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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles winds around the pterygoid hamulus?
Your Answer: Palatopharyngeus
Correct Answer: Tensor veli palatini
Explanation:The tensor veli palatini tenses the soft palate and by doing so, assists the levator veli palatini in elevating the palate to occlude and prevent entry of food into the nasopharynx during swallowing. It arises by a flat lamella from the scaphoid fossa at the base of the medial pterygoid plate, from the spina angularis of the sphenoid and from the lateral wall of the cartilage of the auditory tube. Descending vertically between the medial pterygoid plate and the medial pterygoid muscle, it ends in a tendon which winds around the pterygoid hamulus, being retained in this situation by some of the fibres of origin of the medial pterygoid muscle. Between the tendon and the hamulus is a small bursa. The tendon then passes medialward and is inserted onto the palatine aponeurosis and the surface behind the transverse ridge on the horizontal part of the palatine bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 2
Correct
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During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?
Your Answer: Arcuate line
Explanation:The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.
The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.
The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man who was previously healthy develops a rapidly progressing neurological deficit. A MRI reveals a large, poorly defined mass with central necrosis in his left temporal lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glioblastoma multiforme
Explanation:Glioblastoma multiforme, or grade 4 astrocytoma, is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumour. They are formed by small areas of necrotising tissue surrounded by highly anaplastic cells. Most of them arise from the deep white matter of the brain and quickly infiltrate it, becoming very large before they are symptomatic. The most common symptom is progressive memory, personality or neurological deficit due to temporal and frontal lobe involvement. It is most common in men, and risk factors include: neurofibromatosis, tuberous sclerosis, Von Hippel-Lindau disease, Li-Fraumeni syndrome, and Turcot syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peroneal
Explanation:The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Injury to this nerve will affect the function of the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranial nerve X
Explanation:The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) innervates both the palatoglossus and levator veli palatini muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are asked to help a junior medical student studying anatomy to identify the left lung. Which of the following features found only in the left lung will you use the identify it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac notch
Explanation:Oblique fissure: is found on both the left and the right lungs. It separates the upper from the lower lobes in both lungs and the middle lobe from the lower lobe in the right lung(which has three lobes.)
The superior lobar bronchus is found in both lungs.
Cardiac notch: found only on the left lung.
Horizontal fissure: a deep groove separating the middle lobe from the upper lobe of the right lung is absent on the left lung.
Diaphragmatic surface: refers to the part of the lung, both the left and the right, that is in contact with the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which muscle is most likely to be affected following an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve (C6-C8)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi
Explanation:Latissimus dorsi is a triangular, flat muscle that covers the lumbar region and the lower half of the thoracic region. It is supplied by the sixth, seventh and eighth cervical nerves through the thoracodorsal (long subscapular) nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 9
Incorrect
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During the fetal stage, the mesonephric tubules gives rise to the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wolffian duct
Explanation:The development of the kidney proceeds through a series of successive phases, each marked by the development of a more advanced kidney: the pronephros, mesonephros, and metanephros. The development of the pronephric duct proceeds in a cranial-to-caudal direction. As it elongates caudally, the pronephric duct induces nearby intermediate mesoderm in the thoracolumbar area to become epithelial tubules called mesonephric tubules. Each mesonephric tubule receives a blood supply from a branch of the aorta, ending in a capillary tuft analogous to the glomerulus of the definitive nephron. The mesonephric tubule forms a capsule around the capillary tuft, allowing for filtration of blood. This filtrate flows through the mesonephric tubule and is drained into the continuation of the pronephric duct, now called the mesonephric duct or Wolffian duct. The nephrotomes of the pronephros degenerate while the mesonephric duct extends towards the most caudal end of the embryo, ultimately attaching to the cloaca.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient is brought to the accident and emergency department. He is said to have been involved in a mall explosion. Chest imaging reveals metal fragments in his thoracic cavity. He also has a pericardial effusion suggestive of a pericardial tear. An emergency thoracotomy is done which revealed a tear of the pericardium inferiorly. The surgeon began to explore for fragments in the pericardial sac with his hand from below the apex. He slips his fingers upward and to the right within the sac until they were stopped by the cul-de-sac formed by the pericardial reflection near the base of the heart. His finger tips were now in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oblique pericardial sinus
Explanation:Transverse sinus: part of pericardial cavity that is behind the aorta and pulmonary trunk and in front of the superior vena cava separating the outflow vessels from the inflow vessels.
Oblique pericardial sinus: is behind the left atrium where the visceral pericardium reflects onto the pulmonary veins and the inferior vena cava. Sliding a finger under the heart will take you to this sinus.
