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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old boy presents to the emergency department at about 6 am with reduced responsiveness and muscle rigidity. His mother reports that he attended a rave and came home euphoric, ataxic, and experiencing multiple hallucinations.Which of the following illicit substances is the most likely to have been consumed?
Your Answer: MDMA (ecstasy)
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Explanation:The given presentation is highly suggestive of withdrawal effect of ketamine.Ketamine is known for its unique property of inducing dissociative anaesthesia. Emergence phenomenon (as seen in the child in question) is an adverse effect that occurs during recovery from dissociative anaesthesia. The components of emergence phenomenon include a euphoric state associated with hallucinations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Use of ipecac in patients with eating disorders is associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Migraine
Correct Answer: Cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Ipecac, or syrup of ipecac (SOI), is a medication once used to induce vomiting. Its medical use has virtually vanished, and it is no longer recommended for routine use in toxic ingestion. The abuse of SOI as a purgative in eating disorders, however, is increasing. Ipecac has a high safety profile. Common side effects include prolonged vomiting (greater than 1 hour), lethargy, somnolence, diarrhoea, fever, irritability. More severe complications can consist of aspiration pneumonia, Mallory-Weiss tears, pneumomediastinum, and gastric rupture.The abuse of syrup of ipecac by patients with major eating disorders have been shown to have toxic effects on the skeletal and cardiac muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the clinic with a 4-month history of no menstrual bleeding. Menarche was at 11 years of age. She denies experiencing any headache or visual disturbances. Physical examination shows an overweight girl, with facial hair, acne vulgaris on the face and a deep voice. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities and a pregnancy test is negative. Diagnosis can be confirmed with which of the following lab test?
Your Answer: Raised Testosterone
Explanation:Diagnostic criteria of PCOsAccording to the American Association of Clinical Endocrinologists, at least two of three of the criteria below are required for diagnosis of PCOS after excluding other causes of irregular bleeding and elevated androgen levels.Hyperandrogenism (clinical or laboratory)Oligo- and/or anovulationPolycystic ovaries on ultrasoundDiagnosis of PCOS is possible without the presence of ovarian cysts.Rule out any other causes of hyperandrogenism and anovulation.Blood hormone levels↑ Testosterone (both total and free) or free androgen index↑ LH (LH:FSH ratio > 2:1)Oestrogen is normal or slightly elevated A clinical picture of hyperandrogenism overrules any normal hormone levels and can fulfil a diagnostic criterium of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 4
Correct
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An 18-year-old pregnant female is brought to the emergency department with complaints of headache, blurred vision and abdominal pain. Her BP is recorded to be 160/110 mmHg and she is also found to have proteinuria. Which of the following findings will typically be found in this scenario?
Your Answer: Haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes and low platelets
Explanation:HELLP syndrome is a complication of pregnancy characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and a low platelet count. It usually begins during the last three months of pregnancy or shortly after childbirth. HELLP syndrome is a life-threatening condition that can potentially complicate pregnancy. It is named for 3 features of the condition: Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzyme levels, and Low Platelet levels. It typically occurs in the last 3 months of pregnancy (the third trimester) but can also start soon after delivery. A wide range of non-specific symptoms may be present in women with HELLP syndrome. Symptoms may include fatigue| malaise| fluid retention and excess weight gain| headache| nausea and vomiting| pain in the upper right or middle of the abdomen| blurry vision| and rarely, nosebleed or seizures. The cause of HELLP syndrome is not known, but certain risk factors have been associated with the condition. It is most common in women with preeclampsia or eclampsia. If not diagnosed and treated quickly, HELLP syndrome can lead to serious complications for the mother and baby. The main treatment is to deliver the baby as soon as possible, even if premature, if there is distress of the mother or the baby. Treatment may also include medications needed for the mother or baby, and blood transfusion for severe bleeding problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is diagnosed with Chlamydia trachomatis infection. This infection can possibly result in which of the following complications?
