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  • Question 1 - The testicular arteries are branches of what? ...

    Correct

    • The testicular arteries are branches of what?

      Your Answer: Aorta

      Explanation:

      The testicular artery arises from the aorta and supplies the testis and the epididymis. The testis is supplied by 3 arteries.: Testicular artery, cremasteric artery that arises from the inferior hypogastric artery and the artery to the vas deferens from the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Correct

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change.

      What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female, expecting twins, complains of decreased fetal movements in her 40th week of gestation. An hour ago, she experienced constant abdominal pain for an hour and passed blood in her urine. What is the next best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Cardiotocograph

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) helps to record the heartbeat of the foetus in parallel to measuring the contractions of the mother’s uterus, this is the most appropriate tool to assess this patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Following parturition how long does involution of the uterus take? ...

    Correct

    • Following parturition how long does involution of the uterus take?

      Your Answer: 4-6 weeks

      Explanation:

      Involution of the uterus takes 4-6 weeks

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A patient is attending for medical abortion. She is 15 weeks gestation. She has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate regarding antibiotic prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: Stat Azithromycin 1g and metronidazole 800 mg orally at time of abortion

      Explanation:

      If the patient has a negative Chlamydia screen then a stat dose of metronidazole monotherapy is appropriate. You do not know this patients Chlamydia status and therefore dual therapy with metronidazole + doxycycline or azithromycin is appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old patient has a transvaginal ultrasound scan that shows a mass in the left ovary. It is anechoic, thin walled, is without internal structures and measures 36mm in diameter. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Functional cyst

      Explanation:

      Features of functional ovarian cysts on ultrasound are: Thin walled and unilocular Must be >3cm diameter (if <3cm described as follicle) Anechoic (absence of internal echoes) No colour flow No solid components

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding androgen insensitivity syndrome?

      Your Answer: Phenotypically they are female but with undeveloped breasts

      Correct Answer: They have no uterus

      Explanation:

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome means that patients are phenotypically males but they are resistant or insensitive to male androgen hormones. They do not have a uterus. Due to insensitivity to androgens these patients often have female traits but their genetic makeup is of male, 46XY.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding menstruation, which of the following is the maximum normal blood loss?

      Your Answer: 35-40ml

      Correct Answer: 80-85ml

      Explanation:

      Most women lose about 35-40 ml of blood on average during each menstrual cycle. The maximum amount of blood loss is 80 ml after which blood loss of more than 80 ml is defined as heavy menstrual bleeding, formerly known as menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive...

    Correct

    • A patient asks you in clinic when she can start trying to conceive again. She has just completed chemotherapy for gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)?

      Your Answer: 1 year from completion of treatment

      Explanation:

      According to the RCOG greentop guidelines, a women who have underdone chemotherapy for GTD are advised not to conceive for 1 years after completion of the chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks of gestation comes to your office for an initial prenatal visit. Patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping and her first pregnancy was uncomplicated which ended with a spontaneous term vaginal delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Patient takes a daily dose of prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. 

      On examination her blood pressure is 122/80 mm of Hg and pulse is 70/min and BMI is 24 kg/m2.  The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis. 
      Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle. 

      Among the below mentioned complications, this patient is at highest risk for which one to occur?

      Your Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Twin gestations are generally at increased risk of complications and this risk is further stratified based on the chorionicity ie. number of placentas and amnionicity, the number of amniotic sacs of the gestation. In the given case patient has monochorionic diamniotic twins, which means 1 placenta and 2 amniotic sacs, based on the presence of 2 embryos, a single placenta and a thin intertwin membrane composed of 2 amniotic sacs that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle (“T sign”). In patients who appear to have a single placenta, the base shape of the intertwin membrane distinguishes between a monochorionic (“T sign”) and fused dichorionic (“lambda sign”) gestation.
      Monochorionic twins are at high risk for twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS), which is a complication that can result in heart failure and fetal
      eonatal mortality in both twins. In TTTS, unbalanced arteriovenous anastomoses are present between the shared placental vessels that supply the twins, because of these anastomoses, blood from the placental arteries from one twin (donor), which is of high resistance/pressure, is shunted into the placental veins of the other twin (recipient) with low resistance/pressure. This shunting of blood away from the donor twin causes anemia that leads to renal failure, oligohydramnios, low-output heart failure, and fetal growth restriction. In contrast, the shunting of blood toward the recipient twin causes polycythemia, which leads to polyhydramnios, cardiomegaly, high-output heart failure and hydrops fetalis. This in turn makes both twins at high risk for intrauterine and neonatal death.
      Mild TTTS is expectantly managed with serial ultrasounds to evaluate for worsening clinical features, whereas moderate-to-severe cases are treated with laser coagulation of the placental anastomoses.

      In monozygotic twins, placentation type is determined by timing of the twinning.  Twinning that occurs shortly after fertilization yields a dichorionic diamniotic gestation.  In contrast, the incomplete division (ie, fission) that can lead to conjoined twins occurs later in development and yields a monochorionic monoamniotic gestation. As the twins are in the same sac, monochorionic monoamniotic gestations can be complicated by cord entanglement but not possible in the given case as this patient has diamniotic twins.

      Risk factors for placenta accreta, implantation of the placenta directly into the myometrium, include placenta previa and prior uterine surgeries like cesarean delivery, myomectomy, etc

      Twin pregnancies are at increased risk of placenta previa (placental tissue that covers the internal cervical os); however, this patient has a fundal placenta, making this complication unlikely.

      Monochorionic twin gestations can be complicated by twin-twin transfusion syndrome, which is potentially a fatal condition that results from unbalanced vascular anastomoses between the vessels supplying umbilical cords of each twin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female patient comes in the first trimester of her pregnancy. Pap smear reveals that she has HSIL. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Monitor her symptoms until after delivery

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL) on cervical cytology should be evaluated with colposcopy. Principles of management of pregnant women include the following:
      – An immediate diagnostic excisional procedure should NOT be performed.
      – When colposcopy is performed during pregnancy:
      – Endocervical sampling with a curette and endometrial sampling should NOT be performed, as there is a risk of disturbing the pregnancy; however, the endocervical canal may be sampled gently with a cytobrush.
      – Cervical biopsy should be performed only if a lesion is present that appears to be high grade or suspicious for cancer.
      – If the examination is unsatisfactory, repeating the colposcopy after 6 to 12 weeks should allow visualization of the entire squamocolumnar junction.

      There is no indication for inducing abortion or performing a hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fetal blood pH is correct?

      Your Answer: Can only be measured postnatally

      Correct Answer: Can be measured during labour

      Explanation:

      A sample for fetal blood pH can be taken during the labour. The mother should be lying in a left lateral position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following increases in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following increases in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: IL-2

      Correct Answer: Th2

      Explanation:

      T-Helper cells type 2 increase during pregnancy. They secret cytokines IL-4,5,9,10 and 13.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type...