Coronary sinus: large vein that drains the heart into the right atrium. Located on the surface of the heart.
Coronary sulcus: groove on the heart demarcating the atria from the ventricles.
Costomediastinal recess: part of the pleural sac where the costal pleura transitions to become the mediastinal pleura.
Sulcus terminalis: a groove between the right atrium and the vena cava.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 11
Incorrect
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During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical plexus of nerves that is embedded in the carotid sheath is most susceptible to injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis
Explanation:The ansa cervicalis is a loop of nerves that are part of the cervical plexus. They lie superficial to the internal jugular vein in the carotid triangle. Branches from the ansa cervicalis innervate the sternohyoid, sternothyroid and the inferior belly of the omohyoid. The superior root of the ansa cervicalis is formed by a branch of spinal nerve C1. These nerve fibres travel in the hypoglossal nerve before leaving to form the superior root. The superior root goes around the occipital artery and then descends embedded in the carotid sheath. It sends a branch off to the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle and is then joined by the inferior root. The inferior root is formed by fibres from spinal nerves C2 and C3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The optic foramen, superior orbital fissure, foramen ovale, foramen rotundum and foramen sinosum are all located on which bone at the base of the skull?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sphenoid
Explanation:The sphenoid bone consists of two parts, a central part and two wing-like structures that extend sideways towards each side of the skull. It forms the base of the skull, and floor and sides of the orbit. On its central part lies the optic foramen. The foramen ovale, foramen spinosum and foramen rotundum lie on its great wing while the superior orbital fissure lies on its lesser wing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Confusion
Explanation:Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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During a surgical operation, whilst dissecting the mediastinal lymph nodes for a bronchogenic carcinoma of the right upper lobe bronchus, a patient's right sympathetic trunk is accidentally severed above the level of spinal nerve T1. Which function would be left intact in the affected region?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Voluntary muscle activity
Explanation:The sympathetic nervous system regulates vascular tone, dilation of pupils, arrector pili muscles, sweat production and visceral reflexes. Neurones that supply the voluntary muscles originate from the ventral horn of the spinal cord. If these nerves were thus damaged, these functions would be impaired. The sympathetic nervous system is not responsible for voluntary muscle activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laterally, to the right
Explanation:The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.
The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.
The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.
The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A machine worker fractured the medial epicondyle of his right humerus resulting in damage to an artery running with the ulnar nerve posterior to the medial epicondyle. The artery injured is the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior ulnar collateral
Explanation:The superior ulnar collateral artery runs posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus, accompanied by the ulnar nerve. This artery arises from the brachial artery near the middle of the arm and ends under the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle by anastomosing with two arteries: the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A medical officer was shown an X ray with barium contrast and was asked to distinguish the small from the large bowel. Which of the following features listed is CORRECT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circular folds of the mucosa
Explanation:Distinguishing features include:
1. Three strips of longitudinal muscle-taenia coli- on the wall instead of a continuous surrounding longitudinal muscle that is seen in the small intestine
2. The colon has bulges called haustra that are not on the small bowel.
3. The surface of the colon is covered with fatty omental appendages. Both the colon and the small intestine have similar circular smooth muscle layer, serosa. Peyer’s patches are lymphoid tissues that are not visible on X ray with barium contrast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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When exposing the right saphenofemoral junction for flush-ligation of the saphenous vein, which of the following is the most likely to be seen passing through this opening?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superficial external pudendal artery
Explanation:The saphenous opening is an oval opening in the fascia lata. It is covered by the cribriform fascia and It is so called because it is perforated by the great saphenous vein and by numerous blood and lymphatic vessels and the superficial external pudendal artery pierces it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A man had an injury to his right brachial plexus. After examination by the doctor they found that the diaphragm and the scapula were unaffected however the patient could not abduct his arm. When helped with abducting his arm to 45 degrees he was able to continue the movement. This means that he was unable to initiate abduction. Where is the likely site of injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suprascapular nerve
Explanation:The loss of ability to initiate abduction means paralysis of the supraspinatus muscle. This muscle is supplied by the supraclavicular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 20-year old involved in a brawl was stabbed in the anterior chest in a structure that is in close proximity to where the first rib articulates with the sternum. What is the structure that was most likely injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sternoclavicular joint
Explanation:The first rib articulates with the sternum right below the sternoclavicular joint.
The sternal angle articulates with the costal cartilage of the second rib.
The nipple is found between the fourth and the fifth ribs, in the fourth intercostal space.
