resulting in tense, firm blisters that do not rupture easily. Psoriasis, alopecia, and HIV are not linked to pemphigus vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which condition warrants urgent diagnosis and treatment when presenting with a low hemoglobin level in HIV-positive patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Opportunistic infection (OI)
Explanation:HIV-positive patients are at an increased risk for opportunistic infections (OIs) due to their compromised immune system. When a low hemoglobin level is present in these patients, it may indicate an underlying OI that is causing anemia. Anemia can be a common complication of OIs such as mycobacterium avium complex (MAC), cytomegalovirus (CMV), or disseminated histoplasmosis.
Prompt diagnosis and treatment of the underlying OI is crucial in these cases to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s overall health.
In contrast, conditions such as hyperlipidemia, immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS), osteoporosis, and lipomastia may also be present in HIV-positive patients, but they do not typically present with a low hemoglobin level as a primary symptom. Therefore, when a low hemoglobin level is identified in an HIV-positive patient, the focus should be on ruling out and treating any underlying opportunistic infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An HIV+ patient in their 60s attends clinic in view of ongoing depression. You note a number of cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck. These are also apparent on the mucous membranes. Which of the following would you most suspect?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The question presents a scenario of an HIV+ patient in their 60s with ongoing depression and cutaneous lesions in the form of purple-red macules on their face and neck, as well as on the mucous membranes. Given these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis would be Kaposi’s sarcoma.
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a tumor that develops due to human herpesvirus 8, and it is commonly associated with AIDS. The characteristic presentation of Kaposi’s sarcoma includes red to purple-red macules on the skin that progress to papules, nodules, and plaques. These lesions are typically found on the head, back, neck, trunk, and mucous membranes.
In this case, the presence of purple-red macules on the face, neck, and mucous membranes aligns with the typical presentation of Kaposi’s sarcoma in an HIV+ patient. Therefore, this would be the most likely diagnosis among the options provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which mechanism of action does Quinolones use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase
Explanation:Quinolones work by inhibiting DNA gyrase, which is an enzyme that is essential for the replication and repair of bacterial DNA. By blocking the action of DNA gyrase, quinolones prevent the bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating, ultimately leading to the death of the bacteria. This mechanism of action is specific to quinolones and is different from other classes of antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis, RNA polymerase, protein synthesis, or folic acid metabolism. Overall, quinolones are effective in treating a wide range of bacterial infections due to their ability to interfere with bacterial DNA replication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 8-week-old boy diagnosed with HIV is seen in clinic for follow-up evaluation after a diagnosis of HIV was confirmed 2 days prior. The child was born to a mother who was diagnosed with HIV at the time of delivery, and the mother’s initial HIV RNA level was 71,357 copies/mL. The infant was prescribed a 6-week course of three-drug antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but there were concerns about the number of actual doses the infant received. Four days ago the infant had HIV RNA testing and the result was positive. Repeat HIV RNA testing of the infant 2 days ago is now also positive. Initial Laboratory studies for the infant show a CD4 count of 1,238 cells/mm3, CD4 percentage of 31%, and an HIV RNA level of 237,200 copies/mL. An HIV genotypic drug resistance test is ordered.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate management for the infant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently
Explanation:This question presents a case of an 8-week-old infant diagnosed with HIV, born to a mother with HIV. The infant had received some antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but ultimately tested positive for HIV. The initial laboratory studies show a high HIV RNA level and normal CD4 count. The question asks for the most appropriate management for the infant.
The correct answer is to initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently. This is based on the Pediatric ART Guidelines, which recommend urgent initiation of antiretroviral therapy for all infants younger than 12 months of age with confirmed HIV infection, regardless of clinical status, CD4 count, or CD4 percentage. Early initiation of antiretroviral therapy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of HIV-related morbidity and mortality in infants with HIV.
It is important to note that antiretroviral therapy should not be delayed while waiting for results from HIV drug resistance testing. The regimen can be adjusted later based on the results of the drug resistance testing. The urgency in starting treatment is crucial in order to provide the best possible outcome for the infant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 10
Incorrect
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According to the 2023 guidelines, what lab tests should be conducted for pregnant women newly diagnosed with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Creatinine and CD4 count
Explanation:When a pregnant woman is newly diagnosed with HIV, it is important to conduct certain lab tests to assess her overall health and determine the best course of treatment. Creatinine testing is essential to evaluate kidney function, as some HIV medications can affect the kidneys. A CD4 count is also crucial as it indicates the strength of the immune system and helps determine when to start antiretroviral therapy (ART) to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV.
Additionally, hepatitis B and C screening is recommended as co-infection with these viruses can worsen the prognosis of HIV. A full hematological profile can provide information on red and white blood cell counts, which may be affected by HIV. Liver function tests are important as HIV can also impact liver health.
Genetic testing for ART resistance may be considered to determine the most effective medications for the pregnant woman. Overall, these lab tests help healthcare providers tailor treatment plans to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What action is recommended if a client's viral load remains below 50 c/mL after three months of persistent low-grade viremia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enhanced adherence support and monitoring
Explanation:Persistent low-grade viremia refers to a situation where a client’s viral load remains detectable but below the threshold of 50 copies/mL despite being on antiretroviral therapy (ART). In this scenario, it is important to assess the client’s adherence to their medication regimen, as poor adherence is a common cause of low-grade viremia.
The recommended action of providing enhanced adherence support and monitoring is based on the understanding that improving adherence can lead to better viral suppression. This may involve working closely with the client to address any barriers to adherence, providing education on the importance of taking medications as prescribed, and offering additional support such as pillboxes or reminder systems.
Switching to a different regimen or conducting resistance testing may not be necessary if the client’s viral load is still below 50 c/mL, as long as adherence can be improved. It is important to continue monitoring the client’s viral load to ensure that it remains suppressed over time.
Overall, the goal is to support the client in achieving optimal viral suppression and maintaining their health through consistent adherence to their ART regimen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the recommended action for pregnant women who are newly diagnosed with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer immediate initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) regardless of CD4 count or clinical stage
Explanation:Pregnant women who are newly diagnosed with HIV are recommended to immediately initiate antiretroviral therapy (ART) regardless of their CD4 count or clinical stage. This is because ART has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV, as well as improve the health outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Delaying initiation of ART until after delivery can increase the risk of transmission to the baby and may also compromise the health of the mother. Referring the woman to a specialist for further evaluation may delay the start of treatment and potentially increase the risk of transmission. Offering supportive care without ART is not recommended as ART is the standard of care for managing HIV in pregnant women. Encouraging the woman to seek a second opinion before starting ART may also delay treatment and increase the risk of transmission. Therefore, immediate initiation of ART is the recommended action for pregnant women who are newly diagnosed with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her primary care physician (PCP) complaining of yellow vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal odor, vulvar itching, and pain while urinating. During the examination, the PCP notices a purulent discharge and a patchy erythematous lesion on the cervix. The PCP suspects Trichomonas vaginalis as the possible diagnosis. What would be the most suitable investigation to assist in the diagnosis of T. vaginalis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wet mount and high vaginal swab
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted disease caused by the protozoan parasite T. vaginalis. While both men and women can be affected, women are more likely to experience symptoms. Diagnosis of trichomoniasis is typically made through wet mount microscopy and direct visualisation, with DNA amplification techniques offering higher sensitivity. Urine testing is not considered the gold standard, and cervical swabs are not sensitive enough. Treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole, and sexual partners should be treated simultaneously. Trichomoniasis may increase susceptibility to HIV infection and transmission. Symptoms in women include a yellow-green vaginal discharge with a strong odour, dysuria, pain on intercourse, and vaginal itching. Men may experience penile irritation, mild discharge, dysuria, or pain after ejaculation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A histology report of a cervical biopsy taken from a patient with tuberculosis revealed the presence of epithelioid cells. What are these cells formed from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Epithelioid cells are a type of macrophage that have enlarged and flattened out, resembling epithelial cells. In the context of tuberculosis, these cells are found in granulomas, which are structures formed by the immune system in response to the infection. The presence of epithelioid cells in a cervical biopsy from a patient with tuberculosis indicates the formation of granulomas in the tissue as part of the body’s defense mechanism against the infection. This finding is important for diagnosing tuberculosis and monitoring the progression of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An elderly man presents with complaints of a chronic cough with haemoptysis and night sweats on a few nights per week for the past four months. He is known to smoke 12 cigarettes per day and he had previously undergone treatment for Tuberculosis seven years ago.
His blood pressure was found to be 143/96 mmHg and he is mildly pyrexial 37.5°C. Evidence of consolidation affecting the right upper lobe was also found.
Investigations;
Hb 11.9 g/dl
WCC 11.1 x109/l
PLT 190 x109/l
Na+ 138 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
Creatinine 105 μmol/l
CXR Right upper lobe cavitating lesion
Aspergillus precipitins positive
Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:This question presents a case of an elderly man with a chronic cough, haemoptysis, night sweats, and a history of smoking and previous tuberculosis treatment. The patient also has evidence of consolidation in the right upper lobe on chest X-ray and positive Aspergillus precipitins.
The most likely diagnosis in this case is aspergilloma. Aspergilloma is a fungus ball that develops in a pre-existing cavity in the lung parenchyma. It is commonly seen in patients with pre-existing cavitary lung diseases such as tuberculosis. Symptoms of aspergilloma may include cough, haemoptysis, and fever. The presence of positive Aspergillus precipitins further supports the diagnosis.
The other options provided in the question are less likely based on the clinical presentation and investigations. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis typically presents with asthma-like symptoms and eosinophilia. Invasive aspergillosis is a severe infection that occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Reactivated tuberculosis would typically present with symptoms similar to the initial infection. Lung cancer would have a different presentation on imaging and would not be associated with positive Aspergillus precipitins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are busy in the A&E department. In your haste to finish all the jobs in time, you attain a needle stick injury while taking blood samples from a patient. The patient is known as an IV drug user.
Which of the following is the most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Run the injury under a cold tap and allow it to bleed
Explanation:Proper Response to Needlestick Injuries: Running the Injury Under a Cold Tap
Needlestick injuries can be frightening, especially when dealing with patients with a history of IV drug use. However, it is important to remain calm and take immediate action. The most appropriate response is to run the injury under a cold tap and encourage it to bleed. This will help to flush out any potential pathogens. Afterward, seek advice and treatment from A&E or the Occupational Health department. It is also important to report the incident to Occupational Health, but only after taking care of the injury. Going through the patient’s notes may be helpful in ordering tests for HIV and hepatitis, but it is not the first thing to do. Leaving work and going home is not an option as it is a probity issue. Remember to prioritize your own safety and seek help when needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the recommended dose of Zidovudine (AZT) for infants aged birth to 6 weeks and weighing between 2.0 to 2.49 kg?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 ml (15 mg) once daily
Explanation:Zidovudine (AZT) is a medication commonly used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. In infants aged birth to 6 weeks and weighing between 2.0 to 2.49 kg, the recommended dose of Zidovudine is 1.5 ml (15 mg) twice daily. This dosage is based on the weight of the infant and is important to ensure the medication is effective and safe for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT considered a contraindication to TB preventive therapy (TPT) during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prior history of TB exposure
Explanation:During pregnancy, it is important to consider the risks and benefits of any medication or treatment, including TB preventive therapy (TPT). A positive TB symptom screen, alcohol abuse, liver disease, known hypersensitivity to INH, and prior history of TB exposure are all considered contraindications to TPT during pregnancy due to potential risks to the mother and fetus.
A positive TB symptom screen indicates active TB infection, which requires treatment with different medications than TPT. Alcohol abuse can affect the metabolism and effectiveness of TB medications. Liver disease can impact the ability to metabolize medications properly. Known hypersensitivity to INH can lead to severe allergic reactions.
However, a prior history of TB exposure is not considered a contraindication to TPT during pregnancy. In fact, if a pregnant woman has been exposed to TB in the past, she may be at higher risk of developing active TB during pregnancy and could benefit from TPT to prevent this outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is recommended for all HIV-positive mothers on ART at six months postpartum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat VL testing regardless of the delivery VL result
Explanation:All HIV-positive mothers on ART at six months postpartum should have repeat VL testing, regardless of the delivery VL result.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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When is it recommended to perform the first viral load (VL) test after initiating ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After 3 dispensing cycles
Explanation:The first viral load (VL) test after initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial in monitoring the effectiveness of the treatment and ensuring viral suppression. Performing the VL test after 3 dispensing cycles allows for enough time for the medication to take effect and for the viral load to decrease to undetectable levels.
Immediately after starting ART may not provide an accurate reflection of viral suppression as it takes time for the medication to work. Waiting until 6 weeks may also be too soon to see significant changes in viral load. Waiting until 6 months or 1 year may delay the detection of any issues with viral suppression, potentially leading to treatment failure or the development of drug resistance.
By performing the first VL test after 3 dispensing cycles, healthcare providers can identify any potential issues early on and make necessary adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure optimal outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding breastfeeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended, but mixed feeding with formula milk is acceptable with ARV drugs.
Explanation:Breastfeeding is a complex issue, especially for mothers living with HIV. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months of a baby’s life, as breast milk provides essential nutrients and antibodies that help protect against infections. However, for mothers living with HIV, there is a risk of transmitting the virus to their baby through breastfeeding.
Mixed feeding with formula milk is not preferred over exclusive breastfeeding because formula milk does not provide the same level of protection against infections and may increase the risk of HIV transmission. Additionally, mixed feeding without proper guidance and support can lead to challenges in maintaining maternal viral suppression.
Antiretroviral (ARV) drugs can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission through breastfeeding. Therefore, the WHO Practice Statements emphasize that exclusive breastfeeding is recommended, but mixed feeding with formula milk is acceptable in the presence of ARV drugs and maternal viral suppression. It is important for mothers living with HIV to work closely with healthcare providers to develop a feeding plan that prioritizes the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What should healthcare workers do before reporting an adverse drug reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Complete an adverse drug reaction report form in detail
Explanation:Before reporting an adverse drug reaction, healthcare workers should complete an adverse drug reaction report form in detail. This is important because the information provided on the form will help healthcare professionals and regulatory agencies understand the nature of the reaction, the patient’s medical history, the medication involved, and any other relevant details. By providing as much detail as possible, healthcare workers can help ensure that the adverse drug reaction is properly documented and investigated. Waiting for confirmation from other colleagues, ignoring the reaction if it seems insignificant, discarding the medication involved, or reporting the reaction to the pharmaceutical company directly are not appropriate steps to take before reporting an adverse drug reaction. Completing the adverse drug reaction report form in detail is the best course of action to ensure that the reaction is properly documented and addressed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:
HBsAg Positive
HBeAg Positive
What is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin
Explanation:In cases where a mother is known to have chronic hepatitis B and has positive results for both HBsAg and HBeAg, the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate to the newborn is to give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine along with hepatitis B immunoglobulin. This combination helps provide immediate protection to the newborn against the virus.
The presence of HBeAg indicates that the mother is actively infected and can transmit the virus to others, including her newborn. By giving both the vaccine and immunoglobulin to the newborn, the chances of vertical transmission are significantly reduced.
It is important to follow the guidelines provided in the Green Book, which recommend giving the vaccine and immunoglobulin in cases of active infection. If the mother had antibodies present (anti-Hbe), indicating a non-active infection, then only the vaccine would be given to the newborn.
Overall, the combination of hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulin is the most effective strategy for reducing the risk of vertical transmission of hepatitis B from an infected mother to her newborn.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination
Explanation:Infants born to mothers with TB are at a higher risk of contracting TB themselves due to exposure during pregnancy or childbirth. Therefore, it is recommended to start TB preventive therapy (TPT) for these infants to reduce the risk of developing active TB disease. BCG vaccination is also recommended for infants born to mothers with TB as it can provide some protection against severe forms of TB in children.
Initiating ART immediately is not necessary for infants born to mothers with TB unless they are also HIV-positive. Discontinuing breastfeeding is not recommended as breastfeeding provides important nutrients and antibodies that can help protect the infant from infections. Conducting a sputum culture test is not necessary for infants born to mothers with TB unless they are showing symptoms of TB. Administering high-dose vitamin supplementation is not specifically recommended for infants born to mothers with TB unless there is a specific deficiency identified.
In conclusion, the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB is to start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination to reduce the risk of developing active TB disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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How should Dolutegravir (DTG) dosing be adjusted when an individual is also receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the DTG dose to 50 mg 12-hourly
Explanation:When an individual is receiving both Dolutegravir (DTG) and rifampicin-containing TB treatment, there is a potential for drug interactions that can affect the efficacy of DTG. Rifampicin is known to increase the metabolism of DTG, leading to lower DTG concentrations in the body. To counteract this effect and ensure that DTG remains effective in treating HIV, the dosing of DTG should be increased to 50 mg 12-hourly.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Increase the DTG dose to 50 mg 12-hourly. This adjustment helps to maintain adequate levels of DTG in the body and ensures that the antiretroviral therapy remains effective during TB treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection affects how many pregnancies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a common viral infection that can be passed from mother to baby during pregnancy. It is estimated that CMV affects about 1 in 150 pregnancies. Of those pregnancies affected by CMV, about 30% will transmit the virus to the fetus. And of those fetuses that are infected with CMV, about 30% will show symptoms of the infection.
Therefore, out of 200 pregnancies, 1 will be affected by CMV. Out of those affected pregnancies, 30% will transmit the virus to the fetus, resulting in about 0.3 fetuses being infected. And out of those infected fetuses, about 30% will show symptoms of the infection, resulting in about 0.09 fetuses being affected.
So, the overall likelihood of a fetus being affected by congenital CMV infection is about 1 in 1500 pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this 17-year-old man with fever, pre-auricular swelling, bilateral tenderness, and acute pain and otalgia on the right side of his face is mumps. Mumps is a viral infection that typically presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever, followed by painful swelling of the parotid glands. It is common for the swelling to be bilateral in mumps.
The other options provided in the question are not consistent with the symptoms described. Acute mastoiditis would typically present with ear discharge, headache, and hearing loss in addition to otalgia. Acute otitis externa would present with ear discharge, itching, and otalgia, but not necessarily with pre-auricular swelling. Acute otitis media would present with specific findings upon otoscopy, and otitis media with effusion would typically present with hearing loss as the main symptom.
Therefore, based on the symptoms described, mumps is the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female presented with complaints of earache and a high-grade fever. During examination, numerous small vesicles were found within the ear canal and her ear is very tender. Which one of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for such a condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:Herpes zoster, also known as shingles, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus, which initially causes chickenpox. When the virus reactivates, it can cause painful vesicular lesions in a specific dermatome area, such as the ear canal in this case. The high-grade fever may be present due to the infection.
Varicella zoster is the virus responsible for chickenpox, not shingles. Measles is caused by the measles virus and presents with a characteristic rash, but not tender lesions in a specific area. Herpes simplex virus can cause cold sores or genital herpes, but not the specific presentation described in the question. HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to various opportunistic infections, but it does not typically present with tender lesions in a specific area like herpes zoster.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman who is sexually active is having deep dyspareunia and vaginal discharge. She has a negative smear for Gonococcus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Deep dyspareunia, or pain during deep penetration, along with vaginal discharge in a sexually active woman can be indicative of a pelvic infection. In this case, the negative smear for Gonococcus rules out gonorrhea as the cause. Chlamydia trachomatis is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which presents with symptoms such as deep dyspareunia and vaginal discharge.
Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection characterized by a fishy odor and thin, grayish discharge, but it is less likely to cause deep dyspareunia. Candidiasis, or a yeast infection, typically presents with itching and thick, white discharge, and is less likely to cause deep dyspareunia as well.
Carcinoma vulva and herpes simplex are less likely in this case, as they typically present with different symptoms and are not common causes of deep dyspareunia and vaginal discharge in a young sexually active woman.
Therefore, the most likely diagnosis in this case is Chlamydia trachomatis, which can lead to PID and present with deep dyspareunia and vaginal discharge. Treatment typically involves antibiotics such as tetracyclines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Listeria infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for the fetus, with a fetal case mortality rate of 0.25. This means that 25% of fetuses affected by listeria infection do not survive. Listeria Monocytogenes is a bacteria that can be transmitted to the fetus through the placenta, leading to congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is contaminated food, particularly unpasteurised milk.
Congenital listeriosis can result in a range of complications for the fetus, including spontaneous abortions, premature birth, and chorioamnionitis. Neonates born with listeriosis may present with symptoms such as septicaemia, respiratory distress, and inflammatory granulomatosis. The overall case mortality rate for listeriosis is estimated to be between 20-30%, highlighting the severity of this infection during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 31
Incorrect
-
Regarding female urinary tract infections, which organism is the most common causative agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia Coli
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common health issue, especially among women. The most common causative agent of UTIs in females is Escherichia Coli, also known as E. Coli. E. Coli is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment and in the gastrointestinal system of humans.
