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  • Question 1 - What is recommended for all high-risk infants who are breastfed? ...

    Correct

    • What is recommended for all high-risk infants who are breastfed?

      Your Answer: Receive AZT for 6 weeks and NVP for 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      High-risk infants who are breastfed are at a higher risk of HIV transmission from their mothers. Therefore, it is recommended that these infants receive a combination of antiretroviral medications to reduce the risk of transmission.

      The recommended regimen for high-risk infants who are breastfed is to receive AZT (zidovudine) for 6 weeks and NVP (nevirapine) for 12 weeks. AZT is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that helps to reduce the viral load in the infant’s body, while NVP is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that helps to prevent the virus from replicating. By combining these two medications, the risk of HIV transmission from the mother to the infant can be significantly reduced.

      It is important to follow this recommended regimen to ensure the health and well-being of the high-risk infant. Additionally, it is important to monitor the mother’s viral load to determine if NVP can be stopped if her viral load is below 1000 c/ml. This combination of medications has been shown to be effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission from mother to child through breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old male patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine,...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient with Pulmonary Tuberculosis is taking Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Pyridoxine, and Rifampicin. Which of the above drugs is associated with peripheral neuropathy?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Isoniazid is the drug associated with peripheral neuropathy in this case. This side effect occurs due to a deficiency of biologically active pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). Isoniazid can combine with pyridoxine in the body to form a hydrazone, which is then excreted in the urine, leading to a decrease in the levels of pyridoxine available for normal bodily functions.

      To prevent or reduce the risk of peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid, pyridoxine supplementation is often recommended. Pyridoxine is essential for nerve function and can help counteract the deficiency caused by isoniazid. Therefore, patients taking isoniazid for the treatment of Pulmonary Tuberculosis may also be prescribed pyridoxine to prevent peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      Chorioretinitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the choroid and retina in the eye. Among the congenital infections listed, toxoplasmosis caused by Toxoplasma gondii is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis. In infants with congenital toxoplasmosis, chorioretinitis is a common manifestation and can lead to vision impairment or blindness if left untreated. Therefore, when chorioretinitis is present in a newborn or infant, healthcare providers may consider toxoplasmosis as a possible cause and conduct further testing to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 8-week-old boy diagnosed with HIV is seen in clinic for follow-up evaluation...

    Correct

    • An 8-week-old boy diagnosed with HIV is seen in clinic for follow-up evaluation after a diagnosis of HIV was confirmed 2 days prior. The child was born to a mother who was diagnosed with HIV at the time of delivery, and the mother’s initial HIV RNA level was 71,357 copies/mL. The infant was prescribed a 6-week course of three-drug antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but there were concerns about the number of actual doses the infant received. Four days ago the infant had HIV RNA testing and the result was positive. Repeat HIV RNA testing of the infant 2 days ago is now also positive. Initial Laboratory studies for the infant show a CD4 count of 1,238 cells/mm3, CD4 percentage of 31%, and an HIV RNA level of 237,200 copies/mL. An HIV genotypic drug resistance test is ordered.
      Which one of the following is the most appropriate management for the infant?

      Your Answer: Initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently

      Explanation:

      This question presents a case of an 8-week-old infant diagnosed with HIV, born to a mother with HIV. The infant had received some antiretroviral prophylaxis after birth, but ultimately tested positive for HIV. The initial laboratory studies show a high HIV RNA level and normal CD4 count. The question asks for the most appropriate management for the infant.

      The correct answer is to initiate antiretroviral therapy urgently. This is based on the Pediatric ART Guidelines, which recommend urgent initiation of antiretroviral therapy for all infants younger than 12 months of age with confirmed HIV infection, regardless of clinical status, CD4 count, or CD4 percentage. Early initiation of antiretroviral therapy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of HIV-related morbidity and mortality in infants with HIV.

      It is important to note that antiretroviral therapy should not be delayed while waiting for results from HIV drug resistance testing. The regimen can be adjusted later based on the results of the drug resistance testing. The urgency in starting treatment is crucial in order to provide the best possible outcome for the infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - When should screening for tuberculosis (TB) and other opportunistic infections (OIs) be conducted...