The xiphoid process is located right below the point of articulation of the costal cartilage of rib 7 with the sternum.
The root of the lung is the part of the lung where neurovascular structures enter and leave the lung.
Acromioclavicular joint is the point of articulation between the acromion process and the clavicle, near the shoulder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior surface of the thigh. The cause of this:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Would result from damage to the nerve that innervates the pectineus muscle
Explanation:The pectineus is supplied by the second, third and fourth lumbar nerves through the femoral nerve and by the third lumbar through the accessory obturator when it exists. The anterior surface of the thigh receives its innervation from the femoral nerve as well, thus this is the nerve most likely to be injured
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man suffers an ischaemic stroke and develops a left homonymous hemianopia. Where is the likely infarct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right occipital lobe
Explanation:The man has a left homonymous hemianopia which means he is unable to view objects in the left visual field. This information is processed by the right primary visual cortex which lies in the right occipital lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A patient sustained an injury to the facial nerve after it emerges from the stylomastoid foramen. What is the clinical impact of this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial expression
Explanation:The facial nerve is the seventh of the twelve paired cranial nerves. It emerges from the brainstem between the pons and the medulla. It controls the muscles of facial expression and supplies taste fibres to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to several head and neck ganglia. Its branches and distribution are as follows:
Inside the facial canal (proximal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Greater petrosal nerve – provides parasympathetic innervation to the lacrimal gland, as well as special taste sensory fibres to the palate via the nerve of pterygoid canal
– Nerve to stapedius – provides motor innervation for the stapedius muscle in the middle ear
– Chord tympani – provides parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular and sublingual glands and special sensory taste fibres for the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Outside the skull (distal to the stylomastoid foramen):
– Posterior auricular nerve – controls the movements of some of the scalp muscles around the ear
– Five major facial branches (in the parotid gland), from top to bottom: temporal branch, zygomatic branch, buccal branch, marginal mandibular branch and cervical branch. From the description given above it is obvious that injury to the facial nerve distal to the stylomastoid foramen will affect facial expression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 26
Incorrect
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During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries. From which artery do the sigmoid arteries branch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery
Explanation:Sigmoid arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA). Sigmoid artery gives off branches that supply the lower descending colon, the iliac colon and the sigmoid colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The nasolacrimal duct is a membranous canal. It extends from the lower part of the lacrimal sac and drains into which structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior meatus
Explanation:The nasolacrimal duct carries tears from the lacrimal sac of the eye into the nasal cavity. The duct begins in the eye socket between the maxillary and lacrimal bones, from where it passes downwards and backwards. The opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the inferior nasal meatus of the nasal cavity is partially covered by a mucosal fold (valve of Hasner or plica lacrimalis). Excess tears flow through the nasolacrimal duct which drains into the inferior nasal meatus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A construction worker is brought to the A&E after a fall on site. The patient is conscious but complains of inability to feel his legs. A neurological examination reveals that he has no cutaneous sensation from his umbilicus to his toes. What is the likely level of the spinal cord that is injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The umbilicus has a relatively consistent position in humans and thus serves as an important land mark. The skin around the waist at the level of the umbilicus is supplied by the tenth thoracic spinal nerve (T10 dermatome).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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The primary motor cortex is located in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Precentral gyrus
Explanation:The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A sudden loud sound is more likely to result in cochlear damage than a slowly developing loud sound. This is because:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a latent period before the attenuation reflex can occur
Explanation:On transmission of a loud sound into the central nervous system, an attenuation reflex occurs after a latent period of 40-80 ms. This reflex contracts the two muscles that pull malleus and stapes closer, developing a high degree of rigidity in the entire ossicular chain. This reduces the ossicular conduction of low frequency sounds to the cochlea by 30-40 decibels. In this way, the cochlea is protected from damage due to loud sounds (these are low frequency sounds) when they develop slowly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior circumflex humeral
Explanation:The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off 3 branches: the subscapular, anterior and posterior circumflex humeral arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A man was stabbed in the thigh following a bar brawl. A superficial vein was injured which terminates in the femoral vein. This superficial vein is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Great saphenous
Explanation:The great saphenous vein is considered the longest vein in the body. It terminates in the femoral vein nearly 3cm below the inguinal ligament. It begins at the dorsum of the foot in the medial marginal vein and ascends at the medial side of the leg in relation with the saphenous nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 34
Incorrect
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The following organs would be expected to lie within the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, assuming that the gastrointestinal tract is rotated normally:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal jejunum, caecum, vermiform appendix
Explanation:The abdomen is divided by theoretical anatomic lines into four quadrants. The median plane follows the linea alba and extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis and splits the abdomen in half. The transumbilical plane is a horizontal line that runs at the level of the umbilicus. This forms the upper right and left quadrants and the lower right and left quadrants. Structures in the right lower quadrant include: caecum, appendix, part of the small intestine, ascending colon, the right half of the female reproductive system, right ureter. Pain in this region is most commonly associated with appendicitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A patient with a long standing lower motor neuron lesion will have:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Muscle wasting
