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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of confusion. An MRI scan is performed, which reveals a temporal lobe infarct.
Which SINGLE clinical feature would you NOT anticipate to observe during the examination of this patient?Your Answer: Prosopagnosia (difficulty in recognizing faces)
Correct Answer: Expressive dysphasia
Explanation:The temporal lobes play a crucial role in various functions such as processing visual and auditory information, storing memories, and helping us categorize objects. However, if this area of the brain is affected by a stroke, a space-occupying lesion, or trauma, it can lead to several issues. These include problems with understanding and producing language (known as receptive dysphasia), difficulty recognizing faces (prosopagnosia), an inability to categorize objects, difficulty understanding auditory information (auditory agnosia), and impaired perception of music.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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You are summoned to the resuscitation room to assist with a 68-year-old patient who has experienced cardiac arrest. The team has initiated the initial round of chest compressions and has connected the monitoring equipment. You propose a brief pause in chest compressions to assess if the rhythm is suitable for defibrillation. The patient's rhythm is indeed defibrillated. However, despite administering three successive shocks, there is no spontaneous return of circulation. What are the two appropriate medications to administer now, and what are their respective doses?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 1 mg IV & amiodarone 300 mg IV
Explanation:After the third shock is administered to patients with a shockable rhythm, it is recommended to administer two drugs: adrenaline and amiodarone. Adrenaline should be given at a dose of 1 mg intravenously (or intraosseously) for adult patients in cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm. For adult patients in cardiac arrest who are in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia, amiodarone should be given at a dose of 300 mg intravenously (or intraosseously) after three shocks have been administered. In cases where amiodarone is unavailable, lidocaine may be used as an alternative.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with colicky pain in the upper right quadrant, along with nausea and vomiting. You suspect he is having an episode of biliary colic.
Where is the most common place for gallstones to get stuck and cause cholestasis?Your Answer: Common bile duct
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s pouch
Explanation:Biliary colic occurs when a gallstone temporarily blocks either the cystic duct or Hartmann’s pouch, causing the gallbladder to contract. The blockage is relieved when the stone either falls back into the gallbladder or passes through the duct.
Located at the junction of the gallbladder’s neck and the cystic duct, there is a protrusion in the gallbladder wall known as Hartmann’s pouch. This is the most common site for gallstones to become stuck and cause cholestasis.
Patients experiencing biliary colic typically present with intermittent, cramp-like pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. The pain can last anywhere from 15 minutes to 24 hours and is often accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. It is not uncommon for the pain to radiate to the right scapula area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of sudden right-sided scrotal pain and high fever. On examination, the epididymis is tender and swollen, and the overlying scrotal skin is red and warm to the touch. Lifting the scrotum provides relief from the pain. He has a history of epilepsy and takes phenytoin for it. He has no other significant medical history and no known allergies to medications.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a complaint of progressive lip swelling that began 1 hour ago. Upon reviewing her medical history, it is noted that she has a previous diagnosis of hereditary angioedema (HAE). The following findings have been documented:
- Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
- Pulse rate: 90 beats per minute
- Respiratory rate: 16 breaths per minute
- Temperature: 37.5 degrees Celsius
What is the primary concern regarding this patient?Your Answer: Airway obstruction
Explanation:The primary concern regarding this patient is airway obstruction. The patient’s complaint of progressive lip swelling, along with her previous diagnosis of hereditary angioedema (HAE), suggests that she may be experiencing an allergic reaction. Angioedema can cause swelling in various parts of the body, including the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling progresses and affects the airway, it can lead to difficulty breathing and potentially block the airway completely. This can be a life-threatening emergency and requires immediate intervention to ensure the patient’s airway remains open and they can breathe properly.
Further Reading:
Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.
Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.
HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.
The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.
The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.
In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient comes in with a history of back pain and neurological symptoms in the lower limbs. He has experienced back issues intermittently for a few years and has previously been diagnosed with spondylolysis.