    Correct

    • Placental production of hPL, hCG, Oestrogen and Progesterone are examples of which type of mechanism

      Your Answer: Endocrine

      Explanation:

      Endocrine hormones are released from their site of origin and travel through the blood to act on other distant target organs. Autocrine hormones act within the same cell and exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old lady is somewhat jaundiced, has black urine, and has pruritus of her abdomen skin at 30 weeks of pregnancy in her first pregnancy. Her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, her fundal height is 29 cm above the pubic symphysis, and her liquid volume is a little lower than expected. Laboratory investigations reveal:
      Serum bilirubin (unconjugated): 5 mmol/L (0-10)
      Serum bilirubin (conjugated): 12 mmol/L (0-5)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP): 450U/L (30--350)
      Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 45U/L (<55)
      Serum bile acids: 100 mmol/L (1-26)
      The most likely cause for her presentation is?

      Your Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy.

      Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis.

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Obstetric Cholestasis.
      The characteristics (elevated bile acids, conjugated bilirubin, and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels) are typical with obstetric cholestasis, which affects roughly 3-4 percent of pregnant women in Australia. Obstetric cholestasis is diagnosed when otherwise unexplained pruritus occurs in pregnancy and abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) and/or raised bile acids occur in the pregnant woman and both resolve after delivery. Pruritus that involves the palms and soles of the feet is particularly suggestive.
      Liver function tests and bile acid levels measurements are used to validate this diagnosis.
      All of the other diagnoses are theoretically possible, but unlikely.
      On liver function tests, hepatitis A and acute fatty liver of pregnancy (which is frequently associated with severe vomiting in late pregnancy) usually show substantially worse hepatocellular damage.
      Pre-eclampsia is connected with hypertension and proteinuria (along with changes in renal function and, in certain cases, thrombocytopenia), while cholelithiasis is associated with obstructive jaundice and pale stools due to a stone in the CBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:

      Your Answer: Placenta previa

      Correct Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome

      Explanation:

      The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28 year old women presents at 30 weeks complaining of intense itching...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old women presents at 30 weeks complaining of intense itching particularly on the hands and feet that is worse in the evenings. She has taken cetirizine but this hasn't settled her symptoms. Examination is unremarkable with no rash. What is the likely diagnosis

      Your Answer: Dermatitis artefacta

      Correct Answer: Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The history is typical of Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis and prurigo gravidarum. The features are: Intense itching typically of the hands and feet Itch gets worse at night Responds poorly to antihistamines There is no rash. The mechanism is poorly understood but tests may show deranged LFTs. It usually resolves quickly after delivery. The other diagnoses listed are possible though less likely. Scabies normally has a rash

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on...

    Incorrect

    • In early pregnancy at what gestation does the Gestational sac become visible on transvaginal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks + 3 days

      Explanation:

      The gestational sac is typically visible from 31 days gestation by transvaginal ultrasound and a week later (38 days) on transabdominal ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 33-year -old G2Pl woman who is at 10 weeks gestation presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year -old G2Pl woman who is at 10 weeks gestation presented to the medical clinic for antenatal visit. It was revealed that she has a twin pregnancy. She was known to have had a complicated previous pregnancy with placental abruption at 34 weeks.

      Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient in addition to routine antenatal care?

      Your Answer: Hospital admission after 34 weeks

      Correct Answer: Increased iron and folic acid supplementation

      Explanation:

      Twin pregnancies are at risk for iron deficiency due to significant maternal, fetal, and placental demands. Recommendations regarding the optimal iron dose in twin pregnancies are based on clinical expert opinions, advocating doubling the dose of iron from 30 mg of elemental iron to 60 mg routinely during the second and third trimester, regardless of maternal iron stores.

      If pregnant with twins, patient should take the same prenatal vitamins she would take for any pregnancy, but a recommendation of extra folic acid and iron will be made. The additional folic acid and extra iron will help ward off iron-deficiency anaemia, which is more common when patient is pregnant with multiples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne...

    Incorrect

    • A baby with shoulder dystocia suffers a brachial plexus injury. You diagnose Erb-Duchenne palsy. Which nerve roots are typically affected?

      Your Answer: C7 and T1

      Correct Answer: C5 and C6

      Explanation:

      Erb’s or Erb-Duchenne palsy is a type of brachial plexus injury. The brachial plexus comprises C5 to T1 nerve roots. In Erb’s palsy C5 and C6 are the roots primarily affected. Shoulder Dystocia is the most common cause of Erb’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is: ...

    Incorrect

    • Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:

      Your Answer: Luteinizes granulose cells

      Correct Answer: All are correct

      Explanation:

      LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 67 year old patient with endometrial carcinoma is to undergo staging investigations....

    Correct

    • A 67 year old patient with endometrial carcinoma is to undergo staging investigations. There is evidence of invasion into the vaginal wall, but the lymph nodes are spared, and there is no distant metastasis. According to FIGO, what stage is this?

      Your Answer: 3B

      Explanation:

      Endometrial cancer is one of the most common gynaecological malignancies present in postmenopausal women, with a peak incidence between the ages of 60-89. Factors associated with endometrial cancer include obesity, hypertension and diabetes. Full staging for endometrial cancer is surgical, including several other radiologic investigations. According to FIGO staging classifications:
      Stage 1 indicates a tumour confined to the uterine body
      Stage 2 indicates the invasion of the cervical stroma
      Stage 3 indicates local and regional spread, where the tumour invades the serosa in stage 3A, spreads to the vagina and parametrium in stage 3B, and metastasizes to the pelvic or para-aortic lymph nodes in stage 3C.
      Stage 4 indicates tumour invasion on the bladder or bowel mucosa, or distant metastasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?...

    Correct

    • Regarding CTG analysis what is considered the normal baseline fetal heart rate (FHR)?

      Your Answer: 110-160

      Explanation:

      The normal FHR is 110-160

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated as:...

    Incorrect

    • The expected date of delivery of a human pregnancy can be calculated as:

      Your Answer: 36 weeks after the last menstrual period

      Correct Answer: 40 weeks after last menstrual period

      Explanation:

      Expected date of delivery/estimated due date (EDD) is a calculated date (i.e., an estimation), determined by counting forward 280 days (40 weeks) from the first day of the woman’s last menstrual period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary stimulator of uterine involution following child birth?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Oxytocin stimulates the myoepithelial cells in the breast causing the milk production. It also helps augment contractions in labour and cause uterine involution after childbirth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Long fingers are a recognised clinical feature

      Correct Answer: Only 1% of affected foetuses will survive to term

      Explanation:

      The incidence of 45,XO turner syndrome is around 1 in 8000 live births. Approximately 1% of monosomy X female embryos survive. Phenotypically they are females and 90% do not develop secondary sexual characteristics and hormone replacement is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to her GP with concerns regarding the evolution of her pregnancy. She's afraid she might experience an obstetric cholestasis just like her older sister did in the past. What is the fundamental symptom of obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Jaundice

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis of pregnancy is associated with increased fetal morbidity and mortality and should be treated actively. The significance attached to pruritus in pregnancy is often minimal, but it is a cardinal symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, which may have no other clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

    She explains she has had 2 episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic.

      She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding.

      Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago.

      What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia cervicitis

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - The typical female breast contains how many lobes? ...

    Correct

    • The typical female breast contains how many lobes?

      Your Answer: 15-20

      Explanation:

      The female breast is made of about 15 to 20 individual lobes. The lobules each consists of alveoli which drain into a single lactiferous duct. The ductal system leads to lactiferous sinuses and collecting ducts which expel milk from openings in the nipple.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old woman visits a gynaecological clinic for a check-up. A cervical screening test is performed by the doctor. HPV Type Non-16/18 is detected in her cervical cytology. Squamous cells and other abnormalities were found to be absent in the reflex liquid-based cytology.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Discuss the case with gynaecologist

      Correct Answer: Repeat Cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      A cervical screening test was performed on this patient, and the result revealed the presence of the Human Papilloma Virus Type non-16/18. Reflex liquid base cytology was conducted, but no further abnormalities were seen. In this case, the patient should be offered a 12-month repeat cervical screening cytology. If the patient’s repeated cervical screening cytology after 12 months revealed LSIL, she should be referred for a colposcopy.
      If HPV is discovered at 12 months, regardless of the LBC result, some women may be at higher risk of having high-grade abnormalities and should be referred to colposcopy. These include:
      – women 2 or more years overdue for screening at the time of the initial screen
      – women who identify as being of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
      – women aged 50 years or older.

      Summary of recommended actions based on the level of risk
      Intermediate danger:
      – HPV non-16/18 positive, intermediate risk (with negative or low-grade cytology)
      If feasible, repeat the HPV test after 12 months.
      A three-to-six-month delay would be acceptable. Delays of longer than six months are discouraged.
      Follow up HPV test – HPV non 16/18 (possible high grade cytology or high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) – Treated as Higher risk.

      High-risk:
      HPV non-16/18 positive on follow-up HPV test (with negative or low-grade cytology)
      Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.

      If your patient is: 2 years or more past due for screening at the time of the initial screening, and identifies as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander aged 50 or older, they may be at higher risk and should be referred to a professional at once for additional evaluation.

      HPV 16/18 positive with any of the following non–16/18 positive: a glandular anomaly in high-grade cytology high-grade squamous lesion (HSIL) cancer. Refer to an expert right away for further investigation.

      Currently, several colposcopy facilities are experiencing strong demand and extended wait times. If you are concerned that your patient will be delayed, you should call the specialist or clinic to which your patient has been referred.
      On the Cure Test Pathway, wherever possible, continue testing as planned. A woman who has been treated for HSIL (CIN2/3) should have a 12-month follow-up co-test and annual tests after that. She can resume standard 5-yearly screening after receiving two consecutive negative co-tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12...

    Correct

    • The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12 to 13. What HPV subtypes are vaccinated against with the vaccine Gardasil®?

      Your Answer: 6, 11, 16, and 18

      Explanation:

      HPV Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18. HPV types16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge....

    Correct

    • A 24 year old patient presents as 24 weeks pregnant with vaginal discharge. Swabs show Chlamydia Trachomatis detected. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment regime?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin 500 mg twice a day for 14 days

      Explanation:

      The treatment of Chlamydia includes avoidance of intercourse, use of condoms and antibiotic treatment. Erythromycin 500mg orally QID for 7 days or Amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 7 days or Ofloxacin 200mg orally BD for 7 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined...

    Correct

    • The performance of a cervical cerclage at 14 weeks of gestation is determined by which of the following indications?

      Your Answer: 2 or more consecutive prior second trimester pregnancy losses

      Explanation:

      Cervical cerclage is performed as an attempt to prolong pregnancy in certain women who are at higher risk of preterm delivery.

      There are three well-accepted indications for cervical cerclage placement. According to the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (ACOG), a history-indicated or prophylactic cerclage may be placed when there is a “history of one or more second-trimester pregnancy losses related to painless cervical dilation and in the absence of labour or abruptio placentae,” or if the woman had a prior cerclage placed due to cervical insufficiency in the second trimester.

      An ultrasound-indicated cerclage may be considered for women who have a history of spontaneous loss or preterm birth at less than 34 weeks gestation if the cervical length in a current singleton pregnancy is noted to be less than 25 mm before 24 weeks of gestation. It is important to note that this recommendation is invalidated without the history of preterm birth.

      Physical examination-indicated cerclage (also known as emergency or rescue cerclage) should be considered for patients with a singleton pregnancy at less than 24 weeks gestation with advanced cervical dilation in the absence of contractions, intraamniotic infection or placental abruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Immunoglobulin (or antibody) is secreted in large amounts in breast milk?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Correct Answer: IgA

      Explanation:

      When considering immunoglobulins in neonates. There are only a few key points you are likely to be tested on. 1. IgA is resistant to stomach acid and found in large amounts in breast milk. 2. IgG is the only Ig that can cross the placenta so is key for passive neonatal immunity 3. When the neonate starts synthesising its own Ig it is IgM that is produced first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - The uterine vein drains where? ...

    Correct

    • The uterine vein drains where?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac vein

      Explanation:

      The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making...

    Correct

    • Your consultant agrees to supervise you performing a Caesarean Section (CS). When making a Joel Cohen incision where should this be placed?

      Your Answer: 3 cm above the symphysis pubis

      Explanation:

      The Joel Cohen incision is superior to the Pffannenstiel incision. It is a straight incision that is 3 cm below the line joining the anterior iliac spines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old Aboriginal woman at ten weeks of gestation presents with a 2-week history of nausea, vomiting and dizziness. She has not seen any doctor during this illness.

      On examination, she is found to be dehydrated, her heart rate is 135 per minute (sinus tachycardia), blood pressure 96/60 mm of Hg with a postural drop of more than 20 mm of Hg systolic pressure and is unable to tolerate both liquids and solids.Urine contains ketones and blood tests are pending.

      How will you manage this case?

      Your Answer: Give metoclopramide and intravenous normal saline

      Explanation:

      Analysis of presentation shows the patient has developed hyperemesis gravidarum.
      She is in early shock, presented as sinus tachycardia and hypotension, with ketonuria and requires immediate fluid resuscitation and anti-emetics. The first line fluid of choice is administration of normal saline 0.9%, and should avoid giving dextrose containing fluids as they can precipitate encephalopathy and worsens hyponatremia.

      The most appropriate management of a pregnant patient in this situation is administration of metoclopramide as the first line and Ondansetron as second line antiemetic, which are Australian category A and B1 drugs respectively. The following also should be considered and monitored for:
      1. More refractory vomiting.
      2. Failure to improve.
      3. Recurrent hospital admissions.

      Steroids like prednisolone are third line medications which are used in resistant cases of hyperemesis gravidarum after proper consultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of hypertension in pregnancy?

      Your Answer: A blood pressure above 140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines on Hypertension in pregnancy define blood pressure in pregnancy as follows:
      Mild hypertension: DBP=90-99 mmHg, SBP=140-149 mmHg. Moderate hypertension: DBP=100-109 mmHg, SBP=150-159 mmHg.
      Severe hypertension: DBP=110 mmHg or greater, SBP=160 mmHg or greater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - In fetal circulation: ...