Explanation:Lower motor neurons (LMNs) connect the brainstem and spinal cord to muscle fibres. Damage to lower motor neurons is indicated by abnormal electromyographic potentials, fasciculations, paralysis, weakening and wasting of skeletal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Both the arytenoid muscles and the lateral cricoarytenoid muscles perform this action on the glottis:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adduction
Explanation:Both the arytenoid and the cricoartenoid muscles close the glottis. The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles extend from the lateral cricoid cartilage to the muscular process of the arytenoid cartilage. By rotating the arytenoid cartilages medially, these muscles adduct the vocal cords and thereby close the rima glottidis. The arytenoid muscle adducts or approximates the arytenoid cartilages, and thus closes the aperture of the glottis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Where is the mental foramen located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In the mandible
Explanation:The mental foramen is found bilaterally on the anterior surface of the mandible adjacent to the second premolar tooth. The mental nerve and terminal branches of the inferior alveolar nerve and mental artery leave the mandibular canal through it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic arch
Explanation:Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 39
Incorrect
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During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries
Explanation:The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 40
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a landmark to identify the site of the 2nd costal cartilage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sternal angle
Explanation:The sternal angle is an important part where the second costal cartilage attaches to the sternum. Finding the sternal angle will help in finding the second costal cartilage and intercostal space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 41
Incorrect
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Which of the following structure forms the floor of the posterior triangle of the neck:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevertebral fascia
Explanation:The posterior triangle (or lateral cervical region) is a region of the neck which has the following boundaries:
Apex: Union of the sternocleidomastoid and the trapezius muscles at the superior nuchal line of the occipital bone
Anterior: Posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
Posterior: Anterior border of the trapezius
Base: Middle one third of the clavicle
Roof: Investing layer of the deep cervical fascia
Floor: The anterolateral portion of prevertebral fascia -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 42
Incorrect
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The gluteus medius muscle:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve
Explanation:The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to be found?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis
Explanation:The brain has a high lipid content and typically undergoes liquefaction with ischaemic injury, because it contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buccinator muscle
Explanation:The parotid duct or Stensen duct is a duct and the route that saliva takes from the major salivary gland, the parotid gland into the mouth. The parotid duct is formed when several interlobular ducts—the largest ducts inside the parotid gland join. It emerges from the gland and runs forward along the lateral side of the masseter muscle. In this course, the duct is surrounded by the buccal fat pad. It takes a steep turn at the border of the masseter and passes through the buccinator muscle, opening into the vestibule of the mouth, between the cheek and the gums, at the parotid papilla, which lies across the second superior molar tooth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
Which of the following diseases causes abrupt vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and nystagmus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Vestibular neuronitis or labyrinthitis causes a self-limited episode of vertigo, presumably due to inflammation of the vestibular division of cranial nerve VIII. Its causes are unknown, It may be due to a virus, but it can be related to a bacterial infection, head injury, stress, allergy, or as a reaction to medication. Symptoms can last up to 7-10 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
Injury to this nerve will result to the loss of general sensory innervation of the lacrimal gland:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ophthalmic nerve
Explanation:The lacrimal glands are paired, almond-shaped exocrine glands, that secrete the aqueous layer of the tear film. The lacrimal nerve, derived from the ophthalmic nerve, supplies the sensory component of the lacrimal gland. The greater petrosal nerve, derived from the facial nerve, supplies the parasympathetic autonomic component of the lacrimal gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
Which statement is true about the inferior sagittal sinus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is formed between two layers of meningeal dura
Explanation:The inferior sagittal sinus is also known as the inferior longitudinal sinus. It courses along the inferior border of the falx cerebri, superior to the corpus callosum. It is cylindrical in shape and increases in size as it passes backward ending in the straight sinus. It receives blood from the deep and medial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres and drains into the straight sinus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the inguinal ligament?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis
Explanation:The inguinal ligament is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis and extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle from whence it is reflected backward and laterally to attach to the pectineal line and form the lacunar ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon is clamping the?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterine arteries
Explanation:The ureter forms the posterior boundary of a shallow depression which lodges the ovary and then runs medially and forward on the lateral aspect of the uterine cervix and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder. It is also situated about 2cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus. The relationship of the ureters and uterine arteries is of clinical significance because the arteries are at risk of iatrogenic injury during hysterectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 50
Incorrect
-
A patient at the time of her second delivery opted for a bilateral pudendal nerve block. In order to inject the anaesthetic agent near the pudendal nerve a anaesthetic consultant had to insert a finger into the vagina and press laterally to palpate which landmark?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ischial spine
Explanation:The ischial spine is always palpated through the walls of the vagina when performing a transvaginal pudendal nerve block and can easily be palpated on the lateral wall of the vagina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
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Question 51
Incorrect
-
The third branch of the maxillary artery lies in which fossa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine fossa
Explanation:The maxillary artery supplies deep structures of the face. It branches from the external carotid artery just deep to the neck of the mandible. It is divided into three portions:
– The first or mandibular portion (or bony portion) passes horizontally forward, between the neck of the mandible and the sphenomandibular ligament.