Which specific part of the vertebra is typically affected by spondylolysis?Your Answer: Pars interarticularis
Explanation:Spondylolysis refers to a flaw or fracture caused by stress in the pars interarticularis of the vertebral arch. While it can occur in the cervical vertebrae, it is most commonly found in the lower lumbar vertebrae, specifically L5. This injury is frequently seen in children and adolescents who engage in sports activities that place repetitive strain on the lower back, such as gymnastics, football, and weightlifting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 7
Correct
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A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department following a fall which occurred while the patient was getting out of bed. The patient complains of feeling dizzy as he got out of bed before experiencing tunnel vision and briefly losing consciousness. The patient is certain he only blacked out for a few seconds as the time on the bedside clock had not changed. The patient informs you that he has had several similar episodes over the past few months when getting out of bed, but most of the time he only feels dizzy and doesn't faint. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control or biting his tongue. An ECG is performed which shows normal sinus rhythm. You note the patient takes the following medication:
Lisinopril 10 mg OD
Fluoxetine 20 mg OD
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Orthostatic hypotension
Explanation:Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where patients feel lightheaded and may experience tunnel vision when they stand up from a lying down position. These symptoms are often worse in the morning. The patient’s history of recurrent episodes after being in a supine position for a long time strongly suggests orthostatic hypotension. There are no signs of epilepsy, such as deja-vu or jambs vu prodrome, tongue biting, loss of bladder or bowel control, or postictal confusion. The normal ECG and consistent timing of symptoms make postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (PAF) less likely. There are no neurological deficits to suggest a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The prodromal symptoms, such as tunnel vision and lightheadedness, align more with orthostatic hypotension rather than vasovagal syncope, which typically occurs after long periods of standing and is characterized by feeling hot and sweaty. Although carotid sinus syndrome could be considered as a differential diagnosis, as the patient’s head turning on getting out of bed may trigger symptoms, it is not one of the options.
Further Reading:
Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.
When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.
During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.
There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45 year old female comes to the emergency department 2 weeks after having a tracheostomy placed, complaining of bleeding around the tracheostomy site and experiencing small amounts of blood in her cough. What is the primary concern for the clinician regarding the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Tracheo-innominate fistula
Explanation:Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) should be considered as a possible diagnosis in patients experiencing bleeding after a tracheostomy. This bleeding, occurring between 3 days and 6 weeks after the tracheostomy procedure, should be treated as TIF until ruled out. While this complication is uncommon, it is extremely dangerous and often leads to death if not promptly addressed through surgical intervention. Therefore, any bleeding from a tracheostomy tube should be regarded as potentially life-threatening.
Further Reading:
Patients with tracheostomies may experience emergencies such as tube displacement, tube obstruction, and bleeding. Tube displacement can occur due to accidental dislodgement, migration, or erosion into tissues. Tube obstruction can be caused by secretions, lodged foreign bodies, or malfunctioning humidification devices. Bleeding from a tracheostomy can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue.
When assessing a patient with a tracheostomy, an ABCDE approach should be used, with attention to red flags indicating a tracheostomy or laryngectomy emergency. These red flags include audible air leaks or bubbles of saliva indicating gas escaping past the cuff, grunting, snoring, stridor, difficulty breathing, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, hypoxia, visibly displaced tracheostomy tube, blood or blood-stained secretions around the tube, increased discomfort or pain, increased air required to keep the cuff inflated, tachycardia, hypotension or hypertension, decreased level of consciousness, and anxiety, restlessness, agitation, and confusion.
Algorithms are available for managing tracheostomy emergencies, including obstruction or displaced tube. Oxygen should be delivered to the face and stoma or tracheostomy tube if there is uncertainty about whether the patient has had a laryngectomy. Tracheostomy bleeding can be classified as early or late, with causes including direct injury, anticoagulation, mucosal or tracheal injury, and granulation tissue. Tracheo-innominate fistula (TIF) is a rare but life-threatening complication that occurs when the tracheostomy tube erodes into the innominate artery. Urgent surgical intervention is required for TIF, and management includes general resuscitation measures and specific measures such as bronchoscopy and applying direct digital pressure to the innominate artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with back pain and a fever. After a thorough evaluation and tests, the patient is diagnosed with discitis. She has no significant medical history and does not take any medications regularly.