E. Coli is able to cause UTIs in females by entering the urinary tract through the urethra and multiplying in the bladder. This can lead to inflammation and infection of the urinary tract, resulting in symptoms such as frequent urination, burning sensation during urination, and lower abdominal pain.
While E. Coli is the most common causative agent of UTIs in females, other bacteria such as Klebsiella species, Proteus species, and various Enterococci can also cause UTIs. It is important for individuals experiencing symptoms of a UTI to seek medical attention and receive appropriate treatment, which usually involves antibiotics to clear the infection. Additionally, practicing good hygiene, staying hydrated, and urinating after sexual intercourse can help prevent UTIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
Which of the following options is NOT a primary objective of antenatal care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Screen for tuberculosis and other opportunistic infections
Explanation:Antenatal care is essential for ensuring the health and well-being of both the mother and the unborn child during pregnancy. The primary objectives of antenatal care typically include identifying and managing various health conditions that can affect the pregnancy and the health of the mother and baby.
In the options provided, identifying HIV infection and achieving viral suppression, identifying and treating syphilis and other infections, preventing transmission of hepatitis B virus (HBV) and other infections, and providing routine antenatal care according to guidelines are all primary objectives of antenatal care. These objectives focus on preventing and managing infectious diseases that can impact the health of the mother and baby during pregnancy.
However, screening for tuberculosis and other opportunistic infections is not typically considered a primary objective of antenatal care. While it is important to screen for and manage these infections, they are not directly related to the health of the mother and baby during pregnancy. Antenatal care primarily focuses on ensuring a healthy pregnancy and addressing any potential risks or complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on IV ceftriaxone after undergoing a lumbar puncture. The CSF culture shows listeria monocytogenes. What is the treatment of choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Change to IV amoxicillin + gentamicin
Explanation:Listeria monocytogenes is a bacterium that can cause serious infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals and the elderly. When treating listeria meningitis, the treatment of choice is a combination of ampicillin and gentamicin. Ampicillin is effective against listeria monocytogenes, while gentamicin is added to provide synergistic activity and improve outcomes.
In this case, the patient was initially started on IV ceftriaxone, which is not the optimal treatment for listeria monocytogenes. Therefore, the best course of action would be to change the antibiotic regimen to IV ampicillin and gentamicin. This combination therapy has been shown to be effective in treating listeria meningitis and reducing mortality rates.
The other options provided, such as IV amoxicillin, IV ciprofloxacin, IV co-amoxiclav, and continuing IV ceftriaxone as monotherapy, are not recommended for the treatment of listeria monocytogenes. It is important to promptly switch to the appropriate antibiotics to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eukaryotes
Explanation:Protozoa are a type of pathogenic group that falls under the category of eukaryotes. Eukaryotes are organisms whose cells have a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Protozoa are single-celled organisms that exhibit animal-like behaviors, such as motility and predation. They can be parasitic and cause diseases in humans and other animals. Therefore, when asked which pathogenic group Protozoa belongs to, the correct answer is Eukaryotes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
When should a patient failing first-line therapy be switched to second-line therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Based on the 2020 NDOH steps for failing first-line therapy.
Explanation:When a patient fails first-line therapy, it is important to switch to second-line therapy in a timely manner to prevent further progression of the disease and potential drug resistance. The decision to switch to second-line therapy should be based on clinical guidelines, such as the 2020 NDOH steps for failing first-line therapy. These guidelines provide specific criteria for when to switch to second-line therapy, such as persistent viral load above a certain threshold or clinical progression of the disease.
Switching to second-line therapy should not be delayed, as this can lead to further complications and decreased treatment efficacy. It is important to closely monitor the patient’s response to first-line therapy and be prepared to switch to second-line therapy as soon as necessary.
In conclusion, the decision to switch to second-line therapy should be based on clinical guidelines and the specific needs of the patient. It is important to act promptly and effectively to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
For a patient newly diagnosed with HIV and a CD4 count below 50, presenting with both TBM and cryptococcal meningitis, in what order should treatment be initiated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat both simultaneously and initiate ART after 6-8 weeks.
Explanation:When a patient is diagnosed with both TBM and cryptococcal meningitis, it is important to initiate treatment promptly to prevent further complications and improve outcomes. Both conditions are serious infections that require immediate attention.
In this scenario, the best approach would be to treat both conditions simultaneously. There is no specific guideline indicating which infection should be treated first, but it is common practice to start treatment for both infections at the same time. This approach ensures that both infections are addressed promptly and effectively.
After initiating treatment for TBM and cryptococcal meningitis, it is recommended to wait for 6-8 weeks before starting antiretroviral therapy (ART). This waiting period allows for the initial treatment of the infections to take effect and stabilize the patient before introducing ART. Starting ART too soon can potentially worsen the symptoms of the infections or lead to complications.
Overall, the priority should be to treat both TBM and cryptococcal meningitis simultaneously and then initiate ART after the initial treatment has had time to work. This approach can help improve the patient’s overall health and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which cells are primarily targeted and destroyed by HIV, leading to immunodeficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD4+ lymphocytes
Explanation:HIV primarily targets and destroys CD4+ lymphocytes, which are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system. CD4+ lymphocytes are responsible for coordinating the body’s immune response to infections and diseases. When HIV infects these cells, it replicates inside them and eventually leads to their destruction. As the number of CD4+ lymphocytes decreases, the body becomes more susceptible to infections and is unable to mount an effective immune response.
The destruction of CD4+ lymphocytes by HIV ultimately leads to immunodeficiency, where the body’s immune system is weakened and unable to effectively fight off infections. This is why individuals with HIV are at a higher risk of developing opportunistic infections and certain types of cancers. By targeting and destroying CD4+ lymphocytes, HIV undermines the body’s ability to protect itself, resulting in the development of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) in untreated individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
What innovative approach do guidelines introduce to streamline HIV management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Simplified ART provision and harmonised methods of management for different patient groups
Explanation:The innovative approach introduced by the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines to streamline HIV management is the implementation of simplified ART provision and harmonized methods of management for different patient groups. This approach is crucial in ensuring that individuals living with HIV/AIDS receive consistent and efficient care, regardless of their age, gender, or specific health needs. By simplifying the process of providing ART and harmonizing management methods, healthcare providers can improve the quality of care, enhance treatment effectiveness, and ultimately improve patient outcomes.
Encouraging traditional healers to manage ART, mandatory hospitalization for all individuals on ART, phasing out ART in favor of alternative medicines, and making ART available only through online consultations are not recommended approaches for streamlining HIV management. These strategies may not align with evidence-based practices and could potentially hinder access to quality care for individuals living with HIV/AIDS. Instead, the focus should be on implementing guidelines that promote standardized and effective care delivery for all patient groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection. Her mother had her first episode of HSV three weeks prior to delivery. The infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion. What is the case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection in neonates can be a serious and life-threatening condition, especially when it presents as disseminated infection. In this case, the infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion, which is crucial in improving outcomes.
The case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment is 0.3, or 30%. This means that even with treatment, there is still a significant risk of mortality for these infants. However, without treatment, the case fatality rate for disseminated HSV infection is much higher at 85%.
It is important for healthcare providers to be vigilant for signs of HSV infection in neonates, especially in cases where the mother has a history of HSV or had a recent outbreak before delivery. Early recognition and prompt treatment with antivirals can greatly improve the chances of survival for these infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements concerning hepatitis D is TRUE:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can only be transmitted with, or to somebody who is infected with, Hepatitis B.
Explanation:Hepatitis D is a viral infection that can only occur in individuals who are already infected with Hepatitis B. This is because the Hepatitis D virus requires the presence of the Hepatitis B virus to replicate and cause infection in the liver. Therefore, the statement It can only be transmitted with, or to somebody who is infected with, Hepatitis B is true.
The other statements provided are not accurate. Hepatitis D is not transmitted by the faecal-oral route, it is not only transmitted with Hepatitis C, coinfection with hepatitis D can impact the severity of disease, and Hepatitis D is not protective against hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
When should ART initiation occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After a comprehensive assessment, including the eligibility and determination of the timeframe for ART initiation
Explanation:The correct answer is: After a comprehensive assessment, including the eligibility and determination of the timeframe for ART initiation
This answer is supported by the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines, which stress the importance of conducting a thorough assessment before initiating ART. This assessment helps determine the patient’s eligibility for treatment and establishes the appropriate timeframe for starting ART based on their individual health status and circumstances. By following this approach, healthcare providers can ensure that ART is initiated under optimal conditions, leading to better treatment outcomes and minimizing potential risks. This personalized approach to ART initiation is crucial for achieving viral suppression and preventing opportunistic infections, especially in patients who may be considering pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
What is the primary reason for deferring antiretroviral therapy (ART) initiation for two weeks in asymptomatic clients with a negative lumbar puncture for cryptococcal meningitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To optimize the effectiveness of antifungal treatment
Explanation:ART initiation is deferred by two weeks in asymptomatic clients with a negative lumbar puncture for cryptococcal meningitis to optimize the effectiveness of antifungal treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
A migrant from Eastern Europe needs to have screening performed for tuberculosis (TB) because he is a high-risk patient.
Which statement concerning TB screening in the UK is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaccination with the BCG can result in a false positive test
Explanation:In the UK, TB screening for high-risk patients, such as migrants from Eastern Europe, is important to detect and prevent the spread of tuberculosis. One true statement concerning TB screening in the UK is that vaccination with the BCG can result in a false positive test. This is because the BCG vaccine can cause a reaction in the Mantoux test, leading to a false positive result.
The Mantoux test involves the injection of 5 Tuberculin units (0.1mL) intradermally and the result is read 2-3 days later. This test replaced the Heaf test as the TB screening test in the UK in 2005. The ‘Sterneedle’ gun is used to inject 100,000 units/ml of tuberculin purified protein derivative into the skin for the Heaf test, not the Mantoux test.
It is important to note that the interferon gamma release assay (IGRA) should not be used for neonates, as it is not as reliable in this age group. Overall, TB screening in the UK involves various tests and considerations to accurately detect and manage tuberculosis in high-risk individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
How should clinicians manage clients on TLD (Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir) who have a viral load ≥ 1000 c/mL after at least two years on treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform a resistance test before any changes
Explanation:When a client on TLD (Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir) has a viral load ≥ 1000 c/mL after at least two years on treatment, it is important to assess the situation carefully before making any changes to the regimen. Performing a resistance test is crucial in this scenario as it helps determine if the client has developed resistance to any of the components of the TLD regimen. This information is essential for clinicians to make informed decisions about the next steps in managing the client’s HIV treatment.
Switching immediately to a third-line regimen may not be necessary if the resistance test shows that the client’s virus is still susceptible to the current TLD regimen. Continuing TLD and focusing on addressing adherence issues may be a more appropriate approach in this case. If the resistance test reveals resistance to one or more components of TLD, then adding another antiretroviral drug to the current regimen or switching to a third-line regimen may be necessary.
In conclusion, performing a resistance test before making any changes to the regimen for clients on TLD with a viral load ≥ 1000 c/mL after at least two years on treatment is essential for appropriate management based on the resistance profile. This approach ensures that the client receives the most effective and personalized treatment for their HIV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
What change was made to TDF weight-related eligibility criteria according to 2023 guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased from 35 kg to 30 kg
Explanation:The weight-related eligibility criteria for TDF (Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate) were decreased from 35 kg to 30 kg according to the 2023 guidelines. This change was made to make TDF more accessible to a wider group of patients initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART). By lowering the weight requirement, more individuals who may benefit from TDF treatment will now be eligible to receive it. This change reflects a commitment to improving access to essential medications for all individuals living with HIV/AIDS, regardless of their weight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
When should a urine pregnancy test be conducted according to the provided guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the client's last menstrual period occurred at the expected time
Explanation:A urine pregnancy test should be conducted if the client’s last menstrual period occurred at the expected time because this is a common indicator of pregnancy. If a woman misses her period, it is often the first sign that she may be pregnant. Therefore, conducting a urine pregnancy test in this situation can help confirm or rule out pregnancy as a potential cause for the missed period. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure that pregnancy is properly identified and managed in a timely manner.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old primigravida woman presents to the maternity centre in labour at 39 weeks. She has been diagnosed with HIV and has been on regular antiretroviral therapy. Her viral load at 37 weeks is as follows:
HIV Viral Load 35 RNA copies/mL (0-50)
What delivery plan would be most suitable for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue with normal vaginal delivery
Explanation:If a pregnant woman has a viral load of less than 50 copies/mL at 36 weeks, vaginal delivery is recommended. Therefore, in this case, the correct answer is to proceed with vaginal delivery. It is not necessary to prepare for a caesarian section as the pregnancy is considered safe without surgical intervention. Re-testing the HIV viral load is not necessary as the current recommendation is to test at 36 weeks. Starting antiretroviral infusion during vaginal delivery is also not necessary as the woman is already on regular therapy and has an undetectable viral load. Antiretroviral infusion is typically used during a caesarean section when the viral load is greater than 50 copies/mL.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 48
Incorrect
-
How is WHO clinical staging used in monitoring clients on ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To evaluate treatment response and disease progression
Explanation:WHO clinical staging is a standardized system used to assess the clinical status of individuals living with HIV/AIDS. It categorizes patients into different stages based on the presence of specific signs and symptoms related to HIV infection. This staging system is important in monitoring clients on antiretroviral therapy (ART) as it helps healthcare providers evaluate treatment response and disease progression.
The stages in the WHO clinical staging system provide valuable information on the severity of the disease and help guide healthcare providers in making decisions regarding treatment. By regularly assessing clients using the WHO clinical staging system, healthcare providers can track changes in their clinical status over time and make adjustments to their treatment plan as needed.
In addition to evaluating treatment response and disease progression, WHO clinical staging can also be used to determine eligibility for ART initiation, guide ART regimen selection, and assess adherence to treatment. By incorporating WHO clinical staging into routine monitoring of clients on ART, healthcare providers can ensure that patients are receiving the appropriate care and support to effectively manage their HIV infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old sexually active man comes to the clinic complaining of a rash that has been present all over his body for the past two weeks. He also reports having a painless sore on his penis a few weeks prior to the onset of the rash. Upon examination, a maculopapular rash is observed on his entire body, including the palms of his hands and soles of his feet. However, his penis appears normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secondary syphilis
Explanation:Syphilis and its Symptoms
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The disease is transmitted through intimate contact with an infected person. The primary symptom of syphilis is a painless ulcer called a chancre, which may not be reported by the patient. The secondary stage of syphilis is characterized by a maculopapular rash that affects the entire body, including the palms and soles. This rash is known as keratoderma blennorrhagica.
It is important to note that HIV seroconversion illness may also present with a rash, but it typically does not affect the palms and soles. Additionally, constitutional symptoms such as fever and malaise are common with HIV seroconversion illness. None of the other conditions typically present with a rash.
Treatment for secondary syphilis involves the use of long-acting penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
What is the maximum duration of isoniazid (INH) dosing for TB-exposed neonates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Isoniazid (INH) is a medication commonly used for the treatment and prevention of tuberculosis (TB). When it comes to TB-exposed neonates, it is important to provide them with the appropriate duration of INH dosing to ensure effective treatment and prevention of the disease.
The maximum duration of isoniazid (INH) dosing for TB-exposed neonates is typically recommended to be 6 months. This duration is based on clinical guidelines and studies that have shown that a 6-month course of INH is effective in preventing the development of active TB in neonates who have been exposed to the disease.
While longer durations of INH dosing may be considered in certain cases, such as if the neonate is at high risk for developing TB or if there are other complicating factors, the standard recommendation is to provide a 6-month course of treatment. This duration strikes a balance between providing adequate protection against TB and minimizing the potential for side effects or complications associated with prolonged medication use.
Overall, the 6-month duration of isoniazid (INH) dosing for TB-exposed neonates is based on evidence-based guidelines and recommendations to ensure the best possible outcomes for these vulnerable patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
What is the purpose of screening pregnant and postnatal women for depression and anxiety according to the text?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To identify women who may need additional psychosocial support
Explanation:Screening pregnant and postnatal women for depression and anxiety is crucial because these conditions can have a significant impact on both the mother and the baby. Depression and anxiety can affect a woman’s ability to care for herself and her child, as well as her overall well-being. By identifying women who may be at risk for these mental health issues, healthcare providers can offer appropriate support and interventions to help them cope and manage their symptoms. This can ultimately lead to better outcomes for both the mother and the baby, as well as improve the overall experience of pregnancy and childbirth. Therefore, the purpose of screening pregnant and postnatal women for depression and anxiety is to identify those who may need additional psychosocial support in order to promote their mental health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
What action is recommended if an infant is suspected to be HIV positive at the end of TB preventive therapy (TPT)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue ART treatment
Explanation:When an infant is suspected to be HIV positive at the end of TB preventive therapy (TPT), it is important to continue ART treatment to manage the HIV infection. ART (antiretroviral therapy) is crucial in controlling the virus and preventing the progression of HIV to AIDS. By continuing ART treatment, the infant can receive the necessary medication to suppress the virus and maintain their overall health.
Stopping TPT immediately may not be the best course of action as the infant still needs to be treated for HIV. Repeat HIV-PCR testing after 6 months may be necessary to confirm the HIV status of the infant. Giving BCG vaccination is not directly related to managing HIV infection. Referring to a virologist for further management may be necessary, but continuing ART treatment is the immediate action recommended to address the suspected HIV infection in the infant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
What laboratory evaluation should be performed to identify asymptomatic clients who need pre-emptive fluconazole treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptococcal antigen test (CrAg)
Explanation:Asymptomatic clients who are HIV-positive are at risk for developing cryptococcal meningitis. The Cryptococcal antigen test (CrAg) is a laboratory test that can detect the presence of Cryptococcus neoformans, the fungus that causes cryptococcal meningitis, in the blood or cerebrospinal fluid.
Pre-emptive fluconazole treatment is recommended for asymptomatic HIV-positive individuals who test positive for CrAg, as it can help prevent the development of cryptococcal meningitis. Therefore, performing a Cryptococcal antigen test (CrAg) is essential in identifying asymptomatic clients who may benefit from pre-emptive fluconazole treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 54
Incorrect
-
What is the likely clinical diagnosis for the 30-year-old woman presenting with a 3-week history of a dry cough and fatigue, who is HIV positive with a CD4 count of 25 cells/ul and is not on ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis Pneumonia
Explanation:Pneumocystis Pneumonia is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV, particularly those with low CD4 counts. The symptoms of Pneumocystis Pneumonia include a dry cough, shortness of breath, fatigue, and fever. The fact that the patient has a low CD4 count of 25 cells/ul indicates severe immunosuppression, putting her at high risk for opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis Pneumonia. Additionally, the 3-week history of symptoms is consistent with the typical progression of Pneumocystis Pneumonia in HIV-positive individuals.
It is important for this patient to be promptly diagnosed and treated for Pneumocystis Pneumonia, as it can be a life-threatening infection in individuals with compromised immune systems. Treatment typically involves antibiotics such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and corticosteroids. Additionally, initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial to improve the patient’s immune function and prevent future opportunistic infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 55
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anaerobe
Explanation:Clostridium infection is best described as being caused by anaerobic Gram-positive bacilli. Clostridium bacteria are anaerobes, meaning they thrive in environments without oxygen. They are also Gram-positive, which means they have a thick cell wall that retains a violet dye during the Gram staining process. Clostridium bacteria are typically rod-shaped and are capable of forming endospores, which are resistant structures that allow them to survive in harsh conditions. Some important human pathogens within the Clostridium genus include Clostridium botulinum, which causes botulism, and Clostridium difficile, a common cause of diarrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 69-year-old male with a history of Hepatitis C liver cirrhosis presented with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. He had no symptoms of hypovolaemia. Choose the best treatment option to prevent the patient from developing hepatorenal syndrome.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous albumin administration
Explanation:Hepatorenal syndrome is a serious complication of liver cirrhosis that can lead to kidney failure. In patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, the risk of developing hepatorenal syndrome is increased. In this case, the best treatment option to prevent the patient from developing hepatorenal syndrome is intravenous albumin administration.
Albumin has been shown in randomized controlled trials to have a positive effect on circulatory systems, which can help prevent the development of hepatorenal syndrome. Central venous pressure monitoring can help assess the patient’s fluid status, but in this case, the patient does not have symptoms of hypovolaemia. Intravenous dopamine infusion is not indicated for the prevention of hepatorenal syndrome.
Regular lactulose use is primarily used for the prevention of hepatic encephalopathy, which is not relevant in preventing hepatorenal syndrome. Neomycin, while sometimes used for hepatic encephalopathy, is associated with nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity and is not recommended for preventing hepatorenal syndrome.