– The second or pterygoid portion (or muscular portion) runs obliquely forward and upward under cover of the ramus of the mandible, on the surface of the lateral pterygoid muscle; it then passes between the two heads of origin of this muscle and enters the fossa.
– The third portion lies in the pterygopalatine fossa in relation to the pterygopalatine ganglion. This is considered the terminal branch of the maxillary artery. Branches from the third portion includes: the sphenopalatine artery, descending palatine artery, infraorbital artery, posterior superior alveolar artery, artery of pterygoid canal, pharyngeal artery, middle superior alveolar artery and anterior superior alveolar artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
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Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 25 year old primi gravida lady was scheduled for a regular antenatal check up. During the vaginal exam of this lady, the registrar discovered a malignant growth on the anterior wall of her vagina. Which of the following structures, adjacent to the vagina, is likely to be involved as well?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fundus of the bladder
Explanation:The fundus of the bladder is related anatomically to the anterior surface of the vagina and the urethra as well. If there was a malignant growth in the anterior surface of the vagina, then most likely the fundus of the bladder would be involved as well aspotentially the urethra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
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Question 53
Incorrect
-
Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schwannoma
Explanation:Schwannomas are histologically benign neoplasms that arise from nerve sheaths, most commonly from sensory nerve roots. They are generally contained within a capsule, and so can be surgically removed without injuring the associated nerve root. They are histologically benign and less than 1% become malignant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
Which of the following structures carry part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)
Explanation:The moderator band extends from the base of the anterior papillary muscle to the ventricular septum. It is the structure which carries part of the right AV bundle. Its role it to prevent overdistention of the ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
What is the most likely condition a new born infant is likely to suffer from, if he/she was born with incomplete fusion of the embryonic endocardial cushions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:The endocardial cushions in the heart are the mesenchymal tissue that make up the part of the atrioventricular valves, atrial septum and ventricular septum. An incomplete fusion of these mesenchymal cells can cause an atrioventricular septal defect. The terms endocardial cushion defect, atrioventricular septal defect and common atrioventricular canal defect can be used interchangeably with one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus
Explanation:The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 20-year old cyclist falls off a speeding bike and fractures a structure that articulates with the tubercle of the 7th rib. Which structure is fractured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transverse process of vertebra T7
Explanation:A rib tubercle is a projection that is postero-inferior and lateral to the neck of a rib which articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebra i.e. of the same number. Therefore, the tubercle of rib 7 articulates with the transverse process of T7 vertebra. The head of the rib 7, on the other hand, articulates with the 6th vertebra superiorly and the 7th vertebra inferiorly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Middle rectal
Explanation:Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A 50 year old male point was diagnosed with tennis elbow that became worse after he started playing basket ball over the last three months. He was admitted to the orthopaedic ward to have elbow braces fitted. What type of synovial joint is the elbow joint?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hinge
Explanation:The elbow joint is one of the many synovial joints in the body. This joint is an example of the hinge joint as the humerus is received into the semilunar notch of the ulna and the capitulum of the humerus articulates with the fovea on the head of the radius, together acting as a hinge in one plane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery, the artery that supplies blood to the pancreas and the duodenum, is a branch of the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The superior pancreaticoduodenal artery together with the right gastroepiploic artery form the two branches of the gastroduodenal artery which divides at the lower border of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when done between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein
Explanation:Maternal serum screening during the second trimester is a non-invasive way of identifying women at increased risk of having children with a neural tube defect and should be offered to all pregnant women. The results are most accurate when the sample is taken between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein suggest open spina bifida, anencephaly, risk of pregnancy complications, or multiple pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
Choose the most correct answer regarding the common peroneal nerve.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It gives rise to the nerve that supplies the anterior compartment leg muscles