What is the most probable organism responsible for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.
A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old doctor in the Emergency Department complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her hands that appeared 15 minutes after she wore a pair of latex gloves. What is the most probable cause for the development of this rash?
Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:Type I hypersensitivity reactions, also known as allergic reactions, are triggered when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, which is referred to as the allergen. These reactions are mediated by IgE and typically manifest within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen. One common symptom of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is the rapid onset of a urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after coming into contact with the allergen, such as latex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In which age group does Addison's disease typically first manifest?
Your Answer: Adults aged 18-30 years of age
Correct Answer: Adults aged 30-50 years of age
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, is a condition that is more frequently observed in women and typically manifests in individuals aged 30-50 years. While it can affect people of all ages, it predominantly occurs in women and those within the 30-50 age range.
Further Reading:
Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.
The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.
The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.
Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.
There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and throwing up. Her mom tells you that she has been losing weight lately and seems to be drinking a lot and peeing a lot. During the examination, she appears tired and you notice that she is dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and quickly. Her blood sugar levels are found to be extremely high when her blood is tested.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to process glucose. This results in high blood sugar levels and excessive thirst. As the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, dehydration becomes inevitable. Without insulin, the body starts using fat as its main energy source, which leads to the production of ketones and a buildup of acid in the blood.
The main characteristics of DKA are high blood sugar levels (above 11 mmol/l), the presence of ketones in the blood or urine, and acidosis (low bicarbonate levels and/or low venous pH). Symptoms of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, frequent urination, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a distinct smell of ketones on the breath, rapid and deep breathing, confusion or reduced consciousness, and cardiovascular symptoms like rapid heartbeat, low blood pressure, and shock.
To diagnose DKA, various tests should be performed, including blood glucose measurement, urine dipstick test (which shows high levels of glucose and ketones), blood ketone assay (more accurate than urine dipstick), complete blood count, and electrolyte levels. Arterial or venous blood gas analysis can confirm the presence of metabolic acidosis.
The management of DKA involves careful fluid administration and insulin replacement. Fluid boluses should only be given if there are signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg increments. Once shock is resolved, rehydration should be done over 48 hours. The first 20 ml/kg of fluid given for resuscitation should not be subtracted from the total fluid volume calculated for the 48-hour replacement. In cases of hypotensive shock, consultation with a pediatric intensive care specialist may be necessary.
Insulin replacement should begin 1-2 hours after starting intravenous fluid therapy. A soluble insulin infusion should be used at a dosage of 0.05-0.1 units/kg/hour. The goal is to bring blood glucose levels close to normal. Regular monitoring of electrolytes and blood glucose levels is important to prevent imbalances and rapid changes in serum osmolarity. Identifying and treating the underlying cause of DKA is also crucial.
When calculating fluid requirements for children and young people with DKA, assume a 5% fluid deficit for mild-to-moderate cases (blood pH of 7.1 or above) and a 10% fluid deficit in severe DKA (indicated by a blood pH below 7.1). The total replacement fluid to be given over 48 hours is calculated as follows: Hourly rate = (deficit/48 hours) + maintenance per hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 36 year old man has arrived at the Emergency Department seeking treatment for a deep cut on his leg. He is by himself, and before examining the wound, he warns you to 'be careful' and reveals that he recently tested positive for HIV. He suspects that he contracted the virus after engaging in an extramarital affair. The nurse then approaches and asks if it is permissible for his wife to enter the room. He informs you that his wife is unaware of his diagnosis and he wishes to keep it that way. You observe that his wife appears to be in the early stages of pregnancy.
In addition to providing appropriate medical care for the wound, what steps should you take?Your Answer: If confirmed HIV infection, explain risks to his wife and unborn child and need for disclosure. If he refuses to consent to this, explain you have the right to do this against his wishes.
Explanation:This is a complex situation that presents both ethical and medico-legal challenges. While patients have a right to confidentiality, it is important to recognize that this right is not absolute and may not apply in every circumstance. There are certain situations where it is appropriate to breach confidentiality, such as when mandated by law or when there is a threat to public health. However, it is crucial to make every effort to persuade the patient against disclosure and to inform them of your intentions.