Therefore, in this case, the best treatment option to prevent the patient from developing hepatorenal syndrome is intravenous albumin administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 57
Incorrect
-
Who should report adverse drug reactions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All healthcare workers
Explanation:Adverse drug reactions can have serious consequences for patients, including hospitalization, disability, and even death. It is important for all healthcare workers to report any suspected adverse reactions to medicines in order to ensure patient safety and improve the overall understanding of drug safety. By reporting these reactions, healthcare workers can contribute valuable information to regulatory agencies and pharmaceutical companies, which can lead to changes in drug labeling, dosing recommendations, or even the withdrawal of a drug from the market. Therefore, it is crucial for all healthcare workers to be vigilant and proactive in reporting adverse drug reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 58
Incorrect
-
What action should be taken if an infant is asymptomatic but born to a mother diagnosed with TB?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination
Explanation:Infants born to mothers diagnosed with TB are at a higher risk of contracting the disease themselves, even if they are asymptomatic at birth. TB preventive therapy (TPT) is recommended for these infants to reduce the risk of developing active TB later in life. BCG vaccination is also recommended as it can provide some protection against severe forms of TB in infants.
Initiating ART immediately is not necessary for asymptomatic infants born to mothers with TB, as they are not yet showing symptoms of the disease. Discontinuing breastfeeding is not recommended, as breastfeeding is important for the overall health and development of the infant. Conducting a sputum culture test is not necessary for asymptomatic infants, as they are not showing any signs of TB. Admitting the infant to the hospital for observation is also not necessary unless there are specific concerns about the infant’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A patient with a diagnosis of HIV presents with a fever, sore throat, and general malaise and you are concerned the patient may have an AIDS defining illness.
Which one of these, according to the CDC definition, would mean a patient infected with HIV has AIDS?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD4 T-cell percentage of total lymphocytes of less than 15%
Explanation:According to the CDC definition, a patient co-infected with HIV can be diagnosed with AIDS if he or she has:
A CD4 T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 or;
A CD4 T-cell percentage of total lymphocytes of less than 15% or;
An AIDS defining infectionA Streptococcal throat infection is not an AIDS defining infection.
A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3. A CD4 (not CD8) count of less than 200 cells/mm3 is AIDS defining.
The CD4 count can vary from day to day and depending upon the time that the blood test is taken. It can also be affected by the presence of other infections or illnesses. Treatment with antiretroviral therapy should be considered at CD4 count of less than 350 cells/mm3.
Serum concentrations of the p24 antigen (the viral protein that makes up most of the core of the HIV) are usually high in the first few weeks after human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and testing for p24 antigen is therefore a useful way of diagnosing very early infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 60
Incorrect
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When should cotrimoxazole be stopped for infants according to the provided text?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: When PCR is negative ≥ 6 weeks after full cessation of breastfeeding AND infant is clinically HIV negative
Explanation:Cotrimoxazole is an antibiotic commonly used to prevent and treat infections in infants who are exposed to HIV. In the context of HIV-exposed infants, it is important to continue cotrimoxazole until it is deemed safe to stop based on certain criteria.
Cotrimoxazole should be stopped for infants when PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) testing is negative for HIV ≥ 6 weeks after full cessation of breastfeeding AND the infant is clinically HIV negative. This criteria ensures that the infant has not been infected with HIV and is no longer at risk of developing HIV-related infections.
Therefore, stopping cotrimoxazole in this scenario is safe and appropriate as it indicates that the infant is no longer in need of the antibiotic for HIV prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of her having a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism causes such manifestations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:During pregnancy, if a mother contracts cytomegalovirus (CMV), it can be passed on to the developing fetus. CMV is a common virus that can cause mild symptoms in healthy individuals, but can be more serious for pregnant women and their unborn babies. In this case, the mother’s history of sore throat, fever, and lymphadenitis during pregnancy suggests that she may have been infected with CMV.
Cytomegalovirus can cause cytomegalo-inclusion syndrome in infants, which can lead to symptoms such as hearing loss, developmental delays, and vision problems. The fact that the paediatrician has concerns about the baby’s hearing at 6 months old suggests that the baby may be showing signs of hearing loss, which is a common manifestation of CMV infection.
Therefore, the most likely organism causing the manifestations described in this scenario is cytomegalovirus (CMV). The other options listed, such as chorioamnionitis, Group B Streptococcus, listeriosis, and varicella zoster virus, do not typically present with the same symptoms as CMV infection in infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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What drug class does Dolutegravir (DTG) belong to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors
Explanation:Dolutegravir (DTG) belongs to the drug class known as Integrase Strand Transfer Inhibitors (InSTI). This class of drugs works by blocking the action of the enzyme integrase, which is responsible for inserting the viral DNA into the host cell’s DNA. By inhibiting this process, InSTIs prevent the virus from replicating and spreading throughout the body.
Protease Inhibitors, Non-nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors, and Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors are other classes of drugs used in antiretroviral therapy (ART) for the treatment of HIV. However, Dolutegravir specifically belongs to the InSTI class.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old Asian male presents with cervical lymphadenopathy. The patient is suspected to have tuberculous lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of one of the nodes showed granulomatous inflammation. Which histopathologic feature is most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caseation necrosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis is a chronic infectious disease caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It primarily affects the lungs but can also involve other organs, including lymph nodes. In cases of tuberculous lymphadenopathy, the lymph nodes become enlarged and may form granulomas, which are collections of immune cells that form in response to the infection.
Caseation necrosis is the histopathologic feature most likely consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis. Caseation necrosis is a type of necrosis characterized by a cheese-like appearance due to the presence of lipid-laden macrophages. This type of necrosis is commonly seen in tuberculosis infections and is a key feature in the diagnosis of the disease.
Liquefactive necrosis, on the other hand, is a type of necrosis characterized by the formation of a liquid-filled cavity in the tissue. This type of necrosis is not typically associated with tuberculosis.
The presence of fibroblasts, Gram positive cocci, and neutrophils are not specific features of tuberculosis and are not typically seen in cases of tuberculous lymphadenopathy.
In summary, the presence of caseation necrosis in granulomas is a key histopathologic feature that is consistent with the diagnosis of tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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What action should healthcare providers take when managing a client on ART who develops a drug-sensitive TB according?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ensure the TB treatment and ART are managed in an integrated manner to avoid increased visits.
Explanation:When managing a client on antiretroviral therapy (ART) who develops drug-sensitive tuberculosis (TB), healthcare providers should ensure that the TB treatment and ART are managed in an integrated manner. This means that both treatments should be coordinated and monitored during the same clinical consultation visits to avoid the need for additional visits and reduce the risk of the patient becoming disengaged or lost to follow-up.
The other options provided in the question are not recommended actions for managing a client on ART who develops drug-sensitive TB. Immediately discontinuing ART can have negative consequences for the patient’s HIV management, and starting TB treatment only after completing ART can delay necessary treatment for TB. Referring the patient to a specialized TB treatment center and discontinuing ART management may lead to fragmented care and potential gaps in treatment. Treating TB and HIV independently can also increase the risk of drug interactions and complications for the patient.
In summary, integrating TB management and ART for clients with drug-sensitive TB is the recommended approach to ensure comprehensive and effective care for these individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 65
Incorrect
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What is the purpose of Enhanced Adherence Counselling (EAC) as outlined in the guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To address issues with adherence to treatment and develop strategies to overcome barriers
Explanation:Enhanced Adherence Counselling (EAC) is a specialized form of counseling aimed at individuals who are struggling with adhering to their treatment regimen, particularly in the context of HIV/AIDS treatment. The purpose of EAC, as outlined in the guidelines, is to address issues with adherence to treatment and develop strategies to overcome barriers that may be hindering the individual’s ability to consistently take their medication as prescribed.
The options provided in the question highlight the importance of EAC in providing education, support, and guidance to individuals who may be experiencing challenges with adherence. While EAC does involve educating clients about the side effects of antiretroviral therapy (ART) and monitoring viral load, its primary focus is on addressing adherence issues and developing strategies to improve treatment adherence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl known with HIV develops lipoatrophy over her thighs and abdomen.
Which of the following medications can cause this side effect?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zidovudine
Explanation:Lipoatrophy is a condition characterized by the loss of fat tissue in specific areas of the body, such as the thighs and abdomen. In individuals with HIV, lipoatrophy can be a side effect of certain antiretroviral medications.
Among the options provided, zidovudine is known to cause lipoatrophy as a side effect. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) commonly used in the treatment of HIV. NRTIs like zidovudine and stavudine are associated with fat loss, particularly in the subcutaneous tissue of the limbs and face.
Enfuvirtide, efavirenz, and raltegravir are other classes of antiretroviral medications that are not commonly associated with lipoatrophy. Enfuvirtide is an HIV-fusion inhibitor, efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), and raltegravir is an integrase inhibitor. These medications may have other side effects, but lipoatrophy is not typically one of them.
Ganciclovir, on the other hand, is not an anti-HIV medication but is used to treat cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. It is not associated with lipoatrophy.
In conclusion, among the options provided, zidovudine is the medication most likely to cause lipoatrophy in a 15-year-old girl with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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Which antiretroviral therapy (ART) drugs are recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infection in people living with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TDF with 3TC (or FTC)
Explanation:Chronic hepatitis B infection is a common co-infection in people living with HIV, as both viruses can be transmitted through similar routes. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) drugs that are effective against both HIV and hepatitis B are recommended for the treatment of individuals with this co-infection.
Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) with either lamivudine (3TC) or emtricitabine (FTC) are recommended as first-line treatment for chronic hepatitis B infection in people living with HIV. These drugs have been shown to effectively suppress both viruses and are generally well-tolerated.
Other options for treatment include TDF with 3TC (or FTC) or TDF with 3TC (or FTC) in combination with other antiretroviral drugs. Zidovudine (AZT) with lamivudine (3TC) is not typically recommended for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B infection in people living with HIV, as it may not be as effective against hepatitis B as the other recommended drug combinations.
It is important for individuals with HIV and chronic hepatitis B infection to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment regimen for their specific needs and to monitor their progress regularly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A urine culture of a 50-year-old patient with urosepsis has isolated a multi-drug resistant Escherichia coli. What is the most likely reason for the multidrug resistance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production
Explanation:The most likely reason for the multidrug resistance in the isolated Escherichia coli from the urine culture of the 50-year-old patient with urosepsis is extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production. ESBLs are enzymes that are capable of breaking down and inactivating a wide range of beta-lactam antibiotics, making the bacteria resistant to these drugs. This includes commonly used antibiotics such as penicillins and cephalosporins. ESBL production is a major mechanism of resistance in E.coli and can lead to treatment challenges as the bacteria become resistant to multiple classes of antibiotics. In such cases, alternative antibiotics such as carbapenems, cephamycins, and beta-lactamase inhibitors may be used to treat infections caused by ESBL-producing bacteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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When should all HIV-exposed infants receive a birth HIV-PCR test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At 6 days postpartum
Explanation:HIV-exposed infants are at risk of acquiring HIV from their HIV-positive mothers during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. To identify HIV transmission that may have occurred in-utero, it is recommended that all HIV-exposed infants receive a birth HIV-PCR test at 6 days postpartum. This early testing allows for prompt identification of HIV infection in infants, which is crucial for initiating early treatment and improving outcomes. Testing at 6 days postpartum also helps differentiate between HIV infection acquired in-utero versus during childbirth or breastfeeding. Early diagnosis and treatment of HIV in infants can significantly reduce the risk of disease progression and improve long-term health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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How often should the effectiveness of ART be assessed through plasma HIV RNA levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Every 6 months
Explanation:The effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in managing HIV is typically assessed by measuring plasma HIV RNA levels. Once a person’s HIV RNA levels become undetectable, it is recommended to continue monitoring these levels every 6 months to ensure that the treatment is still working effectively. This frequency allows healthcare providers to track any changes in viral load and make adjustments to the treatment plan if necessary. Monitoring every 6 months strikes a balance between ensuring the treatment is still effective and minimizing the burden of frequent testing on the individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old female patient presents with jaundice. She tells you that she is known to have a chronic hepatitis B infection.
Which of the following hepatitis B serology results is consistent with a patient that is chronically infected? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, anti-HBc positive, IgM anti-HBc negative
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
Susceptible to infection:
HBsAg = Negative
Anti-HBc = Negative
Anti-HBs = NegativeImmune due to natural infection:
HBsAg = Negative
Anti-HBc = Positive
Anti-HBs = PositiveImmune due to vaccination:
HBsAg = Negative
Anti-HBc = Negative
Anti-HBs = PositiveAcute infection:
HBsAg = Positive
Anti-HBc = Positive
Anti-HBs = Negative
IgM anti-HBc = PositiveChronic infection:
HBsAg = Positive
Anti-HBc = Positive
Anti-HBs = Negative
IgM anti-HBc = Negative -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody diarrhoea. What is the most probable aetiology?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157
Explanation:The most probable etiology for the 6-year-old boy’s symptoms of fever, malaise, and bloody diarrhea is Escherichia coli 0157. This particular strain of E. coli, known as enterohemorrhagic verotoxin-producing E. coli, is known to cause bloody diarrhea and can lead to complications such as hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Crohn’s disease is unlikely in this case as it typically presents with chronic symptoms rather than an acute onset. Polio and giardiasis are also less likely as they typically present with non-bloody diarrhea.
Overall, given the symptoms described, E. coli 0157 is the most probable cause of the boy’s illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for 6 months. Abdominal ultrasound scan showed a tubo-ovarian mass. What is the most likely organism, which is responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:The most likely organism responsible for the presentation of weight loss, night sweats, and abdominal pain in a 45-year-old female with a tubo-ovarian mass is Mycobacterium tuberculosis. This is because the constitutional symptoms of weight loss, evening pyrexia, and night sweats are classic signs of tuberculosis. TB can affect any part of the body, including the reproductive organs, leading to the formation of masses such as the tubo-ovarian mass seen on the ultrasound scan.
Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Staphylococcus aureus are not typically associated with the symptoms described in this case. Entamoeba histolytica is a parasitic infection that can cause abdominal pain, but it is not commonly associated with weight loss and night sweats.
Therefore, given the clinical presentation and the presence of a tubo-ovarian mass, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the most likely organism responsible for this patient’s symptoms. Further testing, such as a biopsy or culture of the mass, may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of breathlessness and pyrexia. She's been diagnosed with eczema and tuberculosis (TB). The following findings were established: pre-bronchodilator test=2/3.5, post-bronchodilator=3/3.7. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:The clinical picture of the patient together with paraclinical investigations (spirometry) suggest COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man from Russia presents with a history of cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Suspecting tuberculosis, you begin investigations.
All the following statements regarding tuberculosis (TB) are true EXCEPT?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corticosteroid use is not a risk factor for developing TB
Explanation:Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Corticosteroid use is indeed a risk factor for developing TB because corticosteroids suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections like TB.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis does not fluoresce with auramine staining, but it does fluoresce with Ziehl-Neelsen staining. Pott’s disease, a form of TB that affects the spine, most commonly affects the lower thoracic and upper lumbar regions. Cavitation, the formation of cavities or holes in the lungs, most commonly occurs at the lung apices.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis cannot be Gram stained because it has a unique cell wall composition that does not allow for the retention of the Gram stain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:HIV positive individuals have a weakened immune system, which can increase their risk of developing certain types of cancer. Breast cancer, however, is not one of the cancers that is typically increased in HIV positive people. This is because breast cancer is not typically associated with immune suppression, unlike other cancers such as seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer. It is important for HIV positive individuals to be aware of their increased risk for certain types of cancer and to undergo regular screenings and follow-up care to detect any potential issues early.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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According to the 2023 Guideline for the Prevention of Vertical Transmission of Communicable Infections, what documentation is recommended for managing records of HIV-positive women and their infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet
Explanation:The 2023 Guideline for the Prevention of Vertical Transmission of Communicable Infections emphasizes the importance of proper documentation for managing records of HIV-positive women and their infants. The recommended documents for this purpose are The Maternity Case Record for the mother and The Road to Health Booklet for the HIV-exposed infant.
The Maternity Case Record is a comprehensive document that tracks the mother’s health care and treatment practices throughout her pregnancy, delivery, and postpartum period. It includes information on prenatal care, HIV testing and treatment, delivery details, and postpartum follow-up. By using this record, healthcare providers can ensure that the mother receives appropriate care and that her HIV status is properly managed.
The Road to Health Booklet is a similar document designed for infants, including those who are exposed to HIV. It tracks the infant’s growth, development, and immunization status, as well as any HIV testing and treatment they may require. By using this booklet, healthcare providers can monitor the infant’s health and ensure they receive the necessary care to prevent vertical transmission of HIV.
Overall, using these recommended documents allows for comprehensive and systematic tracking of health care and treatment practices for HIV-positive women and their infants, ultimately helping to prevent vertical transmission of HIV and improve health outcomes for both mother and child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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What class of antidepressants was developed through research on the treatment of tuberculosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MAOIs
Explanation:The class of antidepressants that was developed through research on the treatment of tuberculosis is the MAOIs (Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors). The first two MAOIs, isoniazid and iproniazid, were originally used to treat tuberculosis but were found to have mood-elevating effects in some patients. This led to their repurposing for the treatment of depression in 1957. However, due to concerns about toxicity, these specific MAOIs were withdrawn in 1961. Subsequently, other MAOIs were developed for the treatment of depression.
Amphetamines are not classified as antidepressants, as they are stimulants rather than mood stabilizers. Tetracyclics are closely related to tricyclic antidepressants, which were developed from research on anaesthetic agents. Overall, the history and classification of antidepressants are complex and varied, with different drugs being developed for different purposes and with different mechanisms of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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The percentage of patients with hepatitis B that develop chronic infection is about:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. When someone is infected with hepatitis B, their immune system will typically clear the virus within a few months. However, in some cases, the virus is not completely eliminated from the body and the infection becomes chronic.
The percentage of patients with hepatitis B that develop chronic infection is about 10%. This means that out of every 100 people infected with hepatitis B, approximately 10 will go on to develop a chronic infection. Chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious complications such as cirrhosis (scarring of the liver) and hepatocellular carcinoma (a type of liver cancer).
On the other hand, about 90% of people who are infected with hepatitis B will develop lifelong immunity after clearing the infection. This means that their immune system will be able to recognize and fight off the virus if they are exposed to it again in the future.
The risk of chronic infection and complications like cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma is higher in individuals who are infected with hepatitis B at birth (congenital infection) compared to healthy adults. In healthy adults, the risk of chronic infection and liver complications is lower, at around 5%.
Overall, it is important for individuals who are at risk of hepatitis B infection to get vaccinated and for those who are already infected to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to prevent the development of chronic infection and its complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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By what mechanism do retroviruses, including HIV, replicate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reverse transcription
Explanation:Retroviruses, such as HIV, replicate through a unique mechanism known as reverse transcription. This process involves the conversion of the virus’s RNA genome into DNA copies, which can then integrate into the host cell’s genome.
Binary fission is a method of asexual reproduction in which a cell divides into two identical daughter cells, commonly seen in bacteria and some single-celled organisms. This process is not used by retroviruses for replication.
Budding is a method of viral replication in which new virus particles are released from the host cell by taking a portion of the cell membrane with them. While some viruses, like the influenza virus, replicate through budding, retroviruses like HIV do not use this mechanism.
The lytic cycle is a method of viral replication in which the virus infects a host cell, replicates within the cell, and then causes the cell to burst, releasing new virus particles. Retroviruses do not replicate through the lytic cycle.
Transformation is a process by which a cell takes up foreign DNA from its surroundings and incorporates it into its own genome. This mechanism is not used by retroviruses for replication.
In conclusion, retroviruses, including HIV, replicate through reverse transcription, which involves copying RNA into DNA copies that integrate into the host cell’s genome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man was referred for abnormal liver biochemistry. Investigations showed he had an ALT of 98 U/l and was Hep B surface antigen positive.
Which of the following is true of chronic active hepatitis due to the hepatitis B virus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Chronic active hepatitis due to hepatitis B virus carries an increased risk of subsequent hepatocellular carcinoma. This is because chronic inflammation and liver damage caused by the virus can lead to the development of liver cancer over time. Marked elevation of serum transaminase levels is also commonly seen in chronic active hepatitis B.
Chronic active hepatitis B is actually more common in men than in women. It is not typically associated with positive hepatitis D serology, as hepatitis D is a separate virus that requires hepatitis B for replication.
Corticosteroids are not typically used to treat chronic active hepatitis B, as antiviral medications are the mainstay of treatment. Therefore, it does not respond well to corticosteroids.