    Correct

    • When should screening for tuberculosis (TB) and other opportunistic infections (OIs) be conducted for clients on ART?

      Your Answer: Every 6 months

      Explanation:

      Screening for tuberculosis (TB) and other opportunistic infections (OIs) is crucial for clients on antiretroviral therapy (ART) because they have weakened immune systems due to HIV infection. By conducting screening every 6 months, healthcare providers can detect infections early before they progress and cause serious complications. This regular screening helps in initiating prompt treatment, reducing the risk of transmission to others, and improving the overall health outcomes of clients on ART.

      Annual screening may not be frequent enough to detect infections early, especially in clients with compromised immune systems. Waiting for symptoms to appear before conducting screening can delay diagnosis and treatment, leading to poorer outcomes. Therefore, conducting screening every 6 months strikes a balance between detecting infections early and minimizing unnecessary testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of worsening shortness of breath. He also has a fever and mentions the presence of a non-productive cough which has been getting worse over the past week.
      On examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.2 oC, pulse is 92 bpm and regular, and his blood pressure is 110/85 mmHg.
      The patient seems breathless at rest, with an oxygen saturation of 96% in room air. However, a chest examination reveals no abnormalities. The examining doctor orders tests, including a CD4 count, arterial blood gases (ABGs), and a chest X-ray; she lists Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) as one of the possible differential diagnoses.
      With regard to PJP, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Can be successfully treated with co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia (PJP)

      Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) is a fungal infection that primarily affects individuals with weakened immune systems. It is commonly seen in HIV patients with a CD4 count of less than 200, but can also occur in other immunosuppressive states. Symptoms include fever, dry cough, and progressive shortness of breath. Diagnosis can be challenging, and a high level of suspicion is required. While an abnormal chest radiograph is present in 90% of patients, blood culture is not a reliable diagnostic tool as pneumocystis cannot be cultured. Treatment involves the use of co-trimoxazole or pentamidine. Prophylaxis against PJP is recommended when CD4 counts fall below 200 cells/µl. It is important to note that while PJP is more common in HIV patients, it can also occur in individuals with other immunocompromising conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - When should cotrimoxazole preventive therapy (CPT) be discontinued in HIV-positive adults and children...

    Correct

    • When should cotrimoxazole preventive therapy (CPT) be discontinued in HIV-positive adults and children older than 5 years?

      Your Answer: If CD4 count ≥ 200 cells/μL, regardless of clinical stage

      Explanation:

      Cotrimoxazole preventive therapy (CPT) should be discontinued in HIV-positive adults and children older than 5 years if the CD4 count is greater than or equal to 200 cells/μL, regardless of clinical stage. This is to minimize unnecessary medication use once the immune system has recovered sufficiently to protect against opportunistic infections that CPT is intended to prevent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old woman presents with a history of lethargy and increased frequency of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with a history of lethargy and increased frequency of infections. The patient reports that she has had three separate episodes of skin infections in the past six months, and at least two to three colds a month for nearly a year. She feels that recently, she has always been ill with some little thing or another and has felt generally run down.
      She is concerned, as she has had a lot of sick leave from her work in a factory and worries that her employment will be terminated soon if she keeps missing work. She had mild asthma as a child but has no other history of note.
      On further questioning, the patient admits to intravenous (IV) drug use in the past; however, she has not used drugs for nearly two years. She does not drink alcohol and is currently single.
      As a part of initial investigations, bloods are taken for various tests, including human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
      Which of the following is correct regarding HIV?