In this particular case, the patient has disclosed to you that they have recently been diagnosed with HIV, which they believe was contracted from a sexual encounter outside of their marriage. They have explicitly stated that they do not want you to inform their wife, who is in the early stages of pregnancy. Before taking any action, it is advisable to gather all the relevant facts and confirm the patient’s HIV diagnosis through their health records, including any other blood-borne viruses.
If the facts are indeed confirmed, it is important to continue efforts to persuade the patient of the necessity for their wife to be informed. If she has been exposed, she could greatly benefit from testing and starting antiretroviral therapy. Additionally, specialized care during early pregnancy could help prevent transmission of the virus to the unborn child. However, if the patient continues to refuse disclosure, you have the right to breach confidentiality, but it is crucial to inform the patient of your intentions beforehand. Seeking support from your defense organization is also recommended in such situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child presents extremely ill with acute severe asthma. He weighs 18 kg.
As per the BTS guidelines, what dosage of prednisolone should be prescribed for him?Your Answer: 22 mg
Correct Answer: 30 mg
Explanation:The BTS guidelines for acute asthma in children recommend administering oral steroids early in the treatment of asthma attacks. It is advised to give a dose of 20 mg prednisolone for children aged 2–5 years and a dose of 30–40 mg for children over 5 years old. If a child is already taking maintenance steroid tablets, they should receive 2 mg/kg prednisolone, up to a maximum dose of 60 mg. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose of prednisolone should be repeated. In cases where a child is unable to keep down orally ingested medication, intravenous steroids should be considered. Typically, treatment for up to three days is sufficient, but the duration of the course should be adjusted based on the time needed for recovery. Tapering off the medication is not necessary unless the steroid course exceeds 14 days. For more information, refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old man has ingested an excessive amount of paracetamol. He consumed the overdose 12 hours ago and is unsure of the number of tablets he has taken.
Which of the following substances can be utilized as an antidote for paracetamol overdose?Your Answer: Methionine
Explanation:The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is an extremely effective antidote, but its effectiveness decreases quickly if administered more than a few hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions that exceed 75 mg/kg are considered to be significant.
For patients who decline treatment, methionine is a helpful alternative. It is taken orally in a dosage of 2.5 g every 4 hours, with a total dose of 10 g.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 16
Correct
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A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of increasing lip swelling that began 30 minutes ago. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is noted that he has a previous diagnosis of hereditary angioedema (HAE) and that his primary care physician recently prescribed him a new medication. The following vital signs have been documented:
Blood pressure: 122/78 mmHg
Pulse rate: 88 bpm
Respiration rate: 15
Temperature: 37.4 oC
During episodes of acute hereditary angioedema, which systems are most commonly affected?Your Answer: Respiratory, gastrointestinal and integumentary systems
Explanation:Hereditary angioedema (HAE) mainly affects the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and integumentary systems. This condition primarily impacts the respiratory system, gastrointestinal system, and the skin.
Further Reading:
Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.
HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.
The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.
The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.
In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in the morning) and difficulty falling asleep, mood changes throughout the day, fatigue, and absence of menstrual periods.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:In this scenario, there are similarities between hypothyroidism and perimenopause in terms of their features. However, the most frequent cause of experiencing these symptoms together is depression. Therefore, it is necessary to delve deeper into this woman’s mood to rule out depression and provide appropriate management.
To exclude hypothyroidism as a potential cause, a TSH blood test should be conducted. Additionally, it is important to inquire about other symptoms that may align with early menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient with type II diabetes mellitus has ingested an excessive amount of gliclazide.