Overall, the most important point to remember is the increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma in patients with chronic active hepatitis B.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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An 8 week old baby presents with a fever of 38 degrees. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit for infection screen and start IV antibiotic
Explanation:In infants under 3 months of age, a fever of 38 degrees or higher is considered to be a significant concern as their immune systems are not fully developed and they are at a higher risk for serious infections. Therefore, the most appropriate course of action in this scenario would be to admit the baby for infection screening and start IV antibiotics. This is because infants at this age are more vulnerable to infections such as sepsis, meningitis, or urinary tract infections, which can progress rapidly and have serious consequences if not treated promptly.
Giving an antipyretic and asking the parents to come back later may temporarily reduce the fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the fever. Similarly, observing the baby for 24 hours or reassuring the parents without conducting further tests could delay necessary treatment and potentially worsen the baby’s condition.
Overall, admitting the baby for infection screening and starting IV antibiotics is the most appropriate course of action to ensure prompt and effective treatment for any potential serious infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 83
Incorrect
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What is the recommended treatment for early latent syphilis in adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Single dose of Benzathine penicillin G IM
Explanation:Early latent syphilis is a stage of syphilis where the infection is present in the body but there are no visible symptoms. The recommended treatment for early latent syphilis in adults is a single dose of Benzathine penicillin G administered intramuscularly. This treatment is highly effective in curing the infection and preventing further complications. Other antibiotics such as doxycycline, amoxicillin, azithromycin, or ceftriaxone may be used as alternative treatments for patients who are allergic to penicillin. However, Benzathine penicillin G is the preferred treatment due to its high efficacy and convenience of a single dose. It is important for individuals with syphilis to seek treatment promptly to prevent the progression of the disease and reduce the risk of transmitting it to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with anal cancer. What is the most significant factor that increases the risk of developing anal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HPV infection
Explanation:Anal cancer is primarily caused by HPV infection, which is the most significant risk factor. Other factors may also contribute, but the link between HPV infection and anal cancer is the strongest. This is similar to how HPV infection can lead to cervical cancer by causing oncogenic changes in the cervical mucosa.
Understanding Anal Cancer: Definition, Epidemiology, and Risk Factors
Anal cancer is a type of malignancy that occurs exclusively in the anal canal, which is bordered by the anorectal junction and the anal margin. The majority of anal cancers are squamous cell carcinomas, but other types include melanomas, lymphomas, and adenocarcinomas. The incidence of anal cancer is relatively rare, with an annual rate of about 1.5 in 100,000 in the UK. However, the incidence is increasing, particularly among men who have sex with men, due to widespread infection by human papillomavirus (HPV).
There are several risk factors associated with anal cancer, including HPV infection, anal intercourse, a high lifetime number of sexual partners, HIV infection, immunosuppressive medication, a history of cervical cancer or cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, and smoking. Patients typically present with symptoms such as perianal pain, perianal bleeding, a palpable lesion, and faecal incontinence.
To diagnose anal cancer, T stage assessment is conducted, which includes a digital rectal examination, anoscopic examination with biopsy, and palpation of the inguinal nodes. Imaging modalities such as CT, MRI, endo-anal ultrasound, and PET are also used. The T stage system for anal cancer is described by the American Joint Committee on Cancer and the International Union Against Cancer. It includes TX primary tumour cannot be assessed, T0 no evidence of primary tumour, Tis carcinoma in situ, T1 tumour 2 cm or less in greatest dimension, T2 tumour more than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, T3 tumour more than 5 cm in greatest dimension, and T4 tumour of any size that invades adjacent organ(s).
In conclusion, understanding anal cancer is crucial in identifying the risk factors and symptoms associated with this type of malignancy. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy with perinatally acquired HIV returns to your clinic for routine follow-up. He has maintained suppressed HIV RNA levels for years on a regimen of nevirapine, zidovudine, and lamivudine. He is having increasing side effects with this regimen and does not like the twice-daily dosing and the number of pills. You are considering switching to a new regimen that includes an integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI). He weighs 32 kg and has a sexual maturity rating (SMR) of 2.
Which one of the following would be considered a preferred INSTI-based regimen for this 10-year-old boy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bictegravir-tenofovir alafenamide-emtricitabine
Explanation:For many of the approved antiretroviral agents, the FDA has stipulated specific age restrictions based on limited data in pediatric populations. Integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) have increasingly been used for antiretroviral therapy, in combination with nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs), due to excellent virologic activity and very few side effects. For this 10-year-old boy who weighs 32 kg, there are two preferred antiretroviral options, and both are INSTI-based regimens: bictegravir-tenofovir alafenamide-emtricitabine or dolutegravir plus 2 nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs). The following summarizes the FDA approval status for the use of INSTIs in pediatric populations:
Bictegravir: This INSTI is only available in the fixed-dose combination bictegravir-tenofovir alafenamide-emtricitabine and this medication is FDA-approved for use in children who weigh at least 14 kg. Bictegravir-tenofovir alafenamide-emtricitabine is a preferred regimen in pediatric patients who are at least 2 years old and weigh at least 14 kg.
Cabotegravir: Long-acting injectable cabotegravir and rilpivirine is FDA-approved only for adults.
Dolutegravir: The FDA has approved the use of dolutegravir in children who are at least 4 weeks of age and weigh at least 3 kg. Dolutegravir plus two NRTIs is a preferred regimen in children who are at least 4 weeks of age and weigh at least 3 kg. The fixed dose combination dolutegravir-abacavir-lamivudine is FDA-approved for use in children who weigh at least 10 kg. The fixed-dose 2-drug oral regimens (dolutegravir-rilpivirine and dolutegravir-lamivudine) are recommended as single-tablet antiretroviral therapy regimens only for adults.
Elvitegravir: The fixed-dose single tablet medication elvitegravir-cobicistat-tenofovir alafenamide-emtricitabine is FDA-approved for use in children who weigh at least 25 kg. The fixed-dose single-tablet medication elvitegravir-cobicistat-tenofovir DF-emtricitabine is FDA-approved for use in children who weigh at least 35 kg. Elvitegravir-based regimens are not recommended as preferred antiretroviral regimens.
Raltegravir: The FDA has approved raltegravir for use in combination with other antiretroviral medication in children who weigh at least 2 kg. Raltegravir is available as an oral suspension, chewable tablets, and regular tablets. Raltegravir plus two NRTIs is a preferred regimen in children younger than 4 weeks of age who weigh at least 2 kg. The high-dose raltegravir (600 mg tablets) is given as 1200 mg once-daily, and this dosing is approved for use only in children who weigh at least 40 kg. Raltegravir is not available in any fixed-dose combinations. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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The mother of 6 months old girl tests positive for HIV. Doctors test her daughter as well and the results turn out to be positive for HIV, both by polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and serology. The girl is clinically healthy and seems to attain normal developmental milestones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete
Explanation:This question is testing the candidate’s knowledge of the management of infants exposed to maternal HIV. In this scenario, the 6-month-old girl has tested positive for HIV, despite being clinically healthy and meeting normal developmental milestones.
The most appropriate next step in this situation is to start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately. Co-trimoxazole is recommended for all infants exposed to maternal HIV, regardless of their CD4 levels, to prevent opportunistic infections. Antiretroviral therapy is also necessary for infants with confirmed HIV infection, but it can wait until further work-up is complete.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Start co-trimoxazole prophylaxis immediately and plan to start antiretrovirals once further work-up is complete. This approach ensures that the infant receives the necessary prophylaxis to prevent infections while allowing time for additional testing and evaluation before starting antiretroviral therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 87
Incorrect
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What tests are recommended for pregnant women newly diagnosed with HIV to determine renal function and the need for specific prophylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Creatinine and CD4 count
Explanation:Pregnant women who are newly diagnosed with HIV are at an increased risk for developing complications related to their renal function. Creatinine levels are a key indicator of kidney function, as they reflect the body’s ability to filter waste products from the blood. Monitoring creatinine levels can help healthcare providers assess the health of the kidneys and determine if any interventions are needed to protect renal function.
Additionally, CD4 count tests are essential for pregnant women with HIV, as they measure the number of CD4 cells in the blood. CD4 cells are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system. Monitoring CD4 counts can help healthcare providers assess the strength of the immune system and determine if prophylactic treatments are necessary to prevent opportunistic infections.
By conducting creatinine and CD4 count tests, healthcare providers can better understand the overall health status of pregnant women with HIV and make informed decisions about the need for specific prophylaxis to protect against potential complications. These tests are essential components of comprehensive care for pregnant women living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
If a patient has HIV what is the most likely cause of persistent watery diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Persistent watery diarrhea in a patient with HIV is most likely caused by Cryptosporidium. Cryptosporidium is a parasite that can cause infection and diarrhea in immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV. In immunocompetent individuals, this organism typically does not cause symptoms. However, in those with HIV, particularly those with low CD4 counts, Cryptosporidium can lead to prolonged, severe, or extraintestinal infection.
Other potential causes of persistent watery diarrhea in patients with HIV include Salmonella infection, colorectal cancer, and side effects of HAART therapy. However, in the context of HIV and diarrhea, Cryptosporidium should be the top consideration. It is important to consider the patient’s immune status and CD4 count when evaluating the cause of persistent diarrhea in HIV patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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For clients on TLD with a viral load ≥ 1000 c/mL after at least two years on treatment and adherence over 80%, what is the recommended management strategy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform resistance testing before any regimen changes
Explanation:When a client on TLD (Tenofovir/Lamivudine/Dolutegravir) has a viral load ≥ 1000 c/mL after at least two years on treatment and adherence over 80%, it is important to determine the cause of treatment failure before making any changes to the regimen. Resistance testing is recommended in this situation to identify any mutations in the virus that may be causing the treatment failure.
Switching to a second-line ART regimen immediately without knowing the resistance profile of the virus could lead to further treatment failure and development of drug resistance. Doubling the current ART dose is not recommended as it may increase the risk of side effects without necessarily improving treatment efficacy. Focusing on diet and lifestyle changes may be beneficial for overall health but is not a sufficient strategy for managing treatment failure.
Initiating counseling for treatment adherence is important, but in this case, resistance testing should be prioritized to guide the next steps in treatment. Therefore, the correct answer is to perform resistance testing before any regimen changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to your clinic for evaluation. She was diagnosed with HIV at 7 months of age based on two positive HIV nucleic acid tests (HIV DNA PCR and HIV RNA). She had taken antiretroviral therapy from birth until about 6 months of age when, at that time, the parents discontinued the antiretroviral medications because they were worried about medication safety. Although she has remained asymptomatic, her CD4 count has declined and is now 550 cells/mm3 with a CD4 percentage of 22%. Her HIV RNA level is 93,100 copies/mL.
Based on Pediatric ART Guidelines, which one of the following is recommended for this 4-year-old girl?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy now
Explanation:The correct answer is to start antiretroviral therapy now.
In children with HIV, the Pediatric ART Guidelines recommend rapid initiation of antiretroviral therapy for all children, regardless of age or CD4 cell count. This is because data for children has clearly demonstrated major survival and health benefits in children receiving early antiretroviral therapy.
In this case, the 4-year-old girl was diagnosed with HIV at 7 months of age and had taken antiretroviral therapy from birth until about 6 months of age. However, the parents discontinued the antiretroviral medications due to concerns about medication safety. Despite remaining asymptomatic, her CD4 count has declined and her HIV RNA level is elevated.
Given the benefits of early antiretroviral therapy in children, it is recommended to start antiretroviral therapy now for this 4-year-old girl to improve her survival, health outcomes, neurodevelopment, growth, immune function, and viral reservoirs. This recommendation is consistent with current guidelines for adolescents and adults as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 91
Incorrect
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What is the first step in initiating treatment of a newly diagnosed HIV patient in a primary care setting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Follow the NDOH 2020 guidelines for treatment initiation.
Explanation:Steps to manage a patient in primary care:
- Confirm the Diagnosis:
- HIV Testing: Ensure that the HIV diagnosis is confirmed through appropriate testing, typically with two different types of HIV tests to avoid false positives.
- Baseline Assessment:
- Medical History and Physical Examination: Obtain a detailed medical history, including any symptoms, previous illnesses, and risk factors. Conduct a thorough physical examination.
- Baseline Laboratory Tests: These should include:
- CD4 Count: To assess the patient’s immune status.
- Viral Load: To determine the level of HIV in the blood.
- Complete Blood Count (CBC): To check for anemia, leukopenia, or thrombocytopenia.
- Liver and Kidney Function Tests: To evaluate the patient’s overall health and potential contraindications for certain medications.
- Screening for Opportunistic Infections: Tests for tuberculosis, hepatitis B and C, and sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
- Counseling and Education:
- HIV Education: Provide the patient with information about HIV, its transmission, and the importance of adherence to antiretroviral therapy (ART).
- Treatment Expectations: Discuss the benefits and potential side effects of ART.
- Adherence Counseling: Emphasize the importance of taking ART consistently and the impact of adherence on treatment success.
- Disclosure and Support: Offer counseling on the importance of disclosing their HIV status to sexual partners and provide support options.
Once these steps have been taken, one can start initiating treatment.
- Initiate Antiretroviral Therapy (ART):
- Selection of ART Regimen: Follow the national guidelines (NDOH 2020 guidelines for treatment initiation), typically involving a combination of three antiretroviral drugs.
- First-Line Regimen: Common first-line regimens in South Africa may include a combination of Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG).
- Confirm the Diagnosis:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 92
Incorrect
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How long should fluconazole be continued for clients with confirmed cryptococcal meningitis on antifungal therapy, ART, and achieving viral suppression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 year
Explanation:Cryptococcal meningitis is a serious fungal infection that affects the brain and spinal cord. Treatment typically involves a combination of antifungal therapy, such as fluconazole, and antiretroviral therapy (ART) for clients with HIV. Achieving viral suppression is an important goal in managing HIV infection and can help improve outcomes for clients with cryptococcal meningitis.
Fluconazole is a key component of the treatment regimen for cryptococcal meningitis, as it helps to eliminate the fungal infection from the central nervous system. It is typically recommended to continue fluconazole for at least 1 year for clients who are on antifungal therapy, ART, and achieving viral suppression. This extended duration of treatment is important to ensure that the infection is completely eradicated and to prevent the risk of relapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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What is recommended for infants of mothers who are failing second or third-line ARV treatment (VL ≥ 1000 copies/ml)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They should immediately switch to formula feeding.
Explanation:Infants of mothers who are failing second or third-line ARV treatment with a viral load of ≥ 1000 copies/ml are at a higher risk of HIV transmission through breastfeeding. Therefore, it is recommended that these infants should not breastfeed and should immediately switch to formula feeding. This is to reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the infant. Formula feeding is a safer option in this situation as it eliminates the risk of HIV transmission through breast milk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male fell whilst playing football and was injured by a sharp wooden splinter sustaining a cut to his left shin. His immunisation history is up to date. In relation to tetanus prevention, select the most suitable management step.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action is required
Explanation:Tetanus is a bacterial infection that can be caused by a puncture wound or cut contaminated with the bacteria Clostridium tetani. In this case, the 16-year-old male sustained a cut to his left shin from a sharp wooden splinter while playing football.
The most suitable management step in relation to tetanus prevention for this individual is No action is required. This is because his immunisation history is up to date, meaning he has likely received the tetanus vaccine as part of his routine childhood vaccinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Which test is recommended for diagnosing primary HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibody or nucleic acid (HIV RNor antigen (p24) testing
Explanation:Primary HIV infection refers to the initial stage of HIV infection, which occurs within the first few weeks after exposure to the virus. During this stage, the virus replicates rapidly and spreads throughout the body. It is important to diagnose primary HIV infection early in order to initiate treatment and prevent further transmission of the virus.
The recommended test for diagnosing primary HIV infection is the antibody or nucleic acid (HIV RNA) testing. This test detects the presence of antibodies against the virus or the virus itself in the blood. Antibody testing is commonly used for screening purposes, while nucleic acid testing is more sensitive and can detect the virus earlier in the infection process.
The p24 antigen testing is also recommended for diagnosing primary HIV infection. The p24 antigen is a protein that is part of the HIV virus and can be detected in the blood during the early stages of infection.
Other tests such as a complete blood count (CBC), CD4 count, urine analysis, and MRI of the brain may be useful in monitoring the progression of HIV infection and its effects on the body, but they are not specific for diagnosing primary HIV infection.
In conclusion, the recommended tests for diagnosing primary HIV infection are antibody or nucleic acid testing, as well as p24 antigen testing. Early diagnosis and treatment of HIV infection are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing the spread of the virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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What is recommended for all high-risk infants who are breastfed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Receive AZT for 6 weeks and NVP for 12 weeks
Explanation:High-risk infants who are breastfed are at a higher risk of HIV transmission from their mothers. Therefore, it is recommended that these infants receive a combination of antiretroviral medications to reduce the risk of transmission.
The recommended regimen for high-risk infants who are breastfed is to receive AZT (zidovudine) for 6 weeks and NVP (nevirapine) for 12 weeks. AZT is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that helps to reduce the viral load in the infant’s body, while NVP is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that helps to prevent the virus from replicating. By combining these two medications, the risk of HIV transmission from the mother to the infant can be significantly reduced.
It is important to follow this recommended regimen to ensure the health and well-being of the high-risk infant. Additionally, it is important to monitor the mother’s viral load to determine if NVP can be stopped if her viral load is below 1000 c/ml. This combination of medications has been shown to be effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child through breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Haemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats are symptoms of a patient. You believe you've been diagnosed with tuberculosis. He works at an asylum seeker hostel, but due to a contraindication, he did not receive a BCG vaccination when he first started there.
Which of the following patient groups would the BCG vaccine be safe to administer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient is asplenic
Explanation:The BCG vaccine is a live vaccine that is used to protect against tuberculosis. In patients with asplenia, all vaccines, whether live or inactivated, are generally safe to administer. This is because individuals without a spleen have a weakened immune system and are at higher risk for infections, so vaccination is important for their protection.
Anaphylaxis following any vaccination is a contraindication to receiving that vaccine again. This is because anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening, so it is important to avoid any triggers that may cause it.
Pregnancy is a contraindication for live vaccines, including the BCG vaccine. This is because live vaccines have the potential to harm the developing fetus, so they are generally not recommended during pregnancy.
HIV infection, whether asymptomatic or symptomatic, is also a contraindication for live vaccines. This is because individuals with HIV have a weakened immune system and may not be able to mount an effective response to the vaccine, putting them at risk for complications.
In summary, the BCG vaccine would be safe to administer to a patient who is asplenic, but not to a patient who has had anaphylaxis following their first BCG vaccination, is pregnant, or is HIV positive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibody detection
Explanation:The diagnosis of HIV is predominantly made through the detection of HIV antibodies and p24 antigen. When a person is infected with HIV, their immune system produces antibodies to fight the virus. These antibodies can be detected through various tests, such as ELISA and Western blot. Additionally, the p24 antigen is a protein found on the surface of the HIV virus and can also be detected in the blood.
Viral PCR, or viral load testing, is used to measure the amount of HIV in the blood and is often used to monitor the progression of the disease and the effectiveness of treatment. CD4 count, on the other hand, measures the number of CD4 T-cells in the blood, which are a type of white blood cell that is targeted and destroyed by HIV. A low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system and progression of the disease.
Thick and thin blood films, viral culture, and electron microscopy are not commonly used for the diagnosis of HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 per 1 million donations
Explanation:Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion
Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella
Explanation:The most likely cause of the symptoms described in the new-born male admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia, and rudimentary digits is Varicella. Infection with chickenpox (Varicella) during the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. This syndrome is characterized by cerebral, cortical, and cerebellar hypoplasia, as well as limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits.
The other options listed (Cytomegalovirus, Herpes simplex, Listeriosis, and Toxoplasmosis) can also cause congenital infections with various symptoms, but in this case, the presentation of convulsions, limb hypoplasia, and rudimentary digits points towards Varicella as the most likely cause.
Prevention of congenital varicella syndrome includes administering the varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy, to ensure immunity. Pregnant women who are exposed to Varicella infection should receive varicella immunoglobulin. In cases where infection occurs during pregnancy, treatment with antiviral medication such as acyclovir may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 101
Incorrect
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Within the scope of HIV-exposed infants, when is it advisable to dispense the full 6-weeks supply of dual prophylaxis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At birth for all HIV-exposed infants until the delivery VL is known
Explanation:In the context of HIV-exposed infants, it is crucial to provide immediate protection against potential HIV transmission. By dispensing a full 6-week supply of dual prophylaxis (NVP and AZT) at birth for all HIV-exposed infants until the delivery viral load (VL) is known, healthcare providers can ensure that the infant is receiving the necessary medication to prevent HIV transmission from the mother.
This approach is recommended because it allows for early intervention and protection for the infant, especially in cases where the mother’s viral load is unknown or high. By starting the dual prophylaxis at birth, healthcare providers can minimize the risk of HIV transmission during the critical early weeks of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents with a 4cm bleeding ulcer on her labia minora. The woman admits she is sexually active. Which lymph nodes will the ulcer drain to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superficial inguinal
Explanation:Chancroid is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Haemophilus ducreyi. It typically presents as painful genital ulcers that can bleed and have a characteristic appearance. In this case, the 4cm bleeding ulcer on the woman’s labia minora is likely due to chancroid.