      Your Answer: Contains RNA polymerase

      Correct Answer: Establishes persistence through antigenic variation

      Explanation:

      Understanding HIV: How the Virus Establishes Persistence and Evades the Immune System

      HIV is a retrovirus that primarily targets and destroys CD4 T-cells, leading to a decline in immune function. The virus can also infect macrophages and dendritic cells, establishing a reservoir of infection in lymphoid tissues. One of the ways HIV evades the immune system is through antigenic variation, constantly mutating and overwhelming the immune system with a huge number of antigenic variants. HIV is transmitted through sexual contact, blood-borne transmission, or vertically from mother to baby. It is an RNA virus that contains three viral enzymes, including reverse transcriptase, protease, and integrase. Understanding how HIV establishes persistence and evades the immune system is crucial in developing effective treatments and prevention strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      47.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers, which are painful following a sexual intercourse with an unknown man. Which of the following can be used topically for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      The 25-year-old female presented with multiple small genital ulcers that are painful following sexual intercourse with an unknown man. This presentation is highly suggestive of a Herpes Simplex infection, which is a common sexually transmitted infection that can cause painful genital ulcers.

      Among the options provided, Acyclovir is the most appropriate choice for topical treatment in this case. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication that is commonly used to treat herpes infections. When applied topically, Acyclovir can help to reduce the severity and duration of symptoms associated with genital herpes, including pain and discomfort from the ulcers.

      Amantadine, Ritonavir, Trifluridine, and Foscarnet are not typically used for the treatment of genital herpes. Amantadine is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza A, Ritonavir is a medication used to treat HIV, Trifluridine is an antiviral medication used to treat eye infections caused by herpes viruses, and Foscarnet is an antiviral medication used to treat certain types of herpes infections in immunocompromised patients.

      In conclusion, for the presentation of multiple small genital ulcers following sexual intercourse with an unknown partner, topical Acyclovir would be the most appropriate choice for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old homosexual male presents 36 hours after having unprotected sex with his partner whose HIV status is not known. He is concerned about his risk of acquiring HIV. He is feeling well and shows no symptoms. The physician offers him a post exposure prophylaxis, which consists of 3 different antiviral drugs. Two of these drugs act by which of the following mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of viral reverse transcriptase

      Explanation:

      The two drugs that act by inhibiting viral reverse transcriptase are the NRTIs (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors) and NNRTIs (non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors). NRTIs work by competing with the natural nucleotides that the virus needs to replicate its genetic material, while NNRTIs bind to a different site on the reverse transcriptase enzyme to prevent it from functioning properly.

      In the recommended regimens for post-exposure prophylaxis, the options include using 3 NRTIs, 2 NRTIs plus 1 NNRTI, or using a PI (protease inhibitor) or INI (integrase inhibitor). These combinations of antiviral drugs are effective in preventing the replication of HIV and reducing the risk of acquiring the infection after exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - In which stage of syphilis does neurosyphilis most commonly occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which stage of syphilis does neurosyphilis most commonly occur?

      Your Answer: Latent syphilis

      Correct Answer: Tertiary syphilis

      Explanation:

      Neurosyphilis is a complication of syphilis that occurs when the bacterium Treponema pallidum infects the central nervous system. This can lead to a variety of neurological symptoms, including headaches, confusion, memory problems, and even paralysis.

      Neurosyphilis most commonly occurs during the tertiary stage of syphilis, which is the most advanced stage of the disease. During this stage, the infection has spread throughout the body and can affect multiple organ systems, including the central nervous system.

      It is important to note that neurosyphilis can also occur in earlier stages of syphilis, but it is most commonly seen in the tertiary stage. This is why it is crucial for individuals with syphilis to seek prompt treatment to prevent the progression of the disease to more severe stages, including neurosyphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following is not associated with non-alcoholic steatohepatitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not associated with non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?

      Your Answer: Sudden weight loss or starvation

      Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a form of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) that is characterized by inflammation and liver cell damage, in addition to the presence of fat in the liver. NASH can progress to more serious liver conditions such as cirrhosis or liver cancer.

      Out of the options provided, Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not typically associated with NASH. Type 2 diabetes, on the other hand, is a common risk factor for NASH.

      Hyperlipidemia, obesity, sudden weight loss or starvation, and jejunoileal bypass are all risk factors for NASH. Hyperlipidemia refers to high levels of fats in the blood, which can contribute to the accumulation of fat in the liver. Obesity is a major risk factor for NASH, as excess body fat can lead to fat accumulation in the liver. Sudden weight loss or starvation can also contribute to the development of NASH, as rapid weight loss can lead to the release of stored fats into the liver. Jejunoileal bypass, a type of weight loss surgery, can also increase the risk of NASH due to changes in the way the body processes fats.