Explanation:The common peroneal nerve divides beneath the peroneus longus muscle and gives off articular and lateral sural cutaneous nerves which supply muscular branches to the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg which are the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum, peroneus tertius and extensor hallucis longus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman suddenly suffers from a generalized seizure. She was previously healthy. An emergency CT scan reveals a mass in the posterior fossa, with distortion of the lateral ventricles. After removing the tumour, the biopsy reveals it contains glial fibrillary acidic protein (GEAP). What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Astrocytoma
Explanation:Astrocytomas are primary intracranial tumours derived from astrocyte cells of the brain. They can arise in the cerebral hemispheres, in the posterior fossa, in the optic nerve and, rarely, in the spinal cord. These tumours express glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). In almost half of cases, the first symptom of an astrocytoma is the onset of a focal or generalised seizure. Between 60% and 75% of patients will have recurrent seizures during the course of their illness. Secondary clinical sequelae may be caused by elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) cause by the direct mass effect, increased blood volume, or increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) volume. CT will usually show distortion of the third and lateral ventricles, with displacement of the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. Histological diagnosis with tissue biopsy will normally reveal an infiltrative character suggestive of the slow growing nature of the tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following groups of lymph nodes is most likely to be inflamed due to paronychia involving the big toe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vertical group of superficial inguinal lymph nodes
Explanation:Paronychia affecting the big toe will result in inflammation of the superficial inguinal lymph nodes as it drains lymph from the big toe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
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Question 65
Incorrect
-
In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion
Explanation:A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
During thyroidectomy, the recurrent laryngeal nerves are vulnerable to injury. Which of the following muscles will not be affected in cases where the recurrent laryngeal nerve is severed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cricothyroid
Explanation:All muscles of the larynx are supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve except for the cricothyroid which is supplied by the vagus nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus
Explanation:This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medial inguinal fossa
Explanation:In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
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Question 69
Incorrect
-
The otic ganglion receives its preganglionic sympathetic fibres from which of the following nerves?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Explanation:The otic ganglion is a small (2–3 mm), oval shaped, flattened parasympathetic ganglion of a reddish-grey colour, located immediately below the foramen ovale in the infratemporal fossa and on the medial surface of the mandibular nerve. The preganglionic parasympathetic fibres originate in the inferior salivatory nucleus of the glossopharyngeal nerve. They leave the glossopharyngeal nerve by its tympanic branch and then pass via the tympanic plexus and the lesser petrosal nerve to the otic ganglion. Here, the fibres synapse, and the postganglionic fibres pass by communicating branches to the auriculotemporal nerve, which conveys them to the parotid gland. They produce vasodilator and secretomotor effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
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Question 70
Incorrect
-
A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation:The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 71
Incorrect
-
If your EEG shows waves with a frequency range of 8-12 Hz, the waves most likely to be seen are:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha
Explanation:Electroencephalography (EEG) is the neurophysiological measurement of the electrical activity of the brain. It is done by placing electrodes on the scalp or subdurally. In reality, the electrical currents are not measured, but rather the voltage differences between different parts of the brain. Four major types of EEG activity are recognized, which are alpha, beta, delta and theta.
Alpha waves, also known as Berger’s waves ranges in frequency from 8-12 Hz. Best detected with eyes closed, alpha waves are characteristic of a relaxed, alert state of consciousness. An alpha-like normal variant called mu is sometimes seen over the motor cortex (central scalp) and attenuates with movement or, rather, with the intention to move.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction
Explanation:A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
While conducting a physical examination of a patient, the GP passed a finger down the edge of the medial crus of the superficial inguinal ring and felt a bony prominence deep to the lateral edge of the spermatic cord. What was this bony prominence?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pubic tubercle
Explanation:At the superficial inguinal ring, the pubic tubercle would be felt as a bony prominence lateral to the edge of the spermatic cord. This tubercle is the point of attachment of the inguinal ligament that makes up the floor of the inguinal canal.
Pecten pubis is the ridge on the superior surface of the superior pubic ramus and the point of attachment of the pectineal ligament.
The pubic symphysis is the joint between the two pubic bones and the iliopubic eminence is a bony process on the pubis found near the articulation of the pubis and the ilium.
The iliopectineal line is formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis. It is the line that marks the transition between the abdominal and pelvic cavity.