When a chancroid ulcer is present, it can drain to the lymph nodes in the groin region. The lymph nodes that are most commonly affected in this case are the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. These nodes are located in the groin area and are responsible for draining lymphatic fluid from the lower extremities, external genitalia, and perineum.
Therefore, in this scenario, the bleeding ulcer on the woman’s labia minora would likely drain to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. It is important to consider the possibility of chancroid in sexually active individuals presenting with genital ulcers, as prompt diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received a positive HIV diagnosis. During her initial visits to the HIV clinic, she is offered a cervical smear. What is the recommended follow-up for her as part of the cervical screening program?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Annual cervical cytology
Explanation:Due to a weakened immune response and reduced clearance of the human papillomavirus, women who are HIV positive face an elevated risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer. If HIV positive women have low-grade lesions (CIN1), these lesions may not clear and could progress to high-grade CIN or cervical cancer. Even with effective antiretroviral treatment, these women still have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative results. Therefore, it is recommended that women with HIV receive cervical cytology at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter for screening purposes.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 104
Incorrect
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What is the range of viral load (VL) considered for clients with repeat VL testing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50 999 c/mL
Explanation:Repeat viral load testing is an important aspect of monitoring HIV treatment effectiveness in clients. The range of viral load considered for clients with repeat testing helps healthcare providers determine the level of viral replication in the body and assess the response to antiretroviral therapy.
A viral load of < 10 c/mL is considered undetectable and indicates successful suppression of the virus. This is the ideal outcome for clients on HIV treatment. A viral load of 10-49 c/mL is still considered low and may not necessarily indicate treatment failure, but it does warrant closer monitoring. A viral load of 50-999 c/mL falls within the range of persistent low-grade viremia. This level of viral replication may indicate suboptimal adherence to treatment or the development of drug resistance. Clients in this range require careful monitoring and potential interventions to address any issues that may be affecting treatment efficacy. A viral load of ≥ 1000 c/mL is considered high and indicates treatment failure. This level of viral replication may lead to disease progression and the development of complications. Clients with a viral load in this range may need to switch to a different antiretroviral regimen to achieve viral suppression. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 50-999 c/mL, as clients falling within this range on repeat viral load testing are categorized as having persistent low-grade viremia and require closer monitoring and potential interventions to optimize treatment adherence and efficacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.
All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination
Explanation:Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy can pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. Screening for HBV is crucial in pregnant women, regardless of previous vaccination status, as it helps in identifying those who may require interventions to prevent transmission to the baby.
The risk of fetal infection is higher with chorionic villus sampling than amniocentesis because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the placental tissue, which may contain the virus.
Women with a high viral load in the third trimester should be offered antiviral therapy to reduce the risk of transmission to the baby. Caesarean section does not reduce the risk of hepatitis B transmission, as the virus is primarily transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids during childbirth.
Fetal scalp blood sampling in labor should be avoided to prevent potential exposure to the virus. Therefore, all statements are true except for the statement that screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 3 month old infant born to HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a common viral infection that can be passed from a mother to her baby during pregnancy. Infants born with congenital CMV infection may present with a variety of symptoms, including jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly (enlargement of the liver and spleen), petechiae (small red or purple spots on the skin), microcephaly (abnormally small head size), hearing loss, and seizures.
In this case, the 3-month-old infant born to an HIV positive mother presented with jaundice, epileptic seizures, and microcephaly. Given these symptoms, the most likely cause would be congenital cytomegalovirus infection. Other viral infections such as Epstein-Barr virus, measles, rubella, and varicella can also cause similar symptoms, but the combination of jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly is most commonly associated with CMV infection.
It is important to diagnose and manage congenital CMV infection early to prevent long-term complications such as hearing loss and developmental delays. Testing for CMV infection can be done through blood tests, urine tests, or saliva tests. Treatment may include antiviral medications and supportive care to manage symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 107
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of tuberculosis (TB) in adults and adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unexplained weight gain
Explanation:Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs but can also affect other parts of the body. Common symptoms of TB in adults and adolescents include a persistent cough of 2 weeks or more, fever for more than two weeks, drenching night sweats, chest pain and discomfort, and unexplained weight loss.
Unexplained weight gain is NOT a common symptom of tuberculosis. In fact, unexplained weight loss is more commonly associated with TB as the infection can cause a loss of appetite and difficulty in absorbing nutrients from food. Weight gain is not typically seen in individuals with TB unless they are actively trying to gain weight through diet and exercise.
Therefore, the correct answer is: Unexplained weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy presented with jaundice and fatigue for the last two weeks. He complains of intermittent pain in his epigastrium.
He is otherwise healthy with no history of vomiting, diarrhoea, loss of appetite or weight.
History revealed that he has had fatigue all his life leading to him missing out on sports at regular intervals at school.
His mother reports that he had two episodes of hepatitis at ages 5 and 7 years. There is no family history of jaundice. He has no significant travel history.
On physical examination, yellow sclera were observed. Additionally, on abdominal examination, the splenic tip was palpable at 3 cm with some tenderness of the right upper quadrant. He was found to have mild tachycardia with normal blood pressure and no fever.
Blood results:
- Hb: 12.6 g/dl
- MCV: 104 fL
- MCHC: 38 g/dL
- WBC Count: 10 x 109/L
- Reticulocyte count: 148 x 109/L (Normal Range 20-100 x 109/L)
- Bilirubin: 34 μmol/L
- LDH: 600 lμ/L (Normal Range 230-450 lμ/l)
- Direct Coombs test: Negative
Abdominal ultrasonography revealed an enlarged spleen measuring 15 cm
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is hereditary spherocytosis. This conclusion is based on the patient’s presentation of jaundice, fatigue, and abdominal pain, along with a history of chronic fatigue and previous episodes of hepatitis. The absence of fever and travel history to endemic areas makes acute hepatitis and cholecystitis less likely.
The blood results showing low hemoglobin levels, high MCV, high reticulocyte count, and elevated LDH also point towards a chronic hemolytic anemia. The negative Coombs test rules out autoimmune hemolytic anemia, leaving hereditary spherocytosis as the most likely cause.
Hereditary spherocytosis is a genetic disorder that causes red blood cells to be more fragile, leading to their destruction and resulting in anemia. Splenomegaly and gallstones are common complications of this condition due to increased red cell destruction and hemoglobin metabolism. Abdominal ultrasound showing an enlarged spleen further supports the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old male newly diagnosed with HIV is initiated on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
He was previously well and had no past medical or psychiatric history. A few days after starting the medication, he develops poor sleep and nightmares, with low mood and suicidal ideation.
Which antiretroviral agent is most probably responsible for the side effects mentioned?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efavirenz
Explanation:This question is testing the candidate’s knowledge of the side effects of different antiretroviral agents used in the treatment of HIV. In this case, the patient developed poor sleep, nightmares, low mood, and suicidal ideation shortly after starting HAART, indicating a possible psychiatric side effect of one of the medications.
The correct answer is Efavirenz, which is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor known to cause neuropsychiatric side effects, such as insomnia, vivid dreams, depression, and suicidal ideation. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and monitor patients closely, especially those without a history of mental health issues.
The other options provided in the question (Emtricitabine, Lamivudine, Rilpivirine, and Tenofovir) are also commonly used antiretroviral agents but are not typically associated with the psychiatric side effects described in the case. Emtricitabine and Lamivudine are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, Rilpivirine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Each of these medications has its own set of potential side effects, but in this case, the symptoms described are most likely due to Efavirenz.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
When should an elevated viral load in a pregnant or breastfeeding woman be considered a medical emergency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: When the viral load is >1000 c/ml
Explanation:During pregnancy and breastfeeding, a high viral load in a woman with HIV can increase the risk of transmission of the virus to the baby. A viral load greater than 1000 c/ml indicates that the virus is actively replicating at a high level in the body, increasing the likelihood of transmission to the baby during childbirth or through breastfeeding. Therefore, it is considered a medical emergency and immediate intervention is necessary to reduce the risk of transmission to the baby. Monitoring and managing the viral load during pregnancy and breastfeeding is crucial to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethambutol
Explanation:Drug-induced hepatitis is a condition where the liver becomes inflamed due to the toxic effects of certain medications. In this case, the question is asking which of the listed drugs is not a known cause of drug-induced hepatitis.
Ethambutol is not a cause of drug-induced hepatitis. It is primarily used in the treatment of tuberculosis and is known to cause ocular toxicity, specifically optic neuritis. This side effect is well-documented and occurs more commonly than liver toxicity.
Amiodarone, isoniazid, methyldopa, and pyrazinamide are all known to potentially cause drug-induced hepatitis. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that can cause liver damage, isoniazid is used to treat tuberculosis and can lead to hepatitis, methyldopa is an antihypertensive medication that can cause liver inflammation, and pyrazinamide is another medication used in the treatment of tuberculosis that can also cause hepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 112
Incorrect
-
What is the primary reason for screening pregnant women for tuberculosis (TB) using a TB GeneXpert test regardless of TB symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To ensure prompt treatment for active TB if present
Explanation:Pregnant women are at an increased risk of developing active tuberculosis (TB) due to changes in their immune system during pregnancy. TB can have serious consequences for both the mother and the unborn child, including preterm birth, low birth weight, and even death. Therefore, it is crucial to screen pregnant women for TB using a TB GeneXpert test regardless of TB symptoms.
The primary reason for this screening is to ensure prompt treatment for active TB if present. Early detection and treatment of TB in pregnant women can help prevent adverse pregnancy outcomes and protect the health of both the mother and the baby. Prompt treatment can also reduce the risk of transmission of TB to the newborn, which is especially important in preventing the spread of TB within communities.
While screening pregnant women for TB can also help detect latent TB infection and assess the effectiveness of TB preventive therapy, the main goal is to identify and treat active TB in order to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby. By using a TB GeneXpert test, healthcare providers can quickly and accurately diagnose TB in pregnant women, allowing for timely initiation of treatment and improved pregnancy outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
When is the highest risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 26-40 weeks
Explanation:During pregnancy, the risk of maternal-fetal transmission of Toxoplasma Gondii is highest during the later stages, specifically between 26-40 weeks. This is because as the pregnancy progresses, the placenta becomes more permeable and allows for easier transmission of the parasite from the mother to the fetus. Additionally, the immune system of the fetus is not fully developed until later in pregnancy, making it more susceptible to infection.
On the other hand, the risk of transmission is lower in early pregnancy, particularly before 10 weeks, because the placenta is not fully formed and the immune system of the fetus is not yet developed. However, if infection does occur earlier in pregnancy, the complications are typically more severe as the parasite can affect the development of the fetus.
Overall, it is important for pregnant women to take precautions to prevent Toxoplasma Gondii infection throughout their pregnancy, but especially during the later stages when the risk of transmission is highest. This can include avoiding raw or undercooked meat, washing fruits and vegetables thoroughly, and avoiding contact with cat feces. Regular prenatal check-ups and screenings can also help detect and manage any potential infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
What is the maximum daily dose of Isoniazid (INH) for TB preventive therapy (TPT) in infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 300 mg
Explanation:Isoniazid (INH) is a medication commonly used for the prevention and treatment of tuberculosis (TB). When it comes to TB preventive therapy (TPT) in infants, the maximum daily dose of INH is typically 300 mg. This dosage is based on the weight and age of the infant, as well as the severity of the TB infection. It is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment as recommended by a healthcare provider to ensure the effectiveness of the medication and to minimize the risk of side effects. Overdosing on INH can lead to serious health complications, so it is crucial to adhere to the prescribed dosage guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
A patient presents with nausea, anorexia, jaundice and right upper quadrant pain. A diagnosis of acute hepatitis B is suspected.
Which of the following blood results is most suggestive of an acute hepatitis B infection? Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive
Explanation:Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus, that is the first serologic marker to appear in a new acute infection.It can be detected as early as 1 week and as late as 9 weeks. It can be detected in high levels in serum during acute or chronic hepatitis B virus infection. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is infectious. The body normally produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the normal immune response to infection. HBsAg is the antigen used to make hepatitis B vaccine.
Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates recovery and immunity from the hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.
Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc): Appears at the onset of symptoms in acute hepatitis B and persists for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates previous or ongoing infection with hepatitis B virus in an undefined time frame. It is not present following hepatitis B vaccination.
IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates recent infection with hepatitis B virus (<6 months). Its presence indicates acute infection.
The following table summarises the presence of hepatitis B markers according to each situation:
Susceptible to infection:
HBsAg = Negative
Anti-HBc = Negative
Anti-HBs = NegativeImmune due to natural infection:
HBsAg = Negative
Anti-HBc = Positive
Anti-HBs = PositiveImmune due to vaccination:
HBsAg = Negative
Anti-HBc = Negative
Anti-HBs = PositiveAcute infection:
HBsAg = Positive
Anti-HBc = Positive
Anti-HBs = Negative
IgM anti-HBc = PositiveChronic infection:
HBsAg = Positive
Anti-HBc = Positive
Anti-HBs = Negative
IgM anti-HBc = Negative -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy arrives at the clinic seven hours after having injured his hand with a metal spike. Examination reveals a puncture wound 0.5 cm deep. His immunization schedule is uptodate. How will you manage this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tetanus Ig + antibiotics
Explanation:In this case, the best management for the 6-year-old boy who injured his hand with a metal spike would be to administer Tetanus Ig (immunoglobulin) along with antibiotics. Tetanus Ig provides immediate passive immunity against tetanus, while antibiotics help prevent any potential infection from developing in the wound.
It is important to note that the boy’s immunization schedule is up-to-date, which means he has likely received the tetanus vaccine as part of his routine vaccinations. However, since the wound is considered tetanus-prone due to being a puncture wound and potentially contaminated with debris, it is still recommended to administer Tetanus Ig as an extra precaution.
In summary, the appropriate management for this patient would be Tetanus Ig along with antibiotics to prevent tetanus infection and promote healing of the wound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
What is the guideline's stance on the treatment of babies born to mothers with indeterminate or discrepant HIV test results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treating the baby as a high-risk HIV-exposed infant until the mother’s HIV status can be confirmed
Explanation:When a mother’s HIV test results are indeterminate or discrepant, it means that there is uncertainty about her HIV status. In such cases, it is crucial to err on the side of caution and treat the baby as a high-risk HIV-exposed infant until the mother’s HIV status can be definitively confirmed. This approach ensures that the baby receives appropriate care and protection against potential HIV transmission.
Providing ART based on the mother’s presumed status may lead to unnecessary treatment if the mother is not actually HIV-positive. Waiting for definitive test results before any treatment could delay necessary interventions to prevent HIV transmission. Automatic enrollment in ART programs may not be appropriate if the mother’s HIV status is ultimately negative.
Providing one-time prophylactic ART dose immediately after birth may be considered in some cases, but it is important to continue monitoring the baby’s health and confirm the mother’s HIV status to guide further treatment decisions. Overall, treating the baby as a high-risk HIV-exposed infant until the mother’s HIV status can be confirmed is the most prudent approach to ensure the baby’s well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
Which antibiotic is recommended for treating syphilis in patients with penicillin allergy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The primary treatment for syphilis is penicillin, as it is highly effective in killing the bacteria. However, some patients may have a penicillin allergy, which can complicate treatment.
In cases where patients have a penicillin allergy, azithromycin is recommended as an alternative treatment for syphilis. Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of bacteria, including Treponema pallidum. It is typically given as a single dose or a short course of treatment, making it a convenient option for patients who cannot take penicillin.
Other antibiotics, such as doxycycline, clindamycin, and vancomycin, are not typically used as first-line treatments for syphilis. Ciprofloxacin is not effective against Treponema pallidum and should not be used to treat syphilis.
In conclusion, azithromycin is the recommended antibiotic for treating syphilis in patients with a penicillin allergy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of alternative treatment options for patients with allergies to ensure effective management of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 119
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended duration of TB preventive therapy (TPT) for pregnant women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:TB preventive therapy (TPT) is recommended for pregnant women who are at high risk of developing active TB, as it can help prevent the disease from developing.
The recommended duration of TPT for pregnant women is 6 months. This duration is based on research and clinical trials that have shown that a 6-month course of TPT is effective in reducing the risk of developing active TB in pregnant women. Additionally, a 6-month course is generally well-tolerated and safe for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
A patient in their 60s with TB is undergoing induction phase treatment with Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Among these drugs, which one is most likely to result in peripheral neuropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid and Peripheral Neuropathy
Peripheral neuropathy is a common side-effect of isoniazid, according to the British National Formulary. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with pre-existing risk factors such as diabetes, alcohol dependence, chronic renal failure, pregnancy, malnutrition, and HIV infection. To reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy, supplementation with pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, is recommended.
In summary, isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy, which is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. This side-effect is more likely to occur in individuals with certain risk factors, but can be prevented with the use of pyridoxine supplementation. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential risks and take appropriate measures to prevent them in their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 121
Incorrect
-
What is the ideal time frame for initiating ART in all clients without contraindications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Within 7 days, same day if possible
Explanation:The ideal time frame for initiating ART in all clients without contraindications is within 7 days, with the same day initiation if possible. This recommendation is based on the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines which emphasize the importance of early initiation of ART in people living with HIV (PLHIV).
Initiating ART within 7 days of diagnosis and on the same day if possible has been shown to be crucial in controlling the virus, reducing viral load, and preventing disease progression. Early initiation of ART also helps in reducing the risk of transmission of HIV to others.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to prioritize early initiation of ART in all clients without contraindications to ensure optimal health outcomes for PLHIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 122
Incorrect
-
A woman presents with several painful ulcers on her vulva. What do you think has most likely caused this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HSV
Explanation:Genital herpes, caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV), is the most likely cause of the painful ulcers on the woman’s vulva. Genital herpes is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause painful sores or blisters to develop on the genital area. These sores can be very uncomfortable and may also be accompanied by other symptoms such as itching, burning, and swollen lymph nodes. It is important for the woman to seek medical attention for proper diagnosis and treatment of genital herpes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 123
Incorrect
-
What is an essential part of the baseline assessment for an infant diagnosed with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical review and blood tests including confirmatory HIV PCR
Explanation:The essential part of the baseline assessment for an infant diagnosed with HIV is a clinical review and blood tests, including a confirmatory HIV PCR. This is important to confirm the diagnosis of HIV in the infant and to determine the viral load and CD4 count, which are important indicators of the progression of the disease and the need for treatment. Additionally, an HIV drug resistance test may be necessary, especially if the mother is failing treatment on a specific regimen. This comprehensive assessment helps healthcare providers to develop an appropriate treatment plan and monitor the infant’s health and response to treatment over time. Other assessments such as dental examination, hearing test, eye examination, and skin sensitivity test may also be important for the overall health and well-being of the infant, but the clinical review and blood tests are crucial for managing HIV in the infant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases have antibodies available for treatment of the condition.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: None of these
Explanation:The question is asking which of the listed diseases have antibodies available for treatment. The diseases listed are Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Measles, and Rabies.
– Hepatitis A: There is no specific treatment for hepatitis A, but the hepatitis A vaccine is effective for prevention.
– Hepatitis B: Antiviral treatment may be required in some cases, but there are no drugs available that can clear the infection. However, treatment can stop the virus from replicating.
– Measles: There is no specific treatment for measles, but most people will recover with rest and supportive care. Prevention is key, and children are vaccinated against measles.
– Rabies: Treatment after rabies exposure can prevent the disease if administered promptly. This includes human rabies immunoglobulin and rabies vaccine.Therefore, the correct answer is Rabies, as there are antibodies available for treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 125
Incorrect
-
A 10-week-old infant is seen in the clinic to start antiretroviral therapy. Due to unknown maternal HIV status and a precipitous delivery, the mother did not receive any intrapartum antiretroviral medications for the prevention of mother-to-child HIV transmission. In the postpartum period, the infant took a 3-drug antiretroviral postexposure prophylaxis regimen for 6 weeks. An HIV DNA PCR was positive at birth, negative at 2 weeks and 5 weeks (while receiving antiretroviral therapy), but positive at 8 and 9 weeks of age. Additional laboratory studies show an HIV RNA level of 92,305 copies/mL and a CD4 count of 1,034 cells/mm3. The infant weighs 4.9 kg. A baseline HLA B*5701 test is negative.
According to the Pediatric ART Guidelines, which one of the following is considered a preferred initial antiretroviral regimen for this 10-week-old infant?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:In this case, the 10-week-old infant is starting antiretroviral therapy after being diagnosed with HIV. According to the Pediatric ART Guidelines, the preferred initial antiretroviral regimen for infants and children older than 1 month but younger than 2 years of age who weigh at least 3 kg is two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) plus dolutegravir.