      In summary, while Type 1 diabetes mellitus is not associated with NASH, hyperlipidemia, obesity, sudden weight loss or starvation, and jejunoileal bypass are all risk factors for the development of this serious liver condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the range of viral load (VL) considered for clients with repeat...

    Correct

    • What is the range of viral load (VL) considered for clients with repeat VL testing?

      Your Answer: 50 999 c/mL

      Explanation:

      Repeat viral load testing is an important aspect of monitoring HIV treatment effectiveness in clients. The range of viral load considered for clients with repeat testing helps healthcare providers determine the level of viral replication in the body and assess the response to antiretroviral therapy.

      A viral load of < 10 c/mL is considered undetectable and indicates successful suppression of the virus. This is the ideal outcome for clients on HIV treatment. A viral load of 10-49 c/mL is still considered low and may not necessarily indicate treatment failure, but it does warrant closer monitoring. A viral load of 50-999 c/mL falls within the range of persistent low-grade viremia. This level of viral replication may indicate suboptimal adherence to treatment or the development of drug resistance. Clients in this range require careful monitoring and potential interventions to address any issues that may be affecting treatment efficacy. A viral load of ≥ 1000 c/mL is considered high and indicates treatment failure. This level of viral replication may lead to disease progression and the development of complications. Clients with a viral load in this range may need to switch to a different antiretroviral regimen to achieve viral suppression. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is 50-999 c/mL, as clients falling within this range on repeat viral load testing are categorized as having persistent low-grade viremia and require closer monitoring and potential interventions to optimize treatment adherence and efficacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB? ...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB?

      Your Answer: Start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination

      Explanation:

      Infants born to mothers with TB are at a higher risk of contracting TB themselves due to exposure during pregnancy or childbirth. Therefore, it is recommended to start TB preventive therapy (TPT) for these infants to reduce the risk of developing active TB disease. BCG vaccination is also recommended for infants born to mothers with TB as it can provide some protection against severe forms of TB in children.

      Initiating ART immediately is not necessary for infants born to mothers with TB unless they are also HIV-positive. Discontinuing breastfeeding is not recommended as breastfeeding provides important nutrients and antibodies that can help protect the infant from infections. Conducting a sputum culture test is not necessary for infants born to mothers with TB unless they are showing symptoms of TB. Administering high-dose vitamin supplementation is not specifically recommended for infants born to mothers with TB unless there is a specific deficiency identified.

      In conclusion, the recommended approach for infants born to mothers with TB is to start TB preventive therapy (TPT) and administer BCG vaccination to reduce the risk of developing active TB disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding listeria infection during pregnancy, what is the fetal case mortality rate?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Listeria infection during pregnancy can have serious consequences for the fetus, with a fetal case mortality rate of 0.25. This means that 25% of fetuses affected by listeria infection do not survive. Listeria Monocytogenes is a bacteria that can be transmitted to the fetus through the placenta, leading to congenital infection. The most common source of the bacteria is contaminated food, particularly unpasteurised milk.

      Congenital listeriosis can result in a range of complications for the fetus, including spontaneous abortions, premature birth, and chorioamnionitis. Neonates born with listeriosis may present with symptoms such as septicaemia, respiratory distress, and inflammatory granulomatosis. The overall case mortality rate for listeriosis is estimated to be between 20-30%, highlighting the severity of this infection during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of patients with hepatitis A develop chronic infection:

      Your Answer: 10 - 20%

      Correct Answer: None

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is a type of viral infection that affects the liver. Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not typically lead to chronic infection. In fact, chronic hepatitis and carrier state do not occur in hepatitis A infection.

      When a person is infected with hepatitis A, their immune system is able to clear the virus from their body within a few weeks to months. Once the infection has been resolved, the person develops complete immunity to the virus, meaning they cannot be reinfected with hepatitis A in the future.