    Correct

    • In fetal circulation:

      Your Answer: Most of the blood entering the right atrium flows into the left atrium

      Explanation:

      Circulation in the foetus: 1. Deoxygenated fetal blood is conducted to the placenta via the two umbilical arteries. The umbilical arteries arise from the internal iliac arteries.
      2. Gas exchange occurs in placenta.
      3. Oxygenated blood from the placenta passes through the single umbilical vein and enters the inferior vena cava (IVC).
      4. About 50% of the blood in the IVC passes through the liver and the rest bypasses the liver via the ductus venosus. The IVC also drains blood returning from the lower trunk and extremities.
      5. On reaching the heart, blood is effectively divided into two streams by the edge of the interatrial septum (crista dividens) (1) a larger stream is shunted to the left atrium through the foramen ovale (lying between IVC and left atrium) (2) the other stream passes into right atrium where it is joined by blood from SVC which is blood returning from the myocardium and upper parts of body. This stream therefore has a lower partial pressure of oxygen.
      6. Because of the large pulmonary vascular resistance and the presence of the ductus arteriosus most of the right ventricular output passes into the aorta at a point distal to the origin of the arteries to the head and upper extremities. The diameter of the ductus arteriosus is similar to the descending aorta. The patency of the ductus arteriosus is maintained by the low oxygen tension and the vasodilating effects of prostaglandin E2;
      7. Blood flowing through the foramen ovale and into left atrium passes into the left ventricle where it is ejected into the ascending aorta. This relatively oxygen rich blood passes predominantly to the head and upper extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures? ...

    Correct

    • The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by the inguinal ligament which forms the base of the triangle, medially by the lateral border of the adductor longus and laterally by the sartorius muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She...

    Correct

    • You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She complains of vaginal soreness and yellow frothy discharge. Microscopy confirms Trichomoniasis. What percentage of infected pregnant women present with yellow frothy discharge?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women, and is caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. About 20-30% of women with the infection however are asymptomatic. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated and screened for other STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has a vaginal discharge with pH <4.5 and a very foul smell. What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Candidiasis

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite. In women, trichomoniasis can cause a foul-smelling vaginal discharge which might be white, grey, yellow or green, genital itching and painful urination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors? ...

    Correct

    • Warfarin inhibits which clotting factors?

      Your Answer: 2,7,9 and 10

      Explanation:

      Warfarin inhibits Vitamin K dependent clotting factors. These include factors 2,7,9 and 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis? ...

    Correct

    • Among the below mentioned conditions which is not a contraindication to tocolysis?

      Your Answer: Maternal hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Contraindications to tocolysis in preterm labor are as follows:
      – Gestational age > 34 weeks or <24 weeks
      – Labor is too advanced with an advanced cervical dilation of >4 cm
      – Abnormal CTG suggesting a non-reassuring fetal status
      – Lethal fetal anomalies
      – Intrauterine fetal demise
      – Suspected fetal compromise
      – Significant antepartum hemorrhage, such as placental abruption/ active vaginal bleeding with hemodynamic instability
      – Any suspected intrauterine infections like chorioamnionitis
      – Maternal hypotension
      – Pregnancy-induced hypertension/ eclampsia/ pre-eclampsia
      – Placenta previa
      – Placental insufficiency
      – Intrauterine growth retardation
      – Maternal allergy to specific tocolytic agents or cases where tocolytics are contraindicated due to specific comorbidities like in case of cardiac disease, were beta agonists cannot be administered.

      As there are nonpulmonary morbidities associated with preterm birth, fetal pulmonary maturity, known or suspected, is not an absolute contraindication for tocolysis. These fetuses could potentially benefit from prolongation of pregnancy and from the nonpulmonary benefits of glucocorticoid therapy.

      When cervical dilation is greater than 3 cm inhibition of preterm labor is less likely to be successful. In such cases Tocolysis can be considered when the goal is to administer antenatal corticosteroids or to safely transport the mother to a tertiary care center.

      Maternal hypothyroidism which is usually treated with thyroxine is not a contraindication to suppression of labor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey vaginal discharge. Bacteria adhering to vaginal epithelial cells are visible under light microscopy using a wet mount preparation.

      Which of the following creatures is most likely to be a pathogen?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Gardnerella vaginalis is one of the bacteria implicated in the development of bacterial vaginosis , many women (>50%) with this vaginal infection have no signs or symptoms, when these are present they are most often :
      Vaginal discharge, grey, white or green, with a strong unpleasant odour
      Strong vaginal odour and fishy smell after sex
      Vaginal itching
      Burning during urination
      Vaginal bleeding after sex
      Gardnerella vaginalis can also be responsible for serious infections (sepsis, wound infections) in locations other than those associated with the genital tract or obstetrics, these cases are very rare but have been reported, including in men.

      Mycoplasma Hominis is one of the organisms involved in the pathogenesis of BV but it appears normal on wet mount.

      Candida presents with white cottage cheese like discharge.

      Chlamydia is not seen on wet mount and produces clear vaginal discharge.

      Trichomonas shows clue cells on wet mount.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting.

      On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG.

      Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Ruptured uterus

      Explanation:

      Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.

      Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
      – Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
      – Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
      – Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
      – Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
      – Cessation of uterine contractions
      – Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
      – Uterine tenderness
      As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
      Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
      A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic with yellow, frothy vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. Trichomoniasis is confirmed after microscopy on a wet smear. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg TDS 7 days

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour.

      For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy.

      The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy: ...

    Incorrect

    • The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:

      Your Answer: Increases 10%

      Correct Answer: Increases up to 40%

      Explanation:

      Changes in the cardiovascular system in pregnancy are profound and begin early in pregnancy, such that by eight weeks’ gestation, the cardiac output has already increased by 20%. The primary event is probably peripheral vasodilatation. This is mediated by endothelium-dependent factors, including nitric oxide synthesis, upregulated by oestradiol and possibly vasodilatory prostaglandins (PGI2). Peripheral vasodilation leads to a 25–30% fall in systemic vascular resistance, and to compensate for this, cardiac output increases by around 40% during pregnancy. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 29 year old patient who is 15 weeks pregnant comes to see...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old patient who is 15 weeks pregnant comes to see you. She currently has chickenpox. She is concerned her baby may get congenital fetal varicella syndrome (FVS). What would you advise her the risk of this is?

      Your Answer: 10.00%

      Correct Answer: 2.00%

      Explanation:

      FVS has been reported to complicate maternal chickenpox that occurs as early as 3 weeks and up to 28 weeks of gestation. The risk appears to be lower in the first trimester (0.55 per cent). No case of FVS has been reported when maternal infection has occurred after 28 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is probably responsible for physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Increased progesterone production

      Explanation:

      Progesterone gradually increases during the course of pregnancy, from 25 ng⋅mL−1 at 6 weeks’ to 150 ng⋅mL−1 at 37 weeks’ gestation. Progesterone acts as trigger of the primary respiratory centre by increasing the sensitivity of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide, as indicated by the steeper slope of the ventilation curve in response to alveolar carbon dioxide changes. Progesterone alters the smooth muscle tone of the airways resulting in a bronchodilator effect. It also mediates hyperaemia and oedema of mucosal surfaces, causing nasal congestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal.