What are the possible antidotes that can be administered in cases of sulphonylurea poisoning?Your Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:There are various specific remedies available for different types of poisons and overdoses. The following list provides an outline of some of these antidotes:
Poison: Benzodiazepines
Antidote: FlumazenilPoison: Beta-blockers
Antidotes: Atropine, Glucagon, InsulinPoison: Carbon monoxide
Antidote: OxygenPoison: Cyanide
Antidotes: Hydroxocobalamin, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphatePoison: Ethylene glycol
Antidotes: Ethanol, FomepizolePoison: Heparin
Antidote: Protamine sulphatePoison: Iron salts
Antidote: DesferrioxaminePoison: Isoniazid
Antidote: PyridoxinePoison: Methanol
Antidotes: Ethanol, FomepizolePoison: Opioids
Antidote: NaloxonePoison: Organophosphates
Antidotes: Atropine, PralidoximePoison: Paracetamol
Antidotes: Acetylcysteine, MethioninePoison: Sulphonylureas
Antidotes: Glucose, OctreotidePoison: Thallium
Antidote: Prussian bluePoison: Warfarin
Antidote: Vitamin K, Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)By utilizing these specific antidotes, medical professionals can effectively counteract the harmful effects of various poisons and overdoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents after experiencing a syncopal episode earlier in the day. She fainted while jogging on the treadmill at her local gym. She regained consciousness quickly and currently feels completely fine. Upon examination, she has a slim physique, normal heart sounds without any additional sounds or murmurs, clear lungs, and a soft abdomen. She is originally from Thailand and mentions that her mother passed away suddenly in her 30s.
Her ECG reveals:
- Right bundle branch block pattern
- Downward-sloping 'coved' ST elevation in leads V1-V3
- Widespread upward-sloping ST depression in other leads
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Brugada syndrome
Explanation:Brugada syndrome is a genetic disorder that is passed down from one generation to another in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by abnormal findings on an electrocardiogram (ECG) and can lead to sudden cardiac death. The cause of death in individuals with Brugada syndrome is typically ventricular fibrillation, which occurs as a result of specific defects in ion channels that are determined by our genes. Interestingly, this syndrome is more commonly observed in South East Asia and is actually the leading cause of sudden unexplained cardiac death in Thailand.
One of the key features seen on an ECG that is consistent with Type 1 Brugada syndrome is a pattern known as right bundle branch block. Additionally, there is a distinct downward sloping coved ST elevation observed in leads V1-V3. These specific ECG findings help to identify individuals who may be at risk for developing Brugada syndrome and experiencing its potentially fatal consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance with a 68-year-old individual who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three defibrillation attempts and the administration of adrenaline and amiodarone, the patient experiences a restoration of spontaneous circulation.
What is the recommended target SpO2 following a cardiac arrest?Your Answer: 92-94%
Correct Answer: 94-98%
Explanation:The recommended target SpO2, which measures the percentage of oxygen saturation in the blood, following a cardiac arrest is 94-98%. This range ensures that the patient receives adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia, which is an excess of oxygen in the body.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Resus
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Question 21
Correct
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A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel movements is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a pork dish that was contaminated with the parasite.
Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this infestation?Your Answer: Taenia solium
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 22
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with recurring nosebleeds. During the examination, you observe a small bleeding point in the front of the nose.
What is the PRIMARY location for anterior bleeding?Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus
Explanation:The upper part of the nose receives blood supply from the anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries, which are derived from the internal carotid artery. On the other hand, the remaining parts of the nose and sinuses are nourished by the greater palatine, sphenopalatine, and superior labial arteries. These arteries are branches of the external carotid arteries.
In the front part of the nasal septum, there exists a network of blood vessels where the branches of the internal and external carotid artery connect. This network is known as Kiesselbach’s plexus, also referred to as Little’s area. It is worth noting that Kiesselbach’s plexus is the most common location for anterior bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 23
Correct
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You are informed that a 45-year-old individual is en route to the emergency department after inhaling an unidentified gas that was intentionally released on a commuter train. Authorities suspect a potential terrorist attack and recommend checking the patient for signs of organophosphate poisoning. What clinical feature would be anticipated in a case of organophosphate poisoning?
Your Answer: Drooling saliva
Explanation:Organophosphate poisoning is characterized by a set of symptoms known as SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastric cramps, Emesis). Additionally, individuals affected may experience pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion. Organophosphates serve as the foundation for various weaponized nerve agents like Sarin and VX, which were infamously employed by the terrorist group Aum Shinrikyo during multiple attacks in Tokyo in the mid-1990s. While SLUDGE is a commonly used acronym to recall the clinical features, it is important to note that other symptoms such as pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion are not included in the acronym.