      Therefore, the correct answer is: None – Chronic hepatitis and carrier state does not occur in hepatitis A infection and complete immunity is attained after infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:

      Your Answer: Variant of Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = poultry

      Correct Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.
      Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.
      Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.
      Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.
      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following is NOT recommended as part of the antenatal care...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is NOT recommended as part of the antenatal care package for pregnant women living with HIV?

      Your Answer: Administering live vaccines to the newborn

      Explanation:

      Antenatal care for pregnant women living with HIV is crucial in ensuring the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby. The recommended components of antenatal care for pregnant women living with HIV typically include nutritional screening, routine antenatal care according to specific guidelines, mental health screening for the mother, and encouraging male partner involvement throughout the antenatal care process.

      Administering live vaccines to the newborn is not recommended as part of the antenatal care package for pregnant women living with HIV. Live vaccines, such as the MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine, contain weakened forms of the virus and may pose a risk to individuals with compromised immune systems, such as those living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - How are abandoned infants with unknown HIV exposure managed according to the guidelines?...

    Correct

    • How are abandoned infants with unknown HIV exposure managed according to the guidelines?

      Your Answer: Treat infant as a higher-risk, HIV-exposed infant

      Explanation:

      Abandoned infants with unknown HIV exposure are managed as higher-risk, HIV-exposed infants because they are considered to be at increased risk of HIV infection due to their unknown exposure status. This approach ensures that these infants receive appropriate care and treatment in a timely manner to prevent HIV transmission and improve their health outcomes.

      Immediate ART initiation based on assumptions is not recommended as it is important to confirm the infant’s HIV status before starting treatment. Waiting for parental consent before any procedure may delay necessary interventions for the infant’s health. Providing only supportive care without specific HIV-focused interventions may put the infant at risk of HIV transmission if they are indeed infected.

      Therefore, treating abandoned infants with unknown HIV exposure as higher-risk, HIV-exposed infants allows for prompt initiation of ART and appropriate follow-up testing to confirm their HIV status and provide necessary care. This approach aligns with the guidelines for managing infants with potential HIV exposure and ensures the best possible outcomes for these vulnerable infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling....

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first-trimester pregnancy counselling. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that she was previously an intravenous drug abuser. There were unremarkable first-trimester investigations, except for her chronic Hepatitis B infection.

      All of the following statements is considered true regarding Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: A Screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B infection during pregnancy can pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus. Screening for HBV is crucial in pregnant women, regardless of previous vaccination status, as it helps in identifying those who may require interventions to prevent transmission to the baby.

      The risk of fetal infection is higher with chorionic villus sampling than amniocentesis because chorionic villus sampling involves obtaining a sample of the placental tissue, which may contain the virus.

      Women with a high viral load in the third trimester should be offered antiviral therapy to reduce the risk of transmission to the baby. Caesarean section does not reduce the risk of hepatitis B transmission, as the virus is primarily transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids during childbirth.

      Fetal scalp blood sampling in labor should be avoided to prevent potential exposure to the virus. Therefore, all statements are true except for the statement that screening for HBV is not recommended for a pregnant woman with previous vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A newborn delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted...

    Correct

    • A newborn delivered at term with a birth weight of 2.5kgs was admitted to the NICU with suspected congenital TB. Her mother is HIV positive and is on HAART, recently diagnosed with tuberculosis 1 week ago.
      All of the following are features of congenital tuberculosis EXCEPT?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Congenital tuberculosis is a rare condition that occurs when a newborn is infected with tuberculosis bacteria while still in the womb. The baby may become infected if the mother has active tuberculosis during pregnancy.

      The features of congenital tuberculosis typically include symptoms such as poor feeding, poor weight gain, cough, lethargy, irritability, fever, ear discharge, and skin lesions. Signs of congenital TB may include failure to thrive, icterus, hepatosplenomegaly, tachypnoea, and lymphadenopathy.