      What is the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Loop electrosurgical excision procedure

      Correct Answer: Cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
      Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.

      Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the right anterior aspect of her labia following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect ilioinguinal nerve injury. What spinal segment is the ilioinguinal nerve derived from?

      Your Answer: L2,L3

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      Ilioinguinal nerve injury is one of the most common nerve injuries associated with pelvic surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of...

    Incorrect

    • One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of pregnancy, a 33-year-old woman developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has been on enoxaparin therapy for DVT. Upon discharge, there is a plan to start her on warfarin. When this was explained, the patient was reluctant to take warfarin since she thinks it might cause problems to the baby because she is planning to breastfeed.

      Which of the following is considered correct regarding warfarin and breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: She should take enoxaparin injections for six months and then start warfarin

      Correct Answer: She should continue to breastfeed her baby while she is on warfarin

      Explanation:

      No adverse reactions in breastfed infants have been reported from maternal warfarin use during lactation, even with a dose of 25 mg daily for 7 days. There is a consensus that maternal warfarin therapy during breastfeeding poses little risk to the breastfed infant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Partial Molar Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disorder is characterized by an abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and include a complete and partial mole. It is characterized by persistently elevated BHCG levels after pregnancy and on ultrasound a snow storm appearance. These appear as anechoic areas on ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum

      Explanation:

      Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of urinary incontinence for the past 12 months after having four pregnancies before the age of 30. She has to wear a 'pad' inside her pants all of the time because of this condition. She isn't on any hormone replacement therapy at the moment. Which of the following signs indicates that the incontinence is most likely true stress incontinence?

      Your Answer: Only small quantities of urine ore lost each time she is incontinent.

      Explanation:

      Only little volumes of urine are lost when her intra-abdominal pressure is elevated during coughing, laughing, jumping, and straining, which is the only symptom associated with real stress incontinence.
      The other reactions are significantly more compatible with a detrusor instability diagnosis (also called urge incontinence).
      If she had incontinence throughout pregnancy, it would have been stress in nature, which is what her current incontinence is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl presents with a history of a bright red bloodstain in her underpants one day prior to consultation. Her mother reports that the girl started cycling lessons one week ago. How will you proceed with the investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Local Examination

      Correct Answer: Examination under Anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      A local exam might not help in locating the cause of the bleeding because it might be underneath the superficial structures. A thorough examination should be done under GA to accurately locate the source of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following circumstances, is it least likely for a foetus to be in a transverse lie?

      Your Answer: A normal term foetus

      Explanation:

      Normal position of the foetus in relationship to the mother is always a longitudinal lie and a cephalic presentation. Transverse lie means that the baby is sideways. The foetus lies transverse till 26-28th week of gestation, after which it usually changes its position from transverse to a longitudinal lie with head down. A transverse lie can occur in conditions like grand multiparity, preterm foetus, placenta previa and pelvic contraction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.6
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - What is the half life of Oxytocin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the half life of Oxytocin?

      Your Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      The half life of oxytocin is 5 mins, which is why is should be started as an infusion at a low rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - How many days after fertilisation does the morula form? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many days after fertilisation does the morula form?

      Your Answer: 6

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      When there are about 12-32 blastomeres, the developing human is referred to as morula. It enters the uterine cavity around the 4th day after fertilization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help...

    Correct

    • Which of the following medications, when given before & during pregnancy may help to protect neural tube defects?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Explanation:

      Maternal exposure to dietary factors during pregnancy can influence embryonic development and may modulate the phenotype of offspring through epigenetic programming. Folate is critical for nucleotide synthesis, and preconceptional intake of dietary folic acid (FA) is credited with reduced incidences of neural tube defects in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding Human Papillomavirus, what percentage of women develop antibodies?

      Your Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Human Papillomavirus has been is implicated in the development of genital warts as well as, head and neck, anogenital and cervical cancers, with the most important high-risk strains being 16 and 18. Over 50% of women worldwide are thought to possess antibodies against various strains of HPV after natural infection. Many infections are asymptomatic and are cleared within 2 years. Several vaccines have been formulated against HPV, one of which is Gardasil, a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types 6,11, 16,18.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 37-year-old primigravid woman is admitted to labor unit at 39 weeks of gestation, due to regular uterine contractions. Her cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced, with the fetus’ vertex at +1 station. Initially the fetal heart rate was 150 bpm, as the labor progressed, it falls to 80 bpm without any changes in the mother’s general condition.
      Which among the following options would be the best next step in management of this case?

      Your Answer: Vaginal examination to exclude any cord prolapse

      Correct Answer: Cardiotocography

      Explanation:

      Bradycardia of <100 bpm for more than 5 minutes or <80 for more than 3 minutes is always considered abnormal. The given case describes fetal bradycardia detected on fetal heart auscultation and the most common causes for severe bradycardia are prolonged cord compression, cord prolapse, epidural and spinal anesthesia, maternal seizures and rapid fetal descent. Immediate management including identification of any reversible causes for the abnormality and initiation of appropriate actions like maternal repositioning, correction of maternal  hypotension, rehydration with  intravenous fluid,  cessation of oxytocin, tocolysis for excessive uterine activity, and initiation or maintenance of continuous CTG should be considered in clinical situations where abnormal fetal heart rate patterns are noticed. Consideration of further fetal evaluation and delivery if a significant abnormality persists are very important. The next step in this scenario where the baby is in 1+ station, with an abnormal fetal heart rate detected on auscultation would be to perform a confirmatory cardiotocography (CTG) and if the CTG findings confirm the condition despite initial measures obtained, prompt action should be taken. Cord compression or prolapse should come on the top of the differential diagnoses list as the the mother shows normal general conditions, but since the cervix is 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal head is already engaged, cord prolapse would be unlikely; therefore, repeating vaginal exam is not as important as confirmatory CTG. However a vaginal exam should be done, if the scenario indicates any possibility of cord prolapse, to exclude cord compression or prolapse. NOTE– In cases of severe prolonged bradycardia, immediate delivery is recommended, if the cause cannot be identified and corrected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      56.4
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molar Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This is typical appearance of molar pregnancy. This used to be referred to as ‘snowstorm sign’ as with older poorer resolution ultrasound the anechoic species looked like a snowstorm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of radiotherapy?

      Your Answer: Cell death via oxidative phosphorylation

      Correct Answer: DNA damage via free radical generation

      Explanation:

      Radiotherapy causes ionisation, primarily of water. This leads to hydroxyl and other free radicals being generated. Free radicals are highly reactive and cause DNA damage to cells via their reactions with them. Free radicals are relatively short lived and eventually form stable compounds. The DNA damage leads to cellular death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles does NOT receive innervation from the pudendal nerve?

      Your Answer: Levator ani

      Correct Answer: Internal anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      The internal anal sphincter is innervated by pelvic splanchnic nerves

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to...