The sacral promontory is found on the posterior wall of the pelvis and would not be felt through the inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Explanation:The internal auditory meatus provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 27-year old lady is shot in the chest. The bullet enters superior to the upper edge of the clavicle. She had difficulty in breathing which is interpreted by the A&E physician as a likely indicator of a collapsed lung. If that is the case, what portion of the pleura is most likely to have been punctured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cupola
Explanation:The cupola is part of the pleura that extends above the first rib into the root of the lung. Most likely to injured in a stab above the level of the clavicle.
Costodiaphragmatic recess: the lowest extent of the pleural sac.
Pulmonary ligament: is a fold of pleura located below the root of the lung.
Mediastinal pleura: part of the pleura that lines the mediastinal cavity.
Hilar reflection is the part of the pleura where the visceral pleura of the lung reflects to become continuous with the parietal pleura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
Blood supply to the posterior compartment of the thigh is supplied by which artery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforating
Explanation:There are usually 3 perforating arteries:
The first gives branches to the adductor brevis and magnus, biceps femoris and gluteus maximus and anastomoses with the inferior gluteal, medial and lateral femoral circumflex.
The second artery supplies the posterior femoral muscles and anastomose with the first and third perforating vessels.
The third supplies the posterior femoral muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
Muscles and tendons in the planter region of the foot mainly take blood supply from:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior tibial artery
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery is the main source of blood supply to the posterior compartment of the leg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcaneus
Explanation:The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
A medical intern wanting to perform her first thoracentesis (remove fluid from the pleural cavity) wishes to be reminded where to insert the needle to aspirate in order to avoid injuring the lung or neurovascular elements. Where is this place?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The bottom of interspace 9 in the midaxillary line
Explanation:Thoracentesis is performed in the costodiaphragmatic recess. The needle needs to be inserted below the level of the lungs to avoid injury to the lungs. At the paravertebral line, is between ribs 10 and 12, at the midaxillary line between ribs 8 and 10 and at the midclavicular line between interspaces 6 and 8. The needle should be inserted at the top of the rib (or the bottom of the interspace) to avoid damage to the neurovascular structures found below the rib running in the costal groove.
The recommended location for the needle insertion varies depending upon the source. It is critical that the patient hold his or her breath to avoid piercing of the lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vastus intermedius
Explanation:The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
Which of the following bones was most likely fractured following an injury in the medial side of the foot between the navicular behind and base of the first metatarsal in front?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: First cuneiform
Explanation:The first cuneiform bone is the largest of the three cuneiforms. It is situated at the medial side of the foot, between the navicular behind and the base of the first metatarsal in front.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
-
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral pectoral
Explanation:The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
A specialist registrar was performing the bi-lateral surgical removal of the adrenal glands. He first removed the left adrenal gland before moving on to the right one. However, the registrar noticed that the removal of the right adrenal gland would be a challenge because of an overlying structure. What was this structure that overlies the right suprarenal glad?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The adrenal glands or the suprarenal glands are small glands that are found on top of each of the kidneys. They are retroperitoneal glands. The right adrenal gland is found on top of the right kidney and is closely associated with the inferior vena cava as it directly drains into this large vein. In the case where the right adrenal gland is to be surgically removed, the inferior vena cava might prove a problem to manoeuvre as it overlies the right suprarenal gland. The other blood vessels such as the aorta, right renal, superior mesenteric, splenic artery and the hepatic vein as well as the right crus are not closely associated with either of the suprarenal glands.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
-
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
Which is the correct superficial to deep order of structures that would be affected following a knife wound to the lateral aspect of the knee?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon, lateral meniscus
Explanation:Skin, fibular collateral ligament, popliteus muscle tendon and lateral meniscus is the correct order of structures covering the lateral aspect of the knee joint from a superficial to deep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 60-year old woman who has a left sided post-pneumonic effusion, was to have some pleural fluid aspirated for culture and sensitivity. If the medical intern in charge of the procedure decided to aspirate while the patient is sitting up on her bed, where in the pleural cavity would the fluid tend to accumulate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess
Explanation:The lowest part of the pleural cavity is the costodiaphragmatic recess and it the space in which the pleural fluid will accumulate when the patient sits up.
The cupola is part of the pleural cavity that extends into the root of the neck above the first rib.
The costomediastinal recess is the junction at which the costal pleura becomes the mediastinal pleura.
The middle mediastinum is the part of the mediastinum that is occupied by the heart.