      In the case of the newborn in the scenario provided, the features of congenital tuberculosis mentioned are all commonly associated with the condition, except for diarrhea. Diarrhea is not a typical symptom or sign of congenital tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of shortness of breath, fever and a productive cough. She has suffered multiple severe infections over the past five years; however, she has no other past medical history.
      On examination, you note intercostal recessions and the use of accessory muscles of respiration. She has significant coarse crepitations in her right lower lobe.
      You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
      Temperature: 39.8 °C
      Heart rate: 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
      Blood pressure: 150/94 mmHg (lying) 146/90 mmHg (standing)
      Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air
      Her initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 14.4 × 109/l 4–11. × 109/l
      Neutrophils 12800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 1400 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 110 g/dl 115–155 g/dl
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 360 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Her chest X-ray shows significant consolidation in the right lower lobe.
      A blood film comes back and shows the following: sickled erythrocytes and Howell–Jolly bodies.
      A sputum culture is grown and shows Streptococcus pneumoniae, and the patient’s pneumonia is managed successfully with antibiotics and IV fluid therapy.
      What condition is predisposing this patient to severe infections?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)

      Correct Answer: Splenic dysfunction

      Explanation:

      The patient has sickle cell disease and a history of recurrent infections, indicating long-term damage to the spleen. The blood film shows signs of splenic disruption, such as Howell-Jolly bodies, and a low lymphocyte level, which may be due to reduced lymphocyte storage capacity in the shrunken spleen. This is different from a splenic sequestration crisis, which is an acute pediatric emergency. The current admission may be an acute chest pain crisis, but it is not the cause of the recurrent infections. The patient does not have acute lymphoblastic leukemia, as there is no evidence of blastic cells or pancytopenia. Advanced HIV is a possibility, but the blood film suggests sickle cell disease. While the patient is at risk of an aplastic crisis, it typically occurs in younger patients after a parvovirus B19 infection, which is not present in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the most effective strategy available for primarily preventing cervical cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective strategy available for primarily preventing cervical cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HPV vaccination

      Explanation:

      Cervical cancer is primarily caused by persistent infection with high-risk strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16 and 18. The most effective strategy for preventing cervical cancer is therefore vaccination against these specific HPV types. The HPV vaccine is highly effective at preventing infection with these strains of the virus, which in turn significantly reduces the risk of developing cervical cancer.

      Regular exercise, healthy eating habits, cervical cancer screening, and smoking cessation are all important factors in overall health and can contribute to reducing the risk of developing cervical cancer. However, the most direct and effective method of prevention is through HPV vaccination. By targeting the root cause of the majority of cervical cancer cases, vaccination offers the best chance of preventing the disease before it even has a chance to develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - How should Cotrimoxazole Preventive Therapy (CPT) be managed for HIV-positive infants under 1...

    Incorrect

    • How should Cotrimoxazole Preventive Therapy (CPT) be managed for HIV-positive infants under 1 year of age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Started at birth regardless of CD4% or clinical stage

      Explanation:

      Cotrimoxazole Preventive Therapy (CPT) is recommended for all HIV-positive infants under 1 year of age, regardless of their CD4 count or clinical stage. This is because infants are at a higher risk of developing opportunistic infections due to their immature immune systems. Starting CPT at birth helps to prevent these infections and improve the overall health and well-being of the infant.

      It is important to note that CPT should not be delayed until symptoms of opportunistic infections appear, as this may lead to serious complications and a decline in the infant’s health. Therefore, starting CPT at birth is crucial in providing protection against these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 25 - What action is recommended if an infant is suspected to be HIV positive...

    Incorrect

    • What action is recommended if an infant is suspected to be HIV positive at the end of TB preventive therapy (TPT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue ART treatment

      Explanation:

      When an infant is suspected to be HIV positive at the end of TB preventive therapy (TPT), it is important to continue ART treatment to manage the HIV infection. ART (antiretroviral therapy) is crucial in controlling the virus and preventing the progression of HIV to AIDS. By continuing ART treatment, the infant can receive the necessary medication to suppress the virus and maintain their overall health.