The recommended 2-NRTI backbone for this age group is abacavir plus either lamivudine or emtricitabine. Therefore, the preferred initial antiretroviral regimen for this 10-week-old infant would be Abacavir plus lamivudine plus dolutegravir.
It is important to follow the guidelines for pediatric antiretroviral therapy to ensure optimal treatment outcomes and minimize the risk of drug resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 126
Incorrect
-
What is the acceptable level for TDF use based on renal function?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: eGFR > 50 mL/min/1.73 m²
Explanation:Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is an antiretroviral medication commonly used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B. One of the potential side effects of TDF is renal toxicity, which can lead to kidney damage and impaired renal function. Therefore, it is important to monitor renal function in patients taking TDF to ensure that the drug is being safely metabolized by the kidneys.
The acceptable level for TDF use based on renal function is an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) greater than 50 mL/min/1.73 m². This level ensures that the kidneys are functioning well enough to metabolize the drug without causing further renal impairment. An eGFR below 50 mL/min/1.73 m² may indicate decreased kidney function and an increased risk of TDF-related renal toxicity.
Therefore, patients with an eGFR greater than 50 mL/min/1.73 m² are considered to have acceptable renal function for TDF use. It is important for healthcare providers to regularly monitor renal function in patients taking TDF to ensure that the drug is being safely metabolized and to prevent any potential kidney damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 127
Incorrect
-
What is the CD4 count threshold for an increased risk of opportunistic infections?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The CD4 count is a measure of the number of CD4 T cells in a person’s blood, which are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune system. A CD4 count below 200/mcL is considered a significant threshold because it indicates severe immunosuppression and a weakened immune system.
When the CD4 count drops below 200/mcL, the risk of opportunistic infections significantly increases. Opportunistic infections are caused by pathogens that typically do not cause illness in individuals with a healthy immune system, but can take advantage of a weakened immune system to cause severe infections. These infections can be life-threatening in individuals with HIV/AIDS or other conditions that compromise the immune system.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to closely monitor CD4 counts in individuals with HIV/AIDS and other immunocompromised conditions to assess the risk of opportunistic infections and provide appropriate treatment and preventive measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 128
Incorrect
-
When should the first viral load (VL) after ART initiation be taken?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After 3 dispensing cycles
Explanation:The first viral load (VL) measurement after initiating antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial in monitoring the effectiveness of the treatment in suppressing the HIV virus. By taking the VL after 3 dispensing cycles, healthcare providers can assess how well the medication is working and whether the patient is responding positively to the treatment. This early check allows for any necessary adjustments to be made to the treatment plan if the viral load is not decreasing as expected. Additionally, monitoring the VL early on can help identify any potential issues or challenges that may arise in achieving viral suppression. Therefore, it is important to follow the guidelines and take the first VL measurement after 3 dispensing cycles to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
Which ART drug is commonly associated with lipodystrophy, characterized by fat redistribution and metabolic abnormalities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efavirenz (EFV)
Explanation:Lipodystrophy is a common side effect of certain antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV, such as Efavirenz (EFV). Lipodystrophy is characterized by changes in body fat distribution, including fat loss in the face, arms, legs, and buttocks, and fat accumulation in the abdomen, back of the neck, and breasts. This can lead to metabolic abnormalities such as insulin resistance, dyslipidemia, and increased risk of cardiovascular disease.
Among the options provided, Efavirenz (EFV) is the drug commonly associated with lipodystrophy. Ritonavir (RTV) is more commonly associated with metabolic abnormalities such as dyslipidemia and insulin resistance. Nevirapine (NVP) is not typically associated with lipodystrophy, but can cause liver toxicity. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) is known to cause renal toxicity and bone loss, but not specifically lipodystrophy. Abacavir (ABC) is associated with hypersensitivity reactions, but not typically lipodystrophy.
It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients on EFV for signs of lipodystrophy and metabolic abnormalities, and to intervene as needed to mitigate these adverse effects. This may include switching to a different antiretroviral drug or implementing lifestyle changes to manage metabolic abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 130
Incorrect
-
What should be done if a healthcare worker suspects a product quality problem with a medicine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Report it as part of pharmacovigilance
Explanation:Healthcare workers play a crucial role in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of medicines for patients. If a healthcare worker suspects a product quality problem with a medicine, it is important to take action to address the issue promptly. Ignoring the problem or waiting for someone else to report it could potentially harm patients.
Reporting the suspected product quality problem to the nearest pharmacy is a good first step, as they may be able to provide guidance on how to proceed. However, it is also important to report the issue as part of pharmacovigilance, which is the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding, and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug-related problems.
Conducting further investigations independently can also be helpful in gathering more information about the suspected product quality problem. This can help to determine the extent of the issue and identify any potential risks to patients.
Overall, it is important for healthcare workers to take proactive steps to address suspected product quality problems with medicines to ensure patient safety and prevent any potential harm. Reporting the issue as part of pharmacovigilance is a key step in this process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 131
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old male patient presents with severe pharyngitis and dysphagia. He's found to be HIV positive and with oesophageal candidiasis. Which of the following regarding HIV virus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV is an RNA virus
Explanation:HIV is indeed an RNA virus. This means that its genetic material is composed of RNA, rather than DNA. The virus uses the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into DNA once it enters a host cell. This DNA is then integrated into the host cell’s genome, allowing the virus to replicate and spread.
The other statements provided in the question are incorrect. HIV is not a DNA virus, HIV 2 is not more pathogenic than HIV 1, HIV does not lead to depletion of B cells, and HIV enters cells using the CD4 receptor, not the CD3 receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HCV RNA
Explanation:Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. In order to conclusively establish the presence of a Hepatitis C infection, various tests can be conducted.
The HCV RNA test is the most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection, especially in the acute phase. This test looks for the genetic material of the Hepatitis C virus in the blood and can detect the virus as early as 1-2 weeks after infection.
On the other hand, the Anti-HCV test looks for antibodies that the body produces in response to the Hepatitis C virus. However, it can take at least 6 weeks for these antibodies to develop and be detectable in the blood.
Therefore, in the case of a social worker who has been diagnosed with Hepatitis C infection, the HCV RNA test would be the most conclusive test to establish the presence of the infection. This test can provide early and accurate detection of the virus, allowing for prompt treatment and management of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
What is the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women newly initiating ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG)
Explanation:During pregnancy, it is important to provide effective antiretroviral therapy (ART) to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV. The preferred regimen for pregnant women newly initiating ART is Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG) for several reasons.
Tenofovir (TDF) is a well-tolerated and effective antiretroviral drug that is safe to use during pregnancy. Lamivudine (3TC) is also considered safe and effective for use in pregnant women. Dolutegravir (DTG) is a newer antiretroviral drug that has shown high efficacy and a good safety profile in pregnant women.
This regimen is preferred over other options such as Zidovudine (AZT) due to potential side effects and resistance issues, and Efavirenz (EFV) due to concerns about potential birth defects. Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG) is considered a safe and effective option for pregnant women to help reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
For neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, what is the recommended antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zidovudine-Lamivudine-Nevirapine
Explanation:Neonates born to HIV-positive mothers are at risk of acquiring the virus during childbirth or through breastfeeding. To prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, it is crucial to provide antiretroviral therapy (ART) to these neonates as soon as possible after birth.
For neonates born to HIV-positive mothers from birth to less than 4 weeks of age and weighing ≥ 3.0 kg, the recommended ART regimen is Zidovudine (AZT) + Lamivudine (3TC) + Nevirapine (NVP). This combination of antiretroviral drugs has been shown to be effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child.
Zidovudine (AZT) and Lamivudine (3TC) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that work by inhibiting the replication of the HIV virus. Nevirapine (NVP) is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that also helps to prevent the virus from multiplying in the body.
By starting ART early in neonates born to HIV-positive mothers, healthcare providers can significantly reduce the risk of HIV transmission and improve the long-term health outcomes of these infants. It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor the neonates on this ART regimen and adjust the treatment as needed based on their individual health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
Which of the following pairing is correct:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex type I and herpes encephalitis
Explanation:The correct pairing is Herpes simplex type I and herpes encephalitis.
Herpes simplex virus type I is known to cause herpes encephalitis, which is a rare but serious infection of the brain. This condition can lead to inflammation of the brain, seizures, and even death if not treated promptly.
The other pairings are incorrect because they do not match the specific viruses with the corresponding diseases. For example, Human herpesvirus type 7 is not associated with Kaposi’s Sarcoma, and Human herpesvirus type 8 is not associated with Roseola infantum. It is important to correctly match the virus with the disease in order to understand the causes and treatments for each condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old male returning from an African country, presented with lower abdominal pain and haematuria. Bladder calcifications were detected on abdominal x-ray. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schistosoma haematobium
Explanation:The most probable cause of the bladder calcifications in this 40-year-old male returning from an African country with lower abdominal pain and hematuria is Schistosoma haematobium. This parasite is known to cause urinary tract disease, specifically affecting the bladder and urinary tract. The presence of bladder calcifications on abdominal x-ray is a common finding in individuals infected with Schistosoma haematobium.
Schistosoma mansoni, on the other hand, primarily affects the intestinal tract and liver, causing symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and liver enlargement. Sarcoidosis is a systemic inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, but it does not typically cause bladder calcifications. Leishmaniasis is a parasitic disease transmitted by sandflies and primarily affects the skin, mucous membranes, and internal organs, but it does not cause bladder calcifications. TB (tuberculosis) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs, but it can also affect other organs such as the kidneys and bones, and it does not typically cause bladder calcifications.
Therefore, based on the presentation of lower abdominal pain, hematuria, and bladder calcifications on abdominal x-ray in a patient returning from an African country, the most probable cause is Schistosoma haematobium infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl takes a deliberate, unknown number of paracetamol tablets in one go. She immediately regrets her actions and calls for help.
She was brought to the hospital 2 hours after consuming the tablets. She has a history of HIV and is on antiretroviral therapy, though she cannot recall the name of the medication.
Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Check paracetamol level in further 2 hours' time
Explanation:In this scenario, the most appropriate management option for the 13-year-old girl who ingested an unknown number of paracetamol tablets is to check the paracetamol level in a further 2 hours’ time. This is because the Rumack-Matthew Nomogram, which is used to determine the risk of hepatotoxicity following paracetamol overdose, is most accurate between 4-15 hours post-ingestion. Checking the paracetamol level now would not provide an accurate assessment of the severity of the overdose.
It is important to note that the administration of N-acetylcysteine (NAC) can be delayed until the 4-hour level is obtained and compared to the nomogram. Haemodialysis is only indicated in cases of hepatorenal syndrome, which typically occurs 72-96 hours post-ingestion. Acute liver transplantation is considered in cases of severe liver damage, such as persistent acidosis, hepatorenal syndrome, and worsening coagulopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 138
Incorrect
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What formulation of Dolutegravir (DTG) is prescribed for children from ≥ 3 kg and ≥ 4 weeks of age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 mg dispersible tablets
Explanation:Dolutegravir (DTG) is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV infection. In children from ≥ 3 kg and ≥ 4 weeks of age, the recommended formulation of DTG is 10 mg dispersible tablets. These tablets are specifically designed for pediatric use and are easier for children to take compared to other formulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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The following are Gram-negative cocci:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neisseria
Explanation:Gram-negative cocci are a type of bacteria that have a spherical shape and a cell wall structure that stains pink or red in the Gram staining process. These bacteria are classified based on their cell wall composition, with Gram-negative bacteria having a thin peptidoglycan layer surrounded by an outer membrane.
Neisseria is a genus of Gram-negative cocci that includes several species known to cause various infections in humans. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the bacterium responsible for the sexually transmitted infection gonorrhea, while Neisseria meningitidis can cause meningitis and other serious infections. Moraxella catarrhalis and Haemophilus influenzae are also Gram-negative cocci that can cause respiratory infections.
Streptococcus and Staphylococcus are examples of Gram-positive cocci, which have a thick peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall. Listeria and Clostridium are Gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria.
In summary, Neisseria, Moraxella, and Haemophilus are examples of Gram-negative cocci that can cause various infections in humans, while Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Listeria, and Clostridium are not Gram-negative cocci.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision. A fundoscope was performed showing retinal haemorrhage. What is the single most appropriate option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:This question presents a 31-year-old homosexual male with symptoms of weight loss and blurred vision, along with retinal hemorrhage seen on fundoscopy. The most likely cause of these symptoms in a patient with HIV is Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection.
CMV is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV, particularly those with low CD4 counts. It can cause retinitis, leading to retinal hemorrhage and blurred vision. Weight loss is also a common symptom of HIV infection, which can be exacerbated by opportunistic infections like CMV.
The other options listed (Mycobacterium avium, Haemophilus influenzae, NHL, and Pneumocystis jiroveci) are also opportunistic infections commonly seen in HIV patients, but CMV is the most likely cause in this case based on the symptoms provided. Therefore, the single most appropriate option is Cytomegalovirus (CMV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly.
Investigations reveal:
Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22)
Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 - 105)
ALT 198 iu/l (5 - 35)
AST 158 iu/l (1 - 31)
Albumin 25 g/L (37 - 49)
Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive
Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative
Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The patient in this case presents with signs and symptoms of liver failure, including jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, and abnormal liver function tests. The key to the diagnosis lies in the serological results, which show that he is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg). This indicates a chronic hepatitis B infection, as opposed to acute infection or immunity due to natural infection or vaccination.
The other answer choices can be ruled out based on the serological results and the clinical presentation. Chronic hepatitis D infection would require positive hepatitis D serology, which is not provided in the case. Alcoholic liver disease typically presents with a history of heavy alcohol consumption, which is present in this case, but the positive HBsAg points more towards chronic hepatitis B. Autoimmune chronic active hepatitis would have different serological markers, such as positive antinuclear antibodies and elevated IgG levels. Carcinoma of the pancreas would not explain the liver findings seen in this patient.
In conclusion, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is chronic hepatitis B infection, based on the clinical presentation and serological results provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 142
Incorrect
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What is the primary objective of VL monitoring during labor and delivery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To monitor the mother's viral load suppression
Explanation:VL monitoring during labor and delivery is crucial in ensuring the prevention of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. By monitoring the mother’s viral load suppression during labor, healthcare providers can assess the risk of transmission to the infant. If the mother’s viral load is not adequately suppressed, there is a higher risk of transmission to the infant during delivery. Therefore, the primary objective of VL monitoring during labor and delivery is to ensure that the mother’s viral load is suppressed to reduce the risk of transmission to the infant. This monitoring helps healthcare providers make informed decisions about the best course of action to prevent transmission, such as administering antiretroviral medications or opting for a cesarean delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 143
Incorrect
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How should asymptomatic newborns of mothers with syphilis be treated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzathine penicillin IM stat
Explanation:Asymptomatic newborns of mothers with syphilis are at risk of developing congenital syphilis, which can have serious consequences if left untreated. Benzathine penicillin is the recommended treatment for both infants and adults with syphilis, as it is effective in treating the infection and preventing complications.
Benzathine penicillin is given as a single intramuscular injection, which is convenient for newborns who may not tolerate multiple doses of medication. This treatment is effective in eradicating the bacteria that causes syphilis and reducing the risk of long-term complications.
Other antibiotics such as procaine penicillin, erythromycin, and azithromycin are not as effective as benzathine penicillin in treating syphilis in newborns. Therefore, the correct treatment for asymptomatic newborns of mothers with syphilis is Benzathine penicillin IM stat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver are known as :
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypnozoites
Explanation:The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis
Explanation:The correct statement regarding the West Nile virus is that it may be associated with poliomyelitis-like paralysis. This is because the virus can affect the anterior horn cells, leading to symptoms similar to poliomyelitis such as flaccid paralysis.
The other statements are not true:
– Infection with West Nile virus can be fatal, especially if not treated promptly.
– West Nile virus is a member of the Flaviviridae family, not the picornavirus family.
– Transplacental transmission of West Nile virus can occur, leading to complications in newborns.
– Treatment with interferon is effective in West Nile virus encephalitis, along with other medications such as IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 146
Incorrect
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Why is monitoring weight and growth important for clients on ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To evaluate treatment response
Explanation:Monitoring weight and growth is important for clients on antiretroviral therapy (ART) for several reasons. Firstly, it helps assess adherence to treatment. Changes in weight can indicate whether a client is consistently taking their medication as prescribed.
Secondly, monitoring weight and growth can help detect drug toxicity. Some antiretroviral medications can have side effects that impact weight and growth, so regular monitoring can help identify any potential issues early on.
Additionally, monitoring weight and growth is crucial for evaluating treatment response. Changes in weight can indicate how well the ART is working to control the HIV infection and improve overall health.
Furthermore, monitoring weight and growth can help screen for opportunistic infections. Clients with HIV are at increased risk for infections, and changes in weight can be a sign of an underlying infection that needs to be addressed.
Lastly, monitoring weight and growth can help determine if medication dosage adjustments are needed. Changes in weight can impact how medications are metabolized in the body, so regular monitoring can help ensure clients are receiving the appropriate dosage of their ART.
In conclusion, monitoring weight and growth is a vital component of care for clients on ART as it helps assess adherence, detect toxicity, evaluate treatment response, screen for infections, and determine medication dosage adjustments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements about hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Newer all-oral direct-acting antiviral HCV regimens (DAAs) have fewer drug-drug interactions than earlier interferon-based regimens.
Explanation:Hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is a complex issue that requires careful consideration of various factors. One of the true statements about hepatitis C treatment in people living with HIV is that newer all-oral direct-acting antiviral HCV regimens (DAAs) have fewer drug-drug interactions than earlier interferon-based regimens. This is important because people living with HIV often take multiple medications, and minimizing drug interactions is crucial to avoid potential complications and ensure the effectiveness of treatment. By using newer DAAs, healthcare providers can more easily manage drug interactions and provide safer and more effective treatment for HIV/HCV coinfected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A patient with a recent diagnosis of Hepatitis B would like to find out further information regarding his diagnosis and prognosis.
Which among the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60-65% of patients that contract hepatitis B show subclinical disease
Explanation:As the immune response is activated, the virus is slowly cleared from the system, and most patients become non-infectious. In adults, about 50% of infections are asymptomatic; 20% to 30% of patients exhibit clinical jaundice but have a benign resolution of the infection. Therefore, about 80% of infections do not cause serious sequelae. The risk for chronic infection is inversely proportional to age at time of infection, with approximately 90% of infants and only 3% of adults developing a chronic infection.
Individuals with a chronic infection have a higher risk of liver disease, such as cirrhosis or hepatic carcinoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Chlamydia trachomatis is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be passed from mother to baby during childbirth, potentially leading to serious complications for the newborn. Therefore, it is important to treat chlamydia infection in pregnant women to prevent transmission to the baby.
Among the options provided, amoxicillin is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy. This is because amoxicillin is considered safe to use during pregnancy and has been shown to be effective in treating chlamydia. Tetracycline, on the other hand, is not recommended in pregnancy due to the risk of harm to fetal development. Metronidazole is not effective against chlamydia, and while it is currently not thought to pose an increased risk in pregnancy, it is not the preferred treatment for chlamydia. Clindamycin and cephazolin are not typically used to treat chlamydia infections.
In conclusion, amoxicillin is the most appropriate choice for treating Chlamydia trachomatis infection in pregnant women due to its safety and effectiveness in this population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 150
Incorrect
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What is the primary function of CD4+ lymphocytes that HIV targets?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:CD4+ lymphocytes, also known as T-helper cells, play a crucial role in the immune system by coordinating the immune response to pathogens. One of their primary functions is to activate and regulate other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T cells and macrophages, to help eliminate infected cells. This process is known as cell-mediated immunity.
When HIV infects the body, it specifically targets and destroys CD4+ lymphocytes, leading to a significant decrease in their numbers. As a result, the immune system becomes compromised and unable to effectively respond to infections. This impairment of cell-mediated immunity is a key factor in the progression of HIV infection to AIDS, as the body becomes increasingly vulnerable to opportunistic infections and other complications.
Therefore, the primary function of CD4+ lymphocytes that HIV targets is cell-mediated immunity, which is essential for the body’s ability to fight off infections and maintain overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 151
Incorrect
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Regarding PEP, what is the recommended regimen for pregnant healthcare workers in the first trimester who get a high-risk needle stick?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TLD
Explanation:Pregnant healthcare workers who experience a high-risk needle stick in the first trimester are recommended to be put on the TLD regimen for PEP. This regimen consists of tenofovir (TDF), lamivudine (3TC), and dolutegravir (DTG). This recommendation is based on the National Department of Health (NDOH), which suggests that this combination is safe and effective for pregnant women in their first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commensal flora that gain access to an inappropriate area
Explanation:Endogenous transmission refers to the spread of infection by organisms that are normally present in the body but have become pathogenic due to certain conditions. This type of transmission occurs when the body’s own flora, which are usually harmless, gain access to a different part of the body where they can cause infection.