Your Answer: Isosporiasis
Correct Answer: Fitz- Hugh- Curtis syndrome
Explanation:Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (FHCS), or perihepatitis, is a chronic manifestation of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). It is described as an inflammation of the liver capsule, without the involvement of the liver parenchyma, with adhesion formation accompanied by right upper quadrant pain. A final diagnosis can be made through laparoscopy or laparotomy via direct visualization of violin string-like adhesions or through hepatic capsular biopsy and culture. FHCS is a complication of PID. Microorganisms associated with PID are thought to spread in one of three ways:-Through spontaneous ascending infection, microbes from the cervix or vagina travel to the endometrium, through the fallopian tubes, and into the peritoneal cavity. Complications include endometritis, salpingitis, tubo-ovarian abscess, pelvic peritonitis, and perihepatitis.-Microbes can also spread via lymphatic channels such as an infection of the parametrium from an intrauterine device.-Finally, the hematogenous spread is also possible such as with tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 16 year old female has been admitted to hospital after overdosing on paracetamol 4 hours ago. She has also consumed a large amount of alcohol. Her plasma paracetamol concentration is only just below a level which requires treatment. From the list of options, choose the most appropriate treatment option for this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to psychiatry ward
Explanation:As her paracetamol level is under the required treatment threshold, she requires no medical treatment. However, she has taken a simultaneous drug overdose and excessive alcohol consumption. These two factors together require psychiatric evaluation and so she should be referred to the psychiatry ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:The progesterone is primarily responsible for preventing pregnancy. The main mechanism of action is the prevention of ovulation| they inhibit follicular development and prevent ovulation. Progestogen negative feedback works at the hypothalamus to decreases the pulse frequency of gonadotropin-releasing hormone. This, in turn, will decrease the secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and decreases the secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH). If the follicle isn’t developing, then there is no increase in the oestradiol levels (the follicle makes oestradiol). The progestogen negative feedback and lack of oestrogen positive feedback on LH secretion stop the mid-cycle LH surge. With no follicle developed and no LH surge to release the follicle, there is the prevention of ovulation. Oestrogen has some effect with inhibiting follicular development because of its negative feedback on the anterior pituitary with slows FSH secretion| it’s just not as prominent as the progesterone’s effect. Another primary mechanism of action is progesterone’s ability to inhibit sperm from penetrating through the cervix and upper genital tract by making the cervical mucous unfriendly. Progesterone induced endometrial atrophy should deter implantation, but there is no proof that this occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl has been diagnosed with Chlamydia. She is sexually active with a boy her age. Which of the following advice should be given to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They both need immediate treatment without further testing. A test of cure is not necessary.
Explanation:Treating persons infected with C. trachomatis prevents adverse reproductive health complications and continued sexual transmission, and treating their sex partners can prevent reinfection and infection of other partners. Treating pregnant women usually prevents transmission of C. trachomatis to neonates during birth. Chlamydia treatment should be provided promptly for all persons testing positive for infection. Treatment delays have been associated with complications (e.g. PID) in a limited proportion of women. To minimise disease transmission to sex partners, persons treated for chlamydia should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse for 7 days after single-dose therapy or until completion of a 7-day regimen and resolution of symptoms if present. To minimise risk for reinfection, patients also should be instructed to abstain from sexual intercourse until all of their sex partners are treated. Persons who receive a diagnosis of chlamydia should be tested for HIV, GC, and syphilis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old male presents to the clinic with a solitary, painless penile ulcer 2 cm in diameter. It appeared as a small red lump, 3 weeks after an episode of unprotected sexual intercourse with a new male partner and quickly progressed to this form. On examination, the ulcer has slightly elevated edges. Which of the following treatment strategies should be employed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Explanation:Syphilis is an infectious venereal disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum. Syphilis is transmissible by sexual contact with infectious lesions, from mother to foetus in utero, via blood product transfusion, and occasionally through breaks in the skin that come into contact with infectious lesions. If untreated, it progresses through 4 stages: primary, secondary, latent, and tertiary. Primary and secondary syphilis are easy to treat with a penicillin injection. Penicillin is one of the most widely used antibiotics and is usually effective in treating syphilis. People who are allergic to penicillin will likely be treated with a different antibiotic, such as:doxycyclineazithromycinceftriaxone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of unilateral facial weakness, ipsilateral arm weakness, and slurring of speech. She also has a history of migraine and is currently using contraception. The physician makes a diagnosis of transient ischemic attack. Which method of contraception most likely contributed to her TIA?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:The risk of ischemic stroke in patients using combined oral contraceptives is increased in patients with additional stroke risk factors, including smoking, hypertension, and migraine with aura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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