Further Reading:
Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.
When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.
To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.
Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.
Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.
After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 24
Correct
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You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a patient who has experienced cardiac arrest. The team is getting ready to administer amiodarone. What is the mechanism of action of amiodarone in the context of cardiac arrest?
Your Answer: Blockade of potassium channels
Explanation:Amiodarone functions by inhibiting voltage-gated potassium channels, leading to an extended repolarization period and decreased excitability of the heart muscle.
Further Reading:
In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.
Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.
Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.
Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.
Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.
It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female presents to the emergency department with complaints of painful urination, frequent urination, and a strong odor during urination. The patient's temperature is 37.7ºC. All observations are within normal limits. A urine dipstick test shows ++ nitrites, ++ leukocytes, and + blood. The patient reports no allergies.
What is the most suitable treatment regimen for this patient's lower urinary tract infection?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin 100 mg (modified-release) twice daily for 3 days
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily for 7 day
Explanation:When treating men for uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs), a 7-day course of antibiotics is typically recommended. Unlike women, men are advised to take a longer course of antibiotics, with a preference for 7 days instead of 3. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) suggests the following as the first-line treatment, although local microbiology departments may make adjustments based on antibiotic resistance patterns: Trimethoprim 200 mg taken twice daily for 7 days, or Nitrofurantoin 100 mg (modified-release) taken twice daily for 7 days. If prostatitis is suspected, a quinolone antibiotic like ciprofloxacin may be used, and treatment duration is usually 2-4 weeks.
Further Reading:
A urinary tract infection (UTI) is an infection that occurs in any part of the urinary system, from the kidneys to the bladder. It is characterized by symptoms such as dysuria, nocturia, polyuria, urgency, incontinence, and changes in urine appearance and odor. UTIs can be classified as lower UTIs, which affect the bladder, or upper UTIs, which involve the kidneys. Recurrent UTIs can be due to relapse or re-infection, and the number of recurrences considered significant depends on age and sex. Uncomplicated UTIs occur in individuals with a normal urinary tract and kidney function, while complicated UTIs are caused by anatomical, functional, or pharmacological factors that make the infection persistent, recurrent, or resistant to treatment.
The most common cause of UTIs is Escherichia coli, accounting for 70-95% of cases. Other causative organisms include Staphylococcus saprophyticus, Proteus mirabilis, and Klebsiella species. UTIs are typically caused by bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract entering the urinary tract through the urethra. Other less common mechanisms of entry include direct spread via the bloodstream or instrumentation of the urinary tract, such as catheter insertion.
Diagnosis of UTIs involves urine dipstick testing and urine culture. A urine culture should be sent in certain circumstances, such as in male patients, pregnant patients, women aged 65 years or older, patients with persistent or unresolved symptoms, recurrent UTIs, patients with urinary catheters, and those with risk factors for resistance or complicated UTIs. Further investigations, such as cystoscopy and imaging, may be required in cases of recurrent UTIs or suspected underlying causes.
Management of UTIs includes simple analgesia, advice on adequate fluid intake, and the prescription of appropriate antibiotics. The choice of antibiotic depends on the patient’s gender and risk factors. For women, first-line antibiotics include nitrofurantoin or trimethoprim, while second-line options include nitrofurantoin (if not used as first-line), pivmecillinam, or fosfomycin. For men, trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin are the recommended antibiotics. In cases of suspected acute prostatitis, fluoroquinolone antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin or ofloxacin may be prescribed for a 4-week course.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing difficulty breathing, coughing up blood, and swelling in her arms and hands. Upon examination, you observe that her face is also swollen and she has multiple enlarged veins and telangiectasia on her chest. She has a history of long-term smoking.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Superior vena cava syndrome
Explanation:This patient has come in with worsening shortness of breath and coughing up blood. They have a long history of smoking, and the likely diagnosis is superior vena cava obstruction caused by a primary bronchial tumor.