    Correct

    • A 29 year old female presented at her 38th week of gestation to the ER with severe hypertension (210/100) and proteinuria (+++). Soon after admission, she developed generalized tonic clonic fits. What is the first line of management in this case?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate IV

      Explanation:

      Magnesium Sulphate is the drug of choice in eclamptic patients. A loading dose of 4g magnesium sulphate in 100mL 0.9% saline IVI over 5min followed by maintenance IVI of 1g/h for 24h. Signs of toxicity include respiratory depression and jerky tendon reflexes. In recurrent fits additional 2g can be given. Magnesium should be stopped when the respiratory rate is <14/min, absent tendon reflexes, or urine output is <20mL/h.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of...

    Incorrect

    • If a sample of cervical mucus is taken on the 12th day of the menstrual cycle and examined under the microscope, what kind of findings would be observed?

      Your Answer: Clearly defined para-basal cells

      Correct Answer: A fern pattern characteristic of oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Fern test looks for a specific fern like pattern of cervical mucus when observed under light microscope after the sample is dried. It occurs due to the presence of sodium chloride under oestrogen influence whereas progesterone opposes it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - At what gestational age does the luteo-placental shift occur? ...

    Correct

    • At what gestational age does the luteo-placental shift occur?

      Your Answer: 6-8 weeks

      Explanation:

      Luteo-placental shifts occurs around 6-8 week when the placenta takes over from the corpus luteum as the main producer of oestrogen and progesterone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following factors as shown to decrease ovarian cancer risk?

      Your Answer: Taking statins

      Explanation:

      Factors shown to decrease risk of ovarian cancer are:
      – Oral contraceptive use
      – Higher Parity
      – Breast feeding
      – Hysterectomy
      – Tubal Ligation
      – Statins
      – SLE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the...

    Incorrect

    • Jenny, a 23-year-old woman who is at 14 weeks gestation, presented to the medical clinic because she developed a rash characteristic of chickenpox after 2 days of low-grade fever and mild malaise. Serological test was performed and revealed positive anti-varicella lgM.

      Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate course of action for the patient?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin

      Correct Answer: Antiviral therapy and pelvic ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox or varicella is a contagious disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The virus is responsible for chickenpox (usually primary infection in non-immune hosts) and herpes zoster or shingles (following reactivation of latent infection). Chickenpox results in a skin rash that forms small, itchy blisters, which scabs over. It typically starts on the chest, back, and face then spreads. It is accompanied by fever, fatigue, pharyngitis, and headaches which usually last five to seven days. Complications include pneumonia, brain inflammation, and bacterial skin infections. The disease is more severe in adults than in children.

      Primary varicella infection during pregnancy can also affect the foetus, who may present later with chickenpox. In pregnant women, antibodies produced as a result of immunization or previous infection are transferred via the placenta to the foetus. Varicella infection in pregnant women could spread via the placenta and infect the foetus. If infection occurs during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy, congenital varicella syndrome may develop. Effects on the foetus can include underdeveloped toes and fingers, structural eye damage, neurological disorder, and anal and bladder malformation.

      Prenatal diagnosis of fetal varicella can be performed using ultrasound, though a delay of 5 weeks following primary maternal infection is advised.

      Antivirals are typically indicated in adults, including pregnant women because this group is more prone to complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      80.9
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - All of the following statements regarding human chorionic gonadotrophin are true except:: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following statements regarding human chorionic gonadotrophin are true except::

      Your Answer: It is produced by the placenta

      Correct Answer: It's level doubles every 48 hours in ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      In normal pregnancy the levels of hCG doubles after every 48-72 hours but in case of ectopic pregnancy the levels of hCG are lower than the normal. It is produced by the placenta and its main role is nourishment of the egg after implantation. Its levels reached a peak at 8-10 weeks of pregnancy and after that the levels decreases for the remainder of pregnancy. In hydatiform mole and trophoblastic diseases its the main hormone for diagnosis of the disease because the levels are highly elevated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following...

    Correct

    • Regarding anti-epileptic use in the 1st trimester of pregnancy, which of the following is closely associated with the development of congenital malformations?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium Valproate is known to be the most teratogenic when used in the first trimester of pregnancy. This antiepileptic increases the risk of congenital malformations including a 10-20 fold risk of neurodevelopmental defects. Though the use of antiepileptics should generally be avoided during pregnancy, carbamazepine, or newer drugs such as Lamotrigine are thought to carry less of a risk of teratogenicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old female presented with complaints of a 3 cm lump in her right breast, which was firm & irregular. O/E there was also some colour change over the breast. The most likely diagnosis would be?

      Your Answer: Phyllodes tumour

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Breast carcinoma is one of the most common malignancies in women. It presents as an irregular, firm consistency nodule/lump, which is attached to the skin most of the time. The overlying skin also exhibits a peau d’ orange appearance, along with dimpling. A sebaceous cyst is a small cystic swelling with no colour change and can occur anywhere over the skin. A lipoma is a benign tumour of fats which is soft in consistency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the most appropriate for diagnosis of Bacterial Vaginosis (BV)?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis wet prep culture

      Correct Answer: Amsel's criteria

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis can be made using the Amsel’s criteria:
      1. Presence of clue cells on microscopic examination (these cells are epithelial cells covered with the bacteria).
      2. Creamy greyish discharge.
      3. Vaginal pH of more than 4.5.
      5. Positive whiff test – release of fishy odour on addition of alkali solution. Other criteria include the nugent score and the Hay/Ison criteria. The Nugent score estimates the relative proportions of bacterial morphotypes to give a score between 0 and 10 (<4 = normal, 4-6 = intermediate, >6 = BV)
      The Hay/Ison criteria
      Grade 1 (Normal): Lactobacillus morphotypes predominate
      Grade 2 (Intermediate): Mixed flora with some Lactobacilli present, but Gardnerella or Mobiluncus morphotypes also present
      Grade 3 (BV): Predominantly Gardnerella and/or Mobiluncus morphotypes. Few or absent Lactobacilli.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Pudendal nerve divides into inferior rectal, perineal and dorsal nerve of the clitoris (or penis in males). The dorsal nerve of clitoris supplies sensory innervation to the clitoris. The perineal branch supplies sensory innervation to the skin of the labia majora and minora and the vestibule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following Oestrogens (Oestrogens) becomes the predominant circulating oestrogen during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Estriol

      Explanation:

      The 3 main oestrogens are Estrone (E1) Oestradiol (E2) and Estriol (E3). Oestradiol is the predominant oestrogen during female reproductive years except during the early follicular phase when Estrone predominates. During pregnancy Estriol levels rise significantly and this becomes the dominant oestrogen during pregnancy. Ethinylestradiol and Mestranol are oestrogen found in COCP’s

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever.

      With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal.

      Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

      Correct Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infections and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. It colonise the vaginal flora in 20% of non pregnant and 40% pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is most commonly idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: 10mg/kg

      Correct Answer: 7mg/kg

      Explanation:

      The maximum dose of lidocaine with adrenaline is 7mg/kg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous...