      Stopping TPT immediately may not be the best course of action as the infant still needs to be treated for HIV. Repeat HIV-PCR testing after 6 months may be necessary to confirm the HIV status of the infant. Giving BCG vaccination is not directly related to managing HIV infection. Referring to a virologist for further management may be necessary, but continuing ART treatment is the immediate action recommended to address the suspected HIV infection in the infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 26 - Which medication requires dose adjustment when an HIV-positive individual is also receiving rifampicin-containing...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication requires dose adjustment when an HIV-positive individual is also receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dolutegravir (DTG)

      Explanation:

      When an HIV-positive individual is receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment, there is a potential for drug interactions with certain antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV. Rifampicin is known to induce the metabolism of many drugs, including antiretrovirals, which can lead to decreased levels of the antiretroviral medications in the body.

      Dolutegravir (DTG) is one of the antiretroviral medications that requires dose adjustment when taken with rifampicin. Rifampicin can significantly reduce the levels of DTG in the body, potentially leading to reduced effectiveness of the HIV treatment. Therefore, it is important to adjust the dose of DTG when it is co-administered with rifampicin to ensure that adequate levels of the medication are maintained in the body to effectively suppress the HIV virus.

      In contrast, medications like Lamivudine (3TC), Efavirenz (EFV), Zidovudine (AZT), and Atazanavir (ATV) do not require dose adjustments when taken with rifampicin-containing TB treatment. It is always important for healthcare providers to carefully consider potential drug interactions and adjust medication doses as needed to ensure optimal treatment outcomes for individuals with HIV and TB co-infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 27 - What is recommended for all HIV-positive mothers on ART at six months postpartum?...

    Incorrect

    • What is recommended for all HIV-positive mothers on ART at six months postpartum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat VL testing regardless of the delivery VL result

      Explanation:

      All HIV-positive mothers on ART at six months postpartum should have repeat VL testing, regardless of the delivery VL result.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
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  • Question 28 - Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following immunological components is deficient in a 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T cells

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, the 5-year-old HIV positive child who develops Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is likely deficient in T cells. T cells, specifically CD4 lymphocytes or helper T cells, play a crucial role in the immune response against infections. In patients with HIV, the virus targets and destroys CD4 cells, leading to a weakened immune system and increased susceptibility to opportunistic infections like Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia.

      The other immunological components listed in the question, such as B cells, complement, IgM, and IgA, are not directly associated with the increased risk of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in HIV positive individuals. While B cells produce antibodies and IgM and IgA are types of antibodies, the deficiency in T cells is the primary factor contributing to the development of opportunistic infections in HIV patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 29 - What is the aim of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in the treatment of HIV...

    Incorrect

    • What is the aim of antiretroviral therapy (ART) in the treatment of HIV infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To suppress HIV replication

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is the cornerstone of treatment for HIV infection. The aim of ART is to suppress HIV replication in the body, which in turn helps to reduce the plasma HIV RNA level to undetectable levels. By effectively suppressing the virus, ART also helps to restore immune function by increasing the CD4 count to a normal level. This is important because a low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections and other complications.

      Therefore, the correct answer to the question is: To suppress HIV replication. This is the primary goal of ART in the treatment of HIV infection, as it helps to control the virus, reduce viral load, and improve overall health outcomes for individuals living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old woman presents with night sweats, fever, and haemoptysis. A diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents with night sweats, fever, and haemoptysis. A diagnosis of tuberculosis was suspected.

      Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis of tuberculosis is considered correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mycobacteria tuberculosis can be typed using a RFLP method

      Explanation:

      Although a variety of clinical specimens may be submitted to the laboratory to recover MTB and NTM, respiratory secretions such as sputum and bronchial aspirates are the most common. An early-morning specimen should be collected on three consecutive days, although recent studies have suggested that the addition of a third specimen does not significantly increase the sensitivity of detecting Mycobacteria.

      Mycobacterium tuberculosis appear red on acid-fast staining because they take up the primary stain, which is carbolfuchsin, and is not decolorized by the acid alcohol anymore.

      Culture on Lowenstein-Jensen medium should be read within 5 to 7 days after inoculation and once a week thereafter for up to 8 weeks.

      Nucleic acid amplification assays designed to detect M. tuberculosis complex
      bacilli directly from patient specimens can be performed in as little as 6 to 8 hours on processed specimens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (5/5) 100%
Microbiology (3/6) 50%
Clinical Evaluation (3/4) 75%
Epidemiology (4/6) 67%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
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