The typical symptoms of superior vena cava obstruction include breathlessness, chest pain, swelling in the neck, face, and arms, dilated veins and telangiectasia on the arms, neck, and chest wall, facial flushing, stridor due to laryngeal edema, and cyanosis.
Given the severity of the symptoms, this man needs to be urgently referred and admitted to the hospital. To provide immediate relief, his head should be elevated and he should be given supplemental oxygen. Corticosteroids and diuretics may also be administered. Further investigation through CT scanning is necessary, and radiotherapy may be recommended as a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with occasional right upper quadrant pain. The pain typically lasts for 20 to 45 minutes and then goes away on its own. Nausea frequently accompanies the pain. The pain tends to occur following the consumption of a high-fat meal.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gallstones
Explanation:This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of biliary colic. Biliary colic occurs when a gallstone temporarily blocks either the cystic duct or Hartmann’s pouch, leading to contractions in the gallbladder. The blockage is relieved when the stone either falls back into the gallbladder or passes through the duct.
Patients with biliary colic typically experience colicky pain in the upper right quadrant of their abdomen. This pain can last anywhere from 15 minutes to 24 hours and is often accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. It is not uncommon for the pain to radiate into the right scapula area.
Eating fatty foods can exacerbate the pain as they stimulate the release of cholecystokinin, which in turn causes the gallbladder to contract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest and back. She recently returned from her vacation in Ibiza and the areas have become more noticeable after being exposed to the sun. Which organism is commonly associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malassezia furfur
Explanation:Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a common skin condition caused by an infection with the yeasts Malassezia furfur and Malassezia globosa. It typically presents as multiple patches of altered pigmentation, primarily on the trunk. In individuals with fair skin, these patches are usually darker in color, while in those with darker skin or a tan, they may appear lighter (known as pityriasis versicolor alba). It is not uncommon for the rash to cause itching.
The recommended treatment for pityriasis versicolor involves the use of antifungal agents. One particularly effective option is ketoconazole shampoo, which is sold under the brand name Nizoral. To use this shampoo, it should be applied to the affected areas and left on for approximately five minutes before being rinsed off. This process should be repeated daily for a total of five days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while crossing the street. The patient is breathing rapidly and clinical examination shows a flail segment. What is the most suitable initial intervention to relieve respiratory distress?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive pressure ventilation
Explanation:To relieve the patient’s respiratory distress, the most suitable initial intervention would be positive pressure ventilation. This involves providing mechanical assistance to the patient’s breathing by delivering air or oxygen under pressure through a mask or endotracheal tube. This helps to improve oxygenation and ventilation, ensuring that the patient’s lungs are adequately supplied with oxygen and carbon dioxide is effectively removed. Positive pressure ventilation can help stabilize the patient’s breathing and alleviate the respiratory distress caused by the flail segment.
Further Reading:
Flail chest is a serious condition that occurs when multiple ribs are fractured in two or more places, causing a segment of the ribcage to no longer expand properly. This condition is typically caused by high-impact thoracic blunt trauma and is often accompanied by other significant injuries to the chest.
The main symptom of flail chest is a chest deformity, where the affected area moves in a paradoxical manner compared to the rest of the ribcage. This can cause chest pain and difficulty breathing, known as dyspnea. X-rays may also show evidence of lung contusion, indicating further damage to the chest.
In terms of management, conservative treatment is usually the first approach. This involves providing adequate pain relief and respiratory support to the patient. However, if there are associated injuries such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, specific interventions like thoracostomy or surgery may be necessary.
Positive pressure ventilation can be used to provide internal splinting of the airways, helping to prevent atelectasis, a condition where the lungs collapse. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in order to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Security Guards. She is restrained and has scratched one of the Security Guards accompanying her. She is highly agitated and combative and has a history of bipolar disorder. She is given an initial dose of intramuscular olanzapine combined with intramuscular lorazepam. However, she shows no response and remains highly agitated and combative.
According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of highly agitated and combative patients, which of the following drugs should be used next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.
If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.
If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.
If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.
After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.
For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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