    Correct

    • You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      BV typically presents as an increase in vaginal discharge and vaginal malodour caused by a change in vaginal bacterial flora. PV discharge due to BV is typically grey fluid that adheres to the vaginal mucosa. BV is a polymicrobial infection. Gardnerella is the most commonly associated pathogen. Other associated bacteria include Lactobacillus species, Prevotella, Mobiluncus, Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, Fusobacterium, Veillonella, Eubacterium species, Mycoplasma hominis, Urea plasma urealyticum and Streptococcus viridans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does...

    Incorrect

    • With regard to the cell cycle. In which part of the cycle does DNA replication occur?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Correct Answer: Interphase

      Explanation:

      DNA replication occurs during S phase but that isn’t one of the options. Remember Interphase comprises G1,S and G2 phases!

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biochemistry
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the: ...

    Correct

    • After birth, all of the following vessels constrict, EXCEPT the:

      Your Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      Immediately after birth the liver is deprived of the large flow of blood supplied during foetal development via the umbilical vein and portal sinus. Simultaneously the blood pressure in the portal sinus, previously as high as in the umbilical vein, falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Placenta previa

      Explanation:

      Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following factors increase the risk of endometrial cancer except which one?

      Your Answer: PCOS

      Correct Answer: High Coffee Consumption

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for uterine carcinoma include obesity, diabetes, Nulliparity, late menopause, unopposed oestrogen therapy, tamoxifen therapy, HRT and a family history of ovarian or uterine carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?

      Your Answer: Atrial depolarisation

      Explanation:

      In an ECG the P wave represents atrial depolarization. The QRS complex represents the ventricular depolarization, T waves represent ventricular repolarization and the U wave represents repolarization of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Biophysics
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 24 year old who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old who is 32 weeks pregnant presents with a rash to the abdomen. Looking at the picture below what is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis Rosea

      Correct Answer: Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      This is Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy (PEP) also known as Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy (PUPPP). Papules and plaques form on the abdomen (commonly within striae). It is most common in women during their first pregnancy and typically occurs in the 3rd trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative...

    Correct

    • Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      E.coli is the most common cause of UTI. Other organisms include pseudomonas, proteus and klebsiella.

      NICE guidelines: UTI in pregnancy (updated in July 2015)

      Send urine for culture and sensitivity from all women in whom UTI is suspected before starting empirical antibiotics and 7 days after antibiotic treatment is completed.
      Prescribe an antibiotic to all women with suspected UTI (awaiting culture result is not advised)
      Although local antibiotic resistance needs to be taken into account the following is advised in terms of antibiotic selection:
      1. Nitrofurantoin 50 mg QDS (or 100 mg MR BD) for 7 days.
      2. Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily, for 7 days
      Give folic acid 5 mg OD if it is the 1st trimester
      Do not give trimethoprim if the woman is folate deficient, taking a folate antagonist, or has been treated with trimethoprim in the past year.
      3. Cefalexin 500 mg BD (or 250 mg 6qds) for 7 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding cardiac examination during pregnancy which of the following findings should be considered pathological

      Your Answer: Left axis deviation on ECG

      Correct Answer: Diastolic murmur

      Explanation:

      Diastolic murmurs should be considered pathological until proven otherwise. The following are common and typically benign findings in pregnancy: A third heart sound after mid-pregnancy. Systolic flow murmurs are common. Left axis deviation on ECG is common, Sagging ST segments and inversion or flattening of the T wave in lead III may also occur

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits you for a cervical cancer screening. You inform her that while Pap smears are no longer performed, Cervical Screening tests are done five times a year.

      She has a cervical screening test, which reveals that she has non-16/18 HPV and low-grade cytology alterations.

      What's would you do next?

      Your Answer: Repeat cervical screening test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referral to an oncologist is not necessary since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy. All other options are unacceptable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 32 year old patient develops painful ulcerated genital lesions and inguinal lymphadenopathy....

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old patient develops painful ulcerated genital lesions and inguinal lymphadenopathy. She is 32 weeks pregnant. You suspect genital herpes and send swabs. Which of the following is appropriate management according to the 2014 BASHH/RCOG guidelines?

      Your Answer: Give Acyclovir 400mg TDS orally for 5 days

      Correct Answer: Send bloods to check antibody status. If this supports this is a first episode genital HSV then patient should be advised to have C-section delivery

      Explanation:

      Although acyclovir should be given, this patient is in the 3rd trimester so the course should continue until delivery. Dose will be 400mg TDS unless disseminated disease. If this is a primary HSV infection (This should be confirmed by lesion swabs to confirm HSV infection and bloods to check no antibody response i.e. evidence previous infection) then C-section is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal distress commonly occurs when the head is in the occipito-posterior (OP) position during labour. Which of the following statements is the most probable explanation for this?

      Your Answer: Obstructed labour.

      Correct Answer: Incoordinate uterine action.

      Explanation:

      Incoordinate uterine action almost always results in fetal distress due to increased resting intrauterine pressure. All other statements can also cause fetal distress, however, these are not as common as incoordinate uterine action. Syntocin infusion for labour augmentation and administration of epidural anaesthetic for pain relief can also increase the risk of fetal distress.
      Cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring during labour is highly recommended in patients where the fetal head is found in the OP position. Moreover, it is mandatory when there is Syntocin infusion or epidural anaesthesia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix? ...

    Correct

    • What kind of epithelium lines the endocervix?

      Your Answer: Columnar

      Explanation:

      Its important to note the endo and ectocervix have 2 epithelial types. Where columnar and squamous epithelia meet is the transformation zone (or squamous-columnar junction, SCJ). This is relevant as it is the primary site for dysplasia and is where smears are taken from.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their...

    Incorrect

    • A couple in their mid-twenties has chosen the 'Rhythm Strategy' calculation as their contraception method, refraining from sexual activity when a pregnancy might otherwise be possible. They want to avoid having a child for the next two years. For the past twelve months, the lady has kept track of her cycles, which have ranged from 26 to 29 days in duration. Which of the following abstinence durations is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: From day 12 to day 19,

      Correct Answer: From day 6 to day 17,

      Explanation:

      To provide suitable advice to this couple, the candidate must be aware of the following facts:
      Because the luteal phase is 14 days long, regardless of the follicular phase length, ovulation happens 14 days before the period.
      As a result, ovulation in this lady might have occurred as early as day 12 or as late as day 15 of her cycle.
      In the presence of adequate and normal cervical mucus, sperm survival has been demonstrated to be far longer than previously thought, with intercourse occurring up to 6 days before the known period of ovulation, resulting in pregnancy.
      Intercourse should be stopped six days before the earliest ovulation in this woman (i.e. on day six).
      – It is generally accepted that the ovulated egg can be fertilised for approximately 24-36 hours.
      Intercourse should not be restarted for at least two days after the most recent ovulation.
      This would be day 17 for this woman.
      Between days 6 and 17 of the cycle, abstinence is required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - The broad ligament contains which of the following structures? ...

    Incorrect

    • The broad ligament contains which of the following structures?