In contrast, exogenous transmission involves the introduction of pathogens from external sources. For example, inhalation of secretions containing a pathogen, direct person-to-person spread, transfer due to poor hygiene and contaminated food, and transfer from pets or other animals are all examples of exogenous infections.
Therefore, the statement Commensal flora that gain access to an inappropriate area best describes endogenous transmission, as it involves the activation of normally harmless flora within the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
What is the primary goal of ART as per the 2023 guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To achieve and maintain viral suppression
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a crucial treatment for individuals living with HIV. The primary goal of ART, as per the 2023 guidelines, is to achieve and maintain viral suppression. This means that the level of HIV in the body is reduced to undetectable levels, which helps to prevent the progression of the disease and also reduces the risk of transmitting the virus to others. By consistently taking ART medication as prescribed, individuals can effectively manage their HIV infection and lead healthier lives. Achieving and maintaining viral suppression is key in improving overall health outcomes and reducing the spread of HIV within communities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
What is the most effective strategy available for primarily preventing cervical cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HPV vaccination
Explanation:Cervical cancer is primarily caused by persistent infection with high-risk strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16 and 18. The most effective strategy for preventing cervical cancer is therefore vaccination against these specific HPV types. The HPV vaccine is highly effective at preventing infection with these strains of the virus, which in turn significantly reduces the risk of developing cervical cancer.
Regular exercise, healthy eating habits, cervical cancer screening, and smoking cessation are all important factors in overall health and can contribute to reducing the risk of developing cervical cancer. However, the most direct and effective method of prevention is through HPV vaccination. By targeting the root cause of the majority of cervical cancer cases, vaccination offers the best chance of preventing the disease before it even has a chance to develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
What is the preferred regimen for women of childbearing potential who are not actively trying to conceive, according to the guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tenofovir (TDF) 300 mg + Lamivudine (3TC) 300 mg + DTG 50 mg (TLD)
Explanation:The preferred regimen for women of childbearing potential who are not actively trying to conceive is TLD (tenofovir, lamivudine, dolutegravir) because it is considered safe and effective for both the woman and any potential fetus in case of an unplanned pregnancy. TLD has a low risk of teratogenicity and is generally well-tolerated, making it a suitable option for women who may become pregnant. Additionally, dolutegravir has been shown to have a high barrier to resistance and is recommended as a first-line treatment for HIV.
Other regimens, such as EFV (efavirenz) or LPV/r (lopinavir/ritonavir), may have potential risks during pregnancy or may not be as effective in preventing transmission of HIV to the fetus. Therefore, TLD is the preferred choice for women of childbearing potential who are not actively trying to conceive according to the guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
An 18-month-old girl with HIV returns to the clinic with her mother for ongoing care. She has no HIV-related symptoms, and the mother has regularly been giving her antiretroviral therapy medications. Her weight and height have been at roughly the 50th percentile since birth. The child has not had any HIV-related opportunistic illnesses. The physical examination is normal, and laboratory studies show a CD4 count of 652 cells/mm3, CD4 percentage of 25%, and an HIV RNA level below the limit of detection.
According to the 2014 HIV revised case definition, what would be the HIV classification for this 18-month-old girl?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:The 2014 revised HIV surveillance case definition takes into account all age groups and classifies persons with HIV infection into one of five stages: 0, 1, 2, 3, or unknown. Stage 0 indicates early HIV infection based on a negative or indeterminate HIV test within 6 months of a confirmed positive HIV test result. For children, stages 1, 2, and 3 are determined by the age-specific CD4 cell count (Table 1) or the presence of a stage 3-defining opportunistic illness. Note the CD4 classification is based on the absolute CD4 count—the CD4 percentage is only considered if the absolute CD4 count is missing.
The immunologic classification for children under age 6 differs significantly from that used for adults, mainly because young children typically have CD4 counts that are much higher than those seen in adults. For example, among children younger than 12 months of age who do not have HIV infection, most will have a CD4 count of at least 1500 cells/mm3. The CD4 count normally declines during the first few years of life. It is conceptually very important to understand that children with HIV infection, especially very young children, can develop HIV-related opportunistic infections at higher CD4 counts than typically seen with adults. The HIV classification of this asymptomatic 18-month-old girl with an absolute CD4 cell count of 942 cells/mm3 and no history of an AIDS-defining opportunistic illness would be stage 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Her parents with a severe headache present a 24-year-old woman. She is afraid of light and sun and prefers darker environments. On examination, a generalized rash that does not blanch on pressure is noticed. What is the best action in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV benzylpenicillin
Explanation:In this case, the best action is to administer IV benzylpenicillin. The patient presents with a severe headache, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash, which are all indicative of meningitis. Meningitis is a serious infection of the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord, and requires immediate treatment with antibiotics to prevent complications such as brain damage or death.
Isolating the patient, gowning and masking, and performing a blood culture are important steps in preventing the spread of infection and determining the specific cause of the meningitis. However, the most urgent action in this case is to start IV antibiotics to treat the infection and reduce the risk of serious complications.
A CT Head may be ordered to further evaluate the patient’s symptoms and confirm the diagnosis of meningitis, but starting IV antibiotics should not be delayed while waiting for imaging results. Early treatment is crucial in cases of suspected meningitis to improve outcomes and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended management approach for a client on ART with a VL ≥ 1000 c/mL and adherence over 80% according to the 2023 ART Clinical Guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Focus on improved adherence before any regimen changes
Explanation:For clients on ART with a viral load (VL) ≥ 1000 c/mL and adherence over 80%, the guidelines recommend focusing on improved adherence before considering any changes to the regimen. The rationale is that resistance to Dolutegravir (DTG), a common component in ART regimens, is very uncommon, so addressing adherence issues is crucial for achieving viral suppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
What is the preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents initiating ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tenofovir Disoproxil Fumarate-Lamivudine-Dolutegravir (TLD)
Explanation:The preferred first-line ART regimen for adults and adolescents initiating ART is tenofovir disoproxil fumarate-lamivudine-dolutegravir (TLD) for several reasons.
Firstly, TLD is a highly effective regimen that has been shown to be well-tolerated and have a high barrier to resistance. This means that it is less likely for the virus to develop resistance to the medications in this regimen, leading to better long-term outcomes for the individual.
Secondly, TLD is a once-daily regimen, which can improve adherence to treatment. Adherence to ART is crucial for the success of the treatment and for achieving viral suppression.
Additionally, TLD has a favorable safety profile and is generally well-tolerated by most individuals. This is important as side effects and tolerability can impact an individual’s willingness to continue with treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Which of the above drugs is associated with peripheral neuropathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid is the drug associated with peripheral neuropathy in this case. This side effect occurs due to a deficiency of biologically active pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). Isoniazid can combine with pyridoxine in the body to form a hydrazone, which is then excreted in the urine, leading to a decrease in the levels of pyridoxine available for normal bodily functions.
To prevent or reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid, pyridoxine supplementation is often recommended. Pyridoxine is essential for nerve function and can help counteract the deficiency caused by isoniazid. Therefore, patients taking isoniazid for the treatment of Pulmonary Tuberculosis may also be prescribed pyridoxine to prevent peripheral neuropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii
Explanation:Chorioretinitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the choroid and retina in the eye. Among the congenital infections listed, toxoplasmosis caused by Toxoplasma gondii is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis. In infants with congenital toxoplasmosis, chorioretinitis is a common manifestation and can lead to vision impairment or blindness if left untreated. Therefore, when chorioretinitis is present in a newborn or infant, healthcare providers may consider toxoplasmosis as a possible cause and conduct further testing to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
What care is recommended for the non-pregnant woman of childbearing potential at home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the above
Explanation:It is important for non-pregnant women of childbearing potential to receive education on good nutrition and lifestyle in order to maintain their overall health and prepare their bodies for a potential pregnancy. Screening for TB and STIs is crucial to ensure that any infections are detected and treated promptly, reducing the risk of complications during pregnancy. Encouraging these women to attend antenatal clinics regularly can help monitor their reproductive health and address any concerns or issues that may arise. Additionally, offering HIV testing to both the woman and her partner is important for preventing the transmission of the virus to the unborn child and ensuring appropriate care and support for the family. Therefore, all of the above options are recommended for the care of non-pregnant women of childbearing potential at home.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Influenza is a RNA virus
Explanation:Influenza is a RNA virus, which means its genetic material is made up of RNA instead of DNA. Host penetration is indeed affected by the glycoprotein haemagglutinin, which helps the virus attach to and enter host cells. Attachment of the virus to the host cell wall is aided by the enzyme neuraminidase, which helps the virus release from the host cell after replication. New influenza subtypes are generated via antigenic drift, which refers to minor changes in the virus over time. Antigenic shift, on the other hand, is when there is a major change in the virus due to the exchange of genes with strains that infect different species. This can lead to the emergence of pandemic strains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true of Koplik's spots?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are diagnostic of measles
Explanation:Koplik’s spots are small, blue/white spots that appear on the buccal mucosa inside the mouth. They are considered pathognomonic for measles, meaning they are highly indicative of the disease. These spots typically appear near the premolars, not opposite the incisors. They are not related to fever height and do not appear on the hands. Koplik’s spots usually appear before the characteristic measles rash develops, making them an important diagnostic feature for healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
As of 2021, approximately what percentage of people living with HIV knew their HIV status?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 85%
Explanation:Among people living with HIV in 2021, approximately 85% knew their HIV status according to WHO estimates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
How are abandoned infants with unknown HIV exposure managed according to the guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat infant as a higher-risk, HIV-exposed infant
Explanation:Abandoned infants with unknown HIV exposure are managed as higher-risk, HIV-exposed infants because they are considered to be at increased risk of HIV infection due to their unknown exposure status. This approach ensures that these infants receive appropriate care and treatment in a timely manner to prevent HIV transmission and improve their health outcomes.
Immediate ART initiation based on assumptions is not recommended as it is important to confirm the infant’s HIV status before starting treatment. Waiting for parental consent before any procedure may delay necessary interventions for the infant’s health. Providing only supportive care without specific HIV-focused interventions may put the infant at risk of HIV transmission if they are indeed infected.
Therefore, treating abandoned infants with unknown HIV exposure as higher-risk, HIV-exposed infants allows for prompt initiation of ART and appropriate follow-up testing to confirm their HIV status and provide necessary care. This approach aligns with the guidelines for managing infants with potential HIV exposure and ensures the best possible outcomes for these vulnerable infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
What documents are recommended for tracking and managing the health of HIV-positive women and their infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet
Explanation:Tracking and managing the health of HIV-positive women and their infants is crucial in ensuring proper care and treatment. The Maternity Case Record is a comprehensive document that includes information on the mother’s medical history, antenatal care, HIV status, and treatment plan. It allows healthcare providers to monitor the progress of the pregnancy and ensure that the mother receives appropriate care.
The Road to Health Booklet is a similar document for infants, providing a record of their growth, development, immunizations, and any health concerns. It is important for tracking the infant’s health and ensuring they receive necessary medical interventions.
Using these documents in conjunction with a health diary and personal notes can provide a complete picture of the health status of both the mother and infant. Additionally, an electronic health record system can help streamline the tracking and management process by allowing for easy access to patient information and facilitating communication between healthcare providers.
In some cases, a national HIV/AIDS tracking database may also be utilized to monitor the overall health outcomes of HIV-positive women and their infants on a larger scale. By utilizing these recommended documents and systems, healthcare providers can effectively track and manage the health of HIV-positive women and their infants to ensure the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits the sexual health clinic following unprotected sex with a female partner. He reports experiencing coryzal symptoms and myalgia, which began four weeks ago. The patient has a history of asthma, which is managed with salbutamol. The doctor advises him to undergo HIV testing, and he consents. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Order HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody tests
Explanation:The recommended course of action is to order a combination test for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. The patient is exhibiting symptoms of HIV seroconversion and had unprotected intercourse 4 weeks ago. Combination tests are now the standard for HIV diagnosis and screening, with p24 antigen tests typically turning positive between 1 and 4 weeks post-exposure and antibody tests turning positive between 4 weeks and 3 months post-exposure. If a patient at risk tests positive, the diagnosis should be confirmed with a repeat test before starting treatment.
Offering post-exposure prophylaxis is not appropriate in this case, as the patient had unprotected intercourse 3 weeks ago. Two NRTIs and an NNRTI should not be prescribed as treatment, as the patient has not yet tested positive. Ordering only a p24 antigen or antibody test alone is also not recommended, as combination tests are now standard practice.
Understanding HIV Seroconversion and Diagnosis
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies to the HIV virus after being infected. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. Symptoms may include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis and typically occurs 3-12 weeks after infection.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually consists of both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test may be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man presents with a three day history of general malaise and low-grade temperature. Yesterday he developed extensive painful ulceration of his mouth and gums. On examination his temperature is 37.4ºC, pulse 84 / min and there is submandibular lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the 21-year-old man with general malaise, low-grade temperature, and painful ulceration of his mouth and gums is a Herpes simplex virus infection. This is indicated by the presence of gingivostomatitis, which is a characteristic feature of primary herpes simplex virus infection.
Herpetic gingivostomatitis is often the initial presentation during the first herpes simplex infection and is typically caused by HSV-1. It is more severe than herpes labialis (cold sores) and is the most common viral infection of the mouth. Symptoms of herpetic gingivostomatitis can include fever, anorexia, irritability, malaise, headache, submandibular lymphadenopathy, halitosis, and refusal to drink.
Other options such as Epstein Barr virus, Lichen planus, and HIV seroconversion illness are less likely in this case based on the presentation of symptoms. Epstein Barr virus infection may present with symptoms similar to infectious mononucleosis, Lichen planus typically presents with white, lacy patches in the mouth, and HIV seroconversion illness may present with a variety of symptoms but typically not with the characteristic ulceration seen in herpes simplex virus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended treatment for severe recurrent esophageal candidiasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Four-week course of fluconazole
Explanation:Severe recurrent esophageal candidiasis is a condition where the yeast Candida overgrowth in the esophagus causes persistent and severe symptoms. The recommended treatment for this condition is a four-week course of fluconazole. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication that is effective in treating Candida infections, including esophageal candidiasis.
Itraconazole and fluconazole can be used interchangeably for treating esophageal candidiasis, but fluconazole is preferred for severe cases. Amphotericin B may be used for a two-week course in cases where fluconazole is not effective or tolerated. Posaconazole may also be considered as a first-line treatment for severe cases.
Surgery is not typically recommended for esophageal candidiasis unless there are complications or other underlying conditions that require surgical intervention. Overall, a four-week course of fluconazole is the preferred treatment for severe recurrent esophageal candidiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma. His chemotherapy regime includes cyclophosphamide, vincristine, methotrexate, and prednisolone. After one day of starting chemotherapy, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs.
Which one of the following is most likely to have occurred?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tumour lysis syndrome
Explanation:The 34-year-old man who is HIV positive has started treatment for Burkitt lymphoma with chemotherapy. After one day of starting treatment, he becomes confused and complains of muscle cramps in his legs. These symptoms are most likely due to tumour lysis syndrome (TLS), which is a potentially fatal condition that can occur as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias.
TLS occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of tumour cells, leading to the release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia, along with hyponatraemia. The symptoms of TLS can include confusion, muscle cramps, and other neurological symptoms.
In this case, the introduction of chemotherapy likely triggered the development of TLS in the patient. It is important to be aware of this condition and to take steps for its prophylactic management. One such measure is the administration of rasburicase prior to chemotherapy, which helps reduce the risk of TLS by metabolizing uric acid to a more soluble form for renal excretion.
Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is also implicated in the development of Burkitt lymphoma. Treatment for Burkitt lymphoma involves chemotherapy, which can lead to a rapid response and potentially trigger TLS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended protocol for initiating ART in pregnant or breastfeeding women with a new HIV diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiate ART the same day after excluding contraindications
Explanation:Pregnant or breastfeeding women with a new HIV diagnosis should initiate ART the same day after excluding contra-indications because starting treatment as soon as possible has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. Delaying treatment until after delivery can increase the risk of transmission to the baby during pregnancy, labor, and delivery, as well as through breastfeeding.
Initiating ART immediately after the first postnatal visit or only if the CD4 count is less than 350 may delay treatment and increase the risk of transmission. Similarly, waiting for the viral load to be suppressed before starting treatment may not be feasible in the case of a new HIV diagnosis during pregnancy or breastfeeding.
Therefore, the recommended protocol is to start ART the same day after excluding contraindications to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 173
Incorrect
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What is advised for pregnant adolescents in the context of ART and HIV management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tailored approach to maternal management and infant prophylaxis
Explanation:Pregnant adolescents are a unique population that requires special attention when it comes to ART and HIV management. Due to their age and stage in life, they may face additional challenges such as lack of access to healthcare, stigma, and difficulties in adhering to treatment regimens.
It is advised to prioritize their education over health interventions as this can have a long-term impact on their health outcomes. Adult treatment regimens may not be suitable for pregnant adolescents as their bodies are still developing and may require adjustments to the ART regimen.
A regular ART regimen may not be sufficient for pregnant adolescents, as they may need a tailored approach to maternal management and infant prophylaxis to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.
Delaying ART initiation until after delivery is not recommended as it can increase the risk of mother-to-child transmission of HIV. It is important to start ART as soon as possible to reduce the viral load and protect the baby from HIV transmission.
In conclusion, pregnant adolescents should receive a tailored approach to their maternal management and infant prophylaxis to ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, fever and a productive cough. She has suffered multiple severe infections over the past five years; however, she has no other past medical history.
On examination, you note intercostal recessions and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. She has significant coarse crepitations in her right lower lobe.
You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
Temperature: 39.8 °C
Heart rate: 120 bpm
Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
Blood pressure: 150/94 mmHg (lying) 146/90 mmHg (standing)
Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air
Her initial investigation findings are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count (WCC) 14.4 × 109/l 4–11. × 109/l
Neutrophils 12800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
Lymphocytes 1400 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 110 g/dl 115–155 g/dl
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 360 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Her chest X-ray shows significant consolidation in the right lower lobe.
A blood film comes back and shows the following: sickled erythrocytes and Howell–Jolly bodies.
A sputum culture is grown and shows Streptococcus pneumoniae, and the patient’s pneumonia is managed successfully with antibiotics and IV fluid therapy.
What condition is predisposing this patient to severe infections?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenic dysfunction
Explanation:The patient has sickle cell disease and a history of recurrent infections, indicating long-term damage to the spleen. The blood film shows signs of splenic disruption, such as Howell-Jolly bodies, and a low lymphocyte level, which may be due to reduced lymphocyte storage capacity in the shrunken spleen. This is different from a splenic sequestration crisis, which is an acute pediatric emergency. The current admission may be an acute chest pain crisis, but it is not the cause of the recurrent infections. The patient does not have acute lymphoblastic leukemia, as there is no evidence of blastic cells or pancytopenia. Advanced HIV is a possibility, but the blood film suggests sickle cell disease. While the patient is at risk of an aplastic crisis, it typically occurs in younger patients after a parvovirus B19 infection, which is not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
A 79-year-old nursing home resident presents to the clinic with an intensely itchy rash. Examination reveals white linear lesions on the wrists and elbows, and red papules on the penile surface. Which of the following will be the most suitable management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical permethrin
Explanation:Scabies is a common skin condition caused by a parasitic mite that burrows into the skin, causing intense itching and skin lesions. In this case, the 79-year-old nursing home resident presents with white linear lesions on the wrists and elbows, as well as red papules on the penile surface, which are classic signs of scabies infestation.
The most suitable management plan for this patient would be topical permethrin. Permethrin is a medication commonly used to treat scabies by killing the mites and their eggs. It is applied to the entire body from the neck down and left on for a specified amount of time before being washed off. Additionally, it is important to decontaminate all clothing, bedding, and towels to prevent re-infestation.
Referral to a GUM (Genitourinary Medicine) clinic may not be necessary in this case, as the diagnosis of scabies can typically be made and managed in a primary care setting. Topical betnovate, topical ketoconazole, and topical selenium sulphide hyoscine are not appropriate treatments for scabies and would not effectively address the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
According to the provided guidelines, what should be measured to assess renal insufficiency for TDF use in adults and adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: eGFR using MDRD equation
Explanation:To assess renal insufficiency for TDF (tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) use in adults and adolescents, it is important to measure the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) using the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation. This is because TDF is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and individuals with impaired renal function may be at a higher risk of developing kidney-related side effects from the medication. Monitoring eGFR levels can help healthcare providers determine if TDF is safe to use or if dosage adjustments are necessary to prevent kidney damage. Other parameters such as CD4 cell count, HBsAg, haemoglobin (Hb), and mid upper arm circumference (MUAC) may also be important for assessing overall health and treatment response, but specifically for assessing renal insufficiency related to TDF use, eGFR using the MDRD equation is the key measurement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
What is the purpose of providing psychosocial support for pregnant and breastfeeding women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To address mental health and social risk factors that may affect outcomes
Explanation:Pregnancy and breastfeeding are critical periods in a woman’s life that can be accompanied by various mental health and social challenges. Providing psychosocial support during this time is important because it can help address these challenges and improve outcomes for both the mother and her infant.