The hilar reflection is the point where the mediastinal pleura is reflected to continue on as the visceral pleura.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid arteries?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C4
Explanation:The common carotid arteries are present on the left and right sides of the body. These arteries originate from different sources, but follow symmetrical courses. The right common carotid originates in the neck from the brachiocephalic trunk; the left from the aortic arch in the thorax. These split into the external and internal carotid arteries at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, at around the level of the fourth cervical vertebra.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
-
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
During a case presentation, a 26 year old is said to have fractured his pelvis and shattered his coccyx following a motorbike accident. It is mentioned that he is likely to have lacerated his middle sacral artery from this kind of injury. Where does the middle sacral artery branch from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal aorta
Explanation:The middle sacral artery arises from behind the aorta a little above the point of its bifurcation to descend down in front of L4,5, the sacrum and coccyx.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of the prostate for malignant growth, which of the following structures is directly related to the base of the prostate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary bladder
Explanation:The prostate is situated in the pelvic cavity and is also located immediately below the internal urethral orifice at the commencement of the urethra. It is held in position by the puboprostatic ligaments, the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the anterior portions of the levatores ani. The base of the prostate is directed upward and is attached to the inferior surface of the urinary bladder while the apex is directed downward and is in contact with the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Pelvis
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Question 90
Incorrect
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An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the following segments of bowel is most likely to have preserved arterial supply?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the end of the transverse colon and all distal structures in the gastrointestinal tract i.e. splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum would all be deprived of blood if it were occluded. The caecum receives blood from the superior mesenteric artery so it would not be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 91
Incorrect
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Which nerve mediates the sensation to itch from the skin that is just over the base of the spine of your scapula?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsal primary ramus of C7
Explanation:The first branches off spinal nerves are called the dorsal and ventral rami. The dorsal rami mediate sensation of the skin over the back and motor supply to the true muscles of the back whilst the ventral rami gives sensation to the skin over the limbs and the skin that is over the ventral side of the trunk. It also gives motor supply to the skeletal muscles of the neck, the trunk and extremities. Hence, itchiness of the part of the skin that is over the spine of the scapula would be mediated by the primary ramus of C7. Accessory nerve doesn’t have any sensory innervation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Neurology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient loses consciousness days or weeks after an otherwise insignificant head trauma, especially in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dural bridging vein
Explanation:A subdural haematoma is a type of hematoma, usually associated with traumatic brain injury, in which blood collects between the dura mater and the pia-arachnoid mater. Symptoms of subdural haemorrhage have a slower onset than those of epidural haemorrhages because the lower pressure veins bleed more slowly than arteries. These injuries are more common in elderly patients, especially those taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs. Oedema and increased intracranial pressure are unusual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma
Explanation:The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Pathology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splenorenal ligament
Explanation:The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.
The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.
The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.
The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.
The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.
The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 95
Incorrect
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Which of the following structures is not easily palpable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Styloid process of the temporal bone
Explanation:The styloid process is a thin, pointed process that projects antero-inferiorly from the base of the petrous temporal bone. It can vary in length from a short, stubby process to a slender, four to five centimetre rod. It forms from the cranial elements of the second pharyngeal arch. The tympanic plate of the temporal bone ensheathes the base of this process. The pointed, projecting portion of the process provides attachment to the stylohyoid and stylomandibular ligaments, and to three muscles – the styloglossus, stylohyoid, and stylopharyngeus. As the styloid process is covered by the various muscles, it is not easily palpable in live subjects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 96
Incorrect
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During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon
Explanation:The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 97
Incorrect
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Which structure holds the duodenojejunal flexure in place?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suspensory ligament (of Treitz)
Explanation:The duodenum is connected to the diaphragm by the suspensory ligament called the ligament of Treitz. It is a slip of skeletal muscle from the right crus of the diaphragm and a fibromuscular band of smooth muscle from the 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum. It is an important landmark, used to divide the gastrointestinal tract into the upper and lower parts. Contraction of this ‘ligament’ leads to opening of the duodenojejunal flexure allowing the flow of chyme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A man came to the hospital complaining of a sensation of pins and needles in the dorsum of the thumb and digits 1 and 2. On further examination they found that he had weakness in wrist dorsiflexion and finger extension. Which nerve do you think is injured in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial
Explanation:The radial nerve can be injured in multiple sites along its course in the upper limb, and each site has its own presentation. The major complaint is wrist drop which if high above the elbow, can cause numbness of the forearm and hand. It can last for several days or weeks. The most common site of compression for the radial nerve is at the proximal forearm in the area of the supinator muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sublingual gland
Explanation:The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 100
Incorrect
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During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.
An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.
Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.
Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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