      Your Answer: Ureters

      Correct Answer: Uterine artery

      Explanation:

      The contents of the broad ligament:
      Fallopian tubes
      Ovarian artery
      Uterine artery
      Ovarian ligament
      Round ligament of uterus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - What is the average lifespan of a basophil (white blood cell)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the average lifespan of a basophil (white blood cell)?

      Your Answer: 60 days

      Correct Answer: 3-4 days

      Explanation:

      Basophils are granulocytic white blood cells. They express IgE antibody on their surface and react to release prostaglandins and leukotrienes to mediate an inflammatory, allergic reaction.
      Blood Cell Lifespans:
      Red Blood Cells 120 days
      Platelets 5-9 days
      White blood cells 2-5 days

      Neutrophils (up to 5 days)
      Basophils (2 to 3 days)
      Eosinophils (2 to 5 days)
      Monocytes (1 to 5 days)
      Lymphocytes (variable)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:...

    Correct

    • The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:

      Your Answer: Chromosomal anomaly in 50-60% of gestations

      Explanation:

      Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of first trimester miscarriage and are detected in 50-85% of pregnancy tissue specimens after spontaneous miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid...

    Incorrect

    • During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Continue pills and use an additional form of contraception.

      Correct Answer: Continue pills as usual.

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.

      Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.

      Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.

      All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • Leydig cells contain receptors to which hormone?

      Your Answer: Testosterone

      Correct Answer: LH

      Explanation:

      The Leydig cells contain receptors to the luteinizing hormone which in turn is responsible for the production of testosterone. This circulates in the body predominantly bound to transport proteins and to a lesser extent to albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus...

    Correct

    • Several mechanisms have been proposed as to what causes closure of the Ductus Arteriosus (DA) at Parturition. Which of the following is the most important in maintaining the patency of the DA during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: PGE2

      Explanation:

      Prostaglandin E1 and E2 help maintain the patency of the DA during pregnancy. PGE2 is by far the most potent and important. It is produced in large quantities by the placenta and the DA itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?

      Your Answer: The foetus cannot metabolise the coumarin derivatives, so their effect on the foetus is increased.

      Correct Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.

      Explanation:

      Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
      Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
      Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
      The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage of gestation does maternal immunoglobulin G transfer to the foetus start?

      Your Answer: 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Transportation of the maternal IgG through the placenta starts around the 12 week of gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with complaints of fishy, thin, white homogeneous vaginal discharge accompanied with an offensive odour. The presence of clue cells was noted during a microscopic test on the discharge.

      All of the following statements are considered false regarding her condition, except:

      Your Answer: Metronidazole is contraindicated in this patient

      Correct Answer: Relapse rate > 50 percent within 3 months

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) affects women of reproductive age and can either be symptomatic or asymptomatic. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. Most commonly, this presents clinically with increased vaginal discharge that has a fish-like odour. The discharge itself is typically thin and either grey or white.

      Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection, women have an increased risk of acquiring other sexually transmitted infections (STI), and pregnant women have an increased risk of early delivery.

      Though effective treatment options do exist, metronidazole or clindamycin, these methods have proven not to be effective long term.

      BV recurrence rates are high, approximately 80% three months after effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy.

      Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.

      Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 106 - A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who recently got married presents to your clinic.

      She has a history of extremely irregular menstrual cycles with the duration varying between four and ten weeks.

      She had attended her routine review appointment one week prior to her current presentation.

      At that time she had stated that her last period had occurred six weeks previously.

      You had recommended the following tests for which the results are as shown below:

      Serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3 IU/L (<13)
      Serum luteinising hormone (LH): *850 IU/L (4-10 in follicular phase, 20-100 at mid-cycle)
      Serum prolactin (PRL): 475 mU/L (50-500)

      Which one of the following is the most probable reason for her amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

      Correct Answer: Early pregnancy.

      Explanation:

      All of the options provided could cause amenorrhoea and therefore need to be evaluated.

      The luteinising hormone (LH) level reported here is exceedingly elevated. A patient with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is unlikely to have such a raised level, but it could be because of a LH-producing adenoma. Such tumours are, however, extremely rare.

      Early pregnancy (correct answer) is the most likely cause of this woman’s elevated LH level. This would be due to the presence of beta human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) hormone that is produced during pregnancy.

      LH and beta-HCG both have similar beta-subunits and cross-reactions are commonly noted in LH assays.

      The serum prolactin (PRL) level is at the upper end of the normal range and this correlates to the levels observed in the early stages of pregnancy.

      The follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels remain low during early pregnancy.

      If her amenorrhea had been caused by stress from her recent marriage, the LH level would have been normal or low.

      If the cause was premature ovarian failure, the FSH level would have been significantly higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      66.1
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with...

    Incorrect

    • Examination of endometrial tissue obtained from a biopsy reveals simple columnar epithelium with no sub-nuclear vacuoles. The stroma is oedematous, & a tortuous gland contains secretions. These findings are consistent with which stage of the menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Late proliferative

      Correct Answer: Mid-secretory

      Explanation:

      During mid secretory phase, the endometrium cells undergo distension, become more tortuous and are lined by columnar cells.
      In the early proliferative phase, the glandular epithelium is cubo-columnar, while in the late proliferative phase, the glands increase in size, becoming tortuous and there is pseudostratification of the epithelium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false? ...

    Correct

    • Regarding uterine fibroids, which of the following statements is false?

      Your Answer: The risk of fibroids is increased by pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids are a common gynaecological condition found in many women above the age of 35. They are however uncommon before puberty. They are most common in black women vs white women, and its prevalence increases from puberty to menopause. Risk factors for fibroids include increasing age, obesity and infertility. Protective factors, on the other hand, include pregnancy, as the risk of fibroids decreases with increasing numbers of pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 109 - A 55 year old patient with a who has tried unsuccessful conservative measures...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old patient with a who has tried unsuccessful conservative measures for her overactive bladder, would like to consider Oxybutynin. She wants to know how common dry mouth is as a side effect, as her sister suffered from it on while on the same drug.

      Your Answer: approximately 5 in 100 patients

      Correct Answer: approximately 1 in 10 patients

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence can be divided into two main aetiologies, stress incontinence, or overactive bladder. Conservative management include lifestyle interventions, controlling fluid intake, or bladder exercises. If conservative management is no longer efficient, then medications may be indicated. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic drug used in the treatment of urinary incontinence. As with other anticholinergic drugs, side effects include dry mouth, dry eyes, blurry vision and constipation. About 1 in 10 patients taking Oxybutynin will experience some of these side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 110 - Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hormones is produced by the hypothalamus in response to breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Nipple stimulation during breastfeeding triggers the production of oxytocin from the hypothalamus and its subsequent release from the posterior pituitary gland. The hormone causes the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract causing milk to flow through the ducts.

      Ergometrine and Prostaglandin E2 are used during labour to control uterine bleeding after delivery, or ripen the cervix, while Atosiban is an oxytocin antagonist.

      Antidiuretic hormone is also released from the posterior pituitary, and acts on the kidneys to decrease fluid