For example, pregnant and breastfeeding women may experience stress, anxiety, depression, or other mental health issues that can impact their overall well-being and ability to care for themselves and their baby. By providing psychosocial support, healthcare providers can help these women cope with these challenges, access resources and support systems, and improve their mental health.
Additionally, social risk factors such as poverty, lack of social support, domestic violence, or substance abuse can also impact the health and well-being of pregnant and breastfeeding women. Psychosocial support can help address these factors, connect women with necessary resources and services, and ultimately improve outcomes for both the mother and her infant.
In conclusion, providing psychosocial support for pregnant and breastfeeding women is essential in addressing mental health and social risk factors that may affect outcomes. By addressing these challenges and providing support, healthcare providers can help ensure the well-being of both the mother and her infant during this critical time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Counselling
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for the 8-week-old baby with bilateral cataracts, thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus, and hepatosplenomegaly is congenital rubella syndrome. This is because the clinical presentation matches the classic triad of symptoms associated with congenital rubella syndrome, which includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities such as cataracts, and congenital heart disease like a patent ductus arteriosus. Other common findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities, hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice. Therefore, the most likely cause of the baby’s symptoms is rubella infection during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
Which ARV drug may cause hepatotoxicity, particularly in patients with concurrent liver disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ritonavir (RTV)
Explanation:Hepatotoxicity refers to liver damage caused by certain medications, including antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV. Ritonavir (RTV) is known to have the potential to cause hepatotoxicity, especially when used as a booster for other protease inhibitors. This risk is increased in patients with pre-existing liver disease, as their liver function may already be compromised.
Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF), nevirapine (NVP), and abacavir (ABC) are other ARV drugs that can also cause hepatotoxicity, but RTV is particularly associated with this side effect. Dolutegravir (DTG) is not typically known to cause hepatotoxicity.
Patients taking RTV, especially those with liver disease, should be closely monitored for signs of liver damage, such as elevated liver enzymes. If hepatotoxicity is suspected, the healthcare provider may need to adjust the treatment regimen or consider alternative medications to minimize the risk of further liver damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
Which of the following neuropathological findings in young individuals with HIV infection is also seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axonal damage
Explanation:In young individuals with HIV infection, neuropathological findings such as lymphocytic leptomeningitis, perivascular lymphocytic cuffing, parenchymal T and B lymphocyte infiltration, and microglial activation are commonly observed. These findings are indicative of the inflammatory response and immune cell infiltration in the brain due to HIV infection.
However, axonal damage is a neuropathological finding that is not specific to HIV infection and can also be seen in the brains of drug users who do not have HIV. Axonal damage can result from various factors such as inflammation, trauma, and hypoxia, which are common in drug users. Therefore, the presence of axonal damage in both individuals with early HIV infection and drug users without HIV suggests that this particular neuropathological finding may not be specific to HIV infection but rather a result of other factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Human Papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to various health issues, including genital warts and certain types of cancer. When a person is infected with HPV, their immune system produces antibodies to fight off the virus.
The percentage of women who develop antibodies against HPV after natural infection is estimated to be over 50%. This means that more than half of women who are exposed to HPV will have antibodies in their system to help protect them from future infections.
The options provided in the question are not accurate representations of the percentage of women who develop antibodies against HPV. The correct answer would be 0.5, as this represents 50% of women who develop antibodies after natural infection.
It is important to note that not all HPV infections result in symptoms, and many infections are cleared by the immune system within a couple of years. Vaccines, such as Gardasil, have been developed to help prevent HPV infection and reduce the risk of associated health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acid fast bacilli
Explanation:This homeless woman is presenting with symptoms that are concerning for tuberculosis, including a chronic cough, fever, night sweats, weight loss, and lung opacities on CXR. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is an acid-fast bacilli. Therefore, the next appropriate step for this patient would be to perform acid-fast bacilli testing on a sputum sample to confirm the diagnosis.
The Mantoux test and interferon gamma testing are used to screen for tuberculosis infection, but they do not confirm an active tuberculosis disease. A bronchoscopy may be considered if there is difficulty obtaining sputum samples or if further evaluation of the lung opacities is needed. A CT scan may also provide more detailed information about the lung opacities, but it is not necessary for confirming the diagnosis of tuberculosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
Number of cases that are infected at a specific point in time
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence
Explanation:Prevalence in epidemiology refers to the proportion of a population that has a specific condition at a given point in time. This can be expressed as a fraction, percentage, or number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people. Point prevalence specifically looks at the proportion of the population with the condition at a specific point in time, while period prevalence considers the proportion of the population that has the condition at some point during a given period.
Lifetime prevalence, on the other hand, looks at the proportion of the population that has experienced the condition at some point in their life up to the time of assessment. This includes individuals who may have had the condition in the past but no longer have it.
In the context of infectious diseases, prevalence can help public health officials understand the burden of a disease within a population and inform strategies for prevention and control. Sero-prevalence and seroconversion specifically refer to the prevalence of antibodies in a population and the rate at which individuals develop antibodies, respectively.
Overall, prevalence is an important measure in epidemiology that provides valuable information about the distribution of diseases and risk factors within a population.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
What should be done if a woman has indeterminate or discrepant HIV test results during labor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Communicate clearly to the mother and document the results and plan of action
Explanation:When a woman has indeterminate or discrepant HIV test results during labor, it is important to communicate clearly with the mother about the situation. This will help ensure that she understands the uncertainty surrounding her HIV status and the potential risks to her baby. By documenting the results and plan of action, healthcare providers can also ensure that there is a record of the steps taken to address the situation.
Treating the baby with a low-risk HIV-exposed infant protocol is a proactive measure that can help reduce the risk of transmission if the mother does have HIV. Offering immediate partner testing can also help determine the mother’s HIV status and inform appropriate care for both the mother and baby.
Providing routine labor and delivery management is important to ensure the safety and well-being of both the mother and baby during the birth process. Administering a stat single dose of NVP can also help reduce the risk of transmission if the mother does have HIV.
Overall, clear communication, documentation, and proactive measures are key when dealing with indeterminate or discrepant HIV test results during labor. This approach can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended treatment for cryptococcal meningitis in adults, adolescents, and children living with HIV who test positive for cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combination therapy with amphotericin B and fluconazole
Explanation:Cryptococcal meningitis is a serious fungal infection that affects the brain and spinal cord, particularly in individuals with weakened immune systems such as those living with HIV. The recommended treatment for cryptococcal meningitis in this population is combination therapy with amphotericin B and fluconazole.
Amphotericin B is a potent antifungal medication that is effective in treating cryptococcal meningitis. It is typically administered intravenously to achieve high levels in the cerebrospinal fluid where the infection is located. However, amphotericin B can have significant side effects, including kidney toxicity, which is why it is often used in combination with another antifungal medication.
Fluconazole is an oral antifungal medication that is also effective in treating cryptococcal meningitis. When used in combination with amphotericin B, fluconazole helps to enhance the effectiveness of the treatment and reduce the risk of relapse. This combination therapy has been shown to improve outcomes and reduce mortality rates in patients with cryptococcal meningitis.
Overall, combination therapy with amphotericin B and fluconazole is the recommended treatment for cryptococcal meningitis in adults, adolescents, and children living with HIV who test positive for cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor patients receiving this treatment to ensure optimal outcomes and manage any potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
What is the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG)
Explanation:Pregnant women who are already on antiretroviral therapy (ART) should continue their current regimen until their first viral load result is available. This is because it is important to ensure that the current regimen is effectively suppressing the virus before making any changes.
If the viral load result comes back as less than 50 copies/ml, then the preferred antiretroviral regimen for pregnant women is Tenofovir (TDF), Lamivudine (3TC), and Dolutegravir (DTG). This combination is recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO) as it is highly effective in suppressing the virus and has a good safety profile for both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
You are investigating the mechanisms of action of the currently available treatments for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Regarding HIV, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV may be transmitted by oral sex
Explanation:HIV: Transmission, Replication, and Types
HIV, or human immunodeficiency virus, is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Here are some important facts about HIV transmission, replication, and types:
Transmission: HIV can be transmitted through certain body fluids, including blood, breast milk, and vaginal/seminal fluids. If these fluids come into contact with a mucous membrane or broken skin, HIV can be transmitted. This means that oral sex can also transmit HIV if vaginal/semen fluids come into contact with the oral cavity.
Replication: HIV is an RNA retrovirus that requires reverse transcriptase to replicate. It contains two copies of genomic RNA. When a target cell is infected, the virus is transcribed into a double strand of DNA and integrated into the host cell genome.
Types: HIV-1 is the most common type of HIV in the UK, whereas HIV-2 is common in West Africa. HIV-1 is more virulent and transmissible than HIV-2. Both types can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact (including oral sex).
Depletion of CD4 T cells: HIV principally targets and destroys CD4 T cells (helper T cells). As a result, humoral and cell-mediated responses are no longer properly regulated, and a decline in immune function results.
Overall, understanding how HIV is transmitted, replicates, and the different types can help in prevention and treatment efforts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
What proportion of HIV infections worldwide are caused by HIV-1?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most
Explanation:HIV-1 is the most common and widespread type of the HIV virus, responsible for the majority of HIV infections worldwide. It is estimated that around 95% of all HIV infections are caused by HIV-1. This particular strain of the virus is more easily transmitted and progresses more rapidly to AIDS compared to HIV-2, which is less common and mainly found in West Africa.
The predominance of HIV-1 in the global HIV/AIDS epidemic is due to its higher transmission rates and ability to adapt and evolve rapidly. This has made it more challenging to develop effective vaccines and treatments against HIV-1 compared to HIV-2.
Overall, understanding the prevalence of HIV-1 is crucial for public health efforts to prevent and control the spread of HIV/AIDS worldwide. By focusing on strategies to target HIV-1 transmission and treatment, we can work towards reducing the impact of the virus on global health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
What is the primary purpose of cervical cancer screening according to the guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To identify women with cervical lesions and manage appropriately
Explanation:Cervical cancer screening is a crucial preventive measure aimed at detecting abnormal changes in the cells of the cervix before they develop into cancer. The primary purpose of cervical cancer screening, as per the guidelines, is to identify women with cervical lesions and manage them appropriately. This involves conducting regular screenings, such as Pap smears or HPV tests, to detect any abnormalities early on. If abnormal cells are found, further diagnostic tests and treatments can be initiated to prevent the progression to cervical cancer. By identifying and managing cervical lesions promptly, the risk of developing cervical cancer can be significantly reduced, ultimately saving lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended approach if a client exhibits signs of lipoatrophy while on ART?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Substitution of the offending agent with an alternative drug
Explanation:Lipoatrophy is a condition characterized by the loss of subcutaneous fat, which can be a side effect of certain antiretroviral therapy (ART) medications. When a client exhibits signs of lipoatrophy while on ART, it is important to address this issue promptly to prevent further deterioration of body composition.
Increasing the dosage of current ART medications or adding a lipid-lowering agent to the regimen may not effectively address the underlying cause of lipoatrophy. Switching to an integrase inhibitor-based regimen may be a viable option, as some studies have shown that these medications are less likely to cause lipoatrophy compared to other classes of ART drugs.
However, the most recommended approach is to discontinue the offending agent that is causing lipoatrophy and substitute it with an alternative drug that is less likely to cause this side effect. This approach can help improve the client’s body composition and overall quality of life while still effectively managing their HIV infection.
In conclusion, it is important for healthcare providers to closely monitor clients on ART for signs of lipoatrophy and take appropriate action to address this issue. Substituting the offending agent with an alternative drug is the recommended approach to mitigate further adverse effects on body composition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
What action should be taken for clients diagnosed with DS-TB at a non-neurological site with CD4 < 50 cells/μL?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiate ART within 2 weeks of starting TB treatment
Explanation:Clients diagnosed with DS-TB at a non-neurological site with a CD4 count of less than 50 cells/μL are considered to have advanced HIV disease. In these cases, it is recommended to initiate ART within 2 weeks of starting TB treatment to reduce the risk of mortality and improve outcomes.
Initiating ART early in these patients can help to improve immune function, reduce the risk of opportunistic infections, and decrease the likelihood of TB treatment failure. Delaying ART in these individuals can lead to increased morbidity and mortality due to the high risk of disease progression and complications associated with advanced HIV disease.
Therefore, the correct action to take for clients diagnosed with DS-TB at a non-neurological site with CD4 < 50 cells/μL is to initiate ART within 2 weeks of starting TB treatment. This approach is in line with current guidelines and best practices for the management of HIV/TB co-infection in individuals with advanced HIV disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman presents with night sweats, fever, and haemoptysis. A diagnosis of tuberculosis was suspected.
Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis of tuberculosis is considered correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycobacteria tuberculosis can be typed using a RFLP method
Explanation:Although a variety of clinical specimens may be submitted to the laboratory to recover MTB and NTM, respiratory secretions such as sputum and bronchial aspirates are the most common. An early-morning specimen should be collected on three consecutive days, although recent studies have suggested that the addition of a third specimen does not significantly increase the sensitivity of detecting Mycobacteria.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis appear red on acid-fast staining because they take up the primary stain, which is carbolfuchsin, and is not decolorized by the acid alcohol anymore.
Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen medium should be read within 5 to 7 days after inoculation and once a week thereafter for up to 8 weeks.
Nucleic acid amplification assays designed to detect M. tuberculosis complex
bacilli directly from patient specimens can be performed in as little as 6 to 8 hours on processed specimens. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her CXR shows bilateral consolidated areas. Which antibiotic would you suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The 38-year-old woman likely has pneumonia, as indicated by the bilateral consolidated areas on her chest X-ray. Pneumonia can be caused by bacterial infections, and antibiotics are typically prescribed to treat it.
Among the options provided, ciprofloxacin is a suitable choice for treating pneumonia. Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that has good penetration into lung tissues, making it effective in treating respiratory infections. It has broad-spectrum activity against a variety of bacteria, including those commonly responsible for pneumonia.
Clarithromycin and amoxicillin are also commonly used antibiotics for treating pneumonia, but ciprofloxacin may be preferred in this case due to its ability to penetrate lung tissues effectively. Cephalexin is not typically used to treat pneumonia, and gentamycin is usually reserved for more severe cases or when other antibiotics have failed.
Overall, ciprofloxacin would be a suitable choice for treating the woman’s pneumonia based on the information provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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Which antiretroviral drug is automatically included in the first-line ART regimen for women living with HIV, regardless of HBV status?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tenofovir (TDF)
Explanation:Tenofovir (TDF) is automatically included in the first-line ART regimen for women living with HIV, regardless of HBV status, because it is a highly effective antiretroviral drug that is well-tolerated and has a high barrier to resistance. Tenofovir is a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor that works by blocking the enzyme needed for HIV replication. It is also effective against hepatitis B virus (HBV), making it a good choice for individuals who may be co-infected with both HIV and HBV.
Additionally, Tenofovir has been shown to have a good safety profile and is generally well-tolerated by most patients. It is available in both oral tablet and oral powder formulations, making it convenient for patients to take. Tenofovir is also included in combination with other antiretroviral drugs to form a complete first-line ART regimen that targets HIV from multiple angles, reducing the risk of developing drug resistance.
Overall, Tenofovir is a key component of first-line ART regimens for women living with HIV, regardless of HBV status, due to its effectiveness, tolerability, and ability to target both HIV and HBV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms
Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with advanced HIV disease. What is involved in strategic planning with antiretroviral medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV patients should be started with ART at any CD4 count
Explanation:Myth-busting HIV Treatment Guidelines
Debunking Common Misconceptions about HIV Treatment Guidelines
There are several misconceptions about HIV treatment guidelines that need to be addressed. Firstly, it is not necessary to wait until a patient’s CD4 count drops below 350 cells/ml before starting antiretroviral therapy (ART) guidelines recommend starting treatment at any CD4 count.
Secondly, intravenous didanosine should not be used for the treatment of pregnant women. The WHO has warned against the use of didanosine and stavudine in pregnant women due to an increased risk of lactic acidosis. Women who are already taking ART and/or PCP prophylaxis before pregnancy should not discontinue their medication. If starting ART during pregnancy, potent combinations of three or more antiretroviral drugs are recommended, but this should be delayed until after the first trimester if possible.
Thirdly, HIV treatment does not involve three nucleoside analogues. Instead, treatment involves a combination of three drugs, which includes two nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) and one ritonavir-boosted protease inhibitor (PI/r), one non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), or one integrase inhibitor (INI).
Lastly, the use of zidovudine in post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for needlestick injuries in healthcare workers does not completely remove the risk of seroconversion. While this treatment option has been shown to reduce the risk, it does not eliminate it entirely.
In conclusion, it is important to stay up-to-date with current HIV treatment guidelines and to dispel any misconceptions that may exist. Starting ART at any CD4 count, avoiding certain medications during pregnancy, using a combination of three drugs, and understanding the limitations of PEP are all crucial components of effective HIV treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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What is the recommended timeframe for initiating Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) after diagnosis or linking to care?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Within one week
Explanation:Initiating Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) within one week of diagnosis or linking to care is recommended for several reasons. Firstly, starting ART early can help to suppress the HIV virus quickly, reducing the viral load in the body and preventing further damage to the immune system. This can lead to better long-term health outcomes for the individual living with HIV.
Additionally, starting ART early can also help to reduce the risk of HIV transmission to others. When the viral load is suppressed, the risk of transmitting the virus to sexual partners or through sharing needles is greatly reduced.
Overall, initiating ART within one week of diagnosis or linking to care is crucial in order to improve health outcomes for individuals living with HIV and to prevent further transmission of the virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 198
Incorrect
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Under what circumstances should ART be delayed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If concerns about adherence outweigh the risk of HIV disease progression
Explanation:Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a crucial component of HIV treatment that helps to suppress the virus and prevent disease progression. Therefore, it is generally recommended that ART be initiated as soon as possible after an HIV diagnosis, regardless of the client’s clinical condition or symptoms.
However, there may be certain circumstances where delaying ART is considered. One such circumstance is when concerns about the client’s ability to adhere to the medication regimen outweigh the risk of HIV disease progression. Adherence to ART is essential for its effectiveness, and if a client is unable or unwilling to adhere to the prescribed regimen, it may be more beneficial to delay starting ART until the client is better able to adhere to the treatment plan.
In all other cases, including if the client prefers alternative therapies, if the client’s clinical condition is not severe, if the client is asymptomatic, or if laboratory results are available, ART should not be delayed. The benefits of starting ART early and maintaining adherence to the treatment plan far outweigh any potential risks or concerns in these situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old girl who was diagnosed with HIV at 8 weeks of age has been taking antiretroviral therapy and Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis since the time HIV was diagnosed. She achieved an undetectable HIV RNA 4 weeks after starting antiretroviral therapy and has maintained suppressed HIV RNA levels since that time. Her recent laboratory studies showed an undetectable HIV RNA level, an absolute CD4 count of 812 cells/mm3, and a CD4 percentage of 26%.
Which one of the following should be recommended regarding Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be stopped now
Explanation:All infants with HIV who are taking Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis should continue the prophylaxis until age 1 year and then undergo reassessment for the need for prophylaxis. For children with HIV who are older than 1 year of age, discontinuing Pneumocystis pneumonia prophylaxis should be considered if the child meets the following two criteria:
They have received combination antiretroviral therapy for at least 6 months
They have surpassed the original age-specific CD4 count and percentage threshold for initiating prophylaxis and maintained above that threshold for at least 3 consecutive months.
For children who do not have virologic suppression, the CD4 count and percentage should be reassessed every 3 months, and prophylaxis should be restarted if the age-specific threshold for prophylaxis is once again met. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Evaluation
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Question 200
Incorrect
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What is the acceptable level for the Absolute creatinine level in pregnant women to indicate eligibility for TDF use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:During pregnancy, the kidneys undergo changes to accommodate the increased metabolic demands of the mother and fetus. Creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles and filtered out of the blood by the kidneys. An elevated creatinine level can indicate impaired kidney function, which may affect the body’s ability to process medications like TDF (tenofovir disoproxil fumarate) safely.
A creatinine level of < 85 μmol/L is considered acceptable for pregnant women to indicate eligibility for TDF use. This level suggests that the kidneys are functioning well enough to safely process the medication without causing harm to the mother or fetus. It is important to monitor creatinine levels regularly during pregnancy to ensure that TDF therapy is safe and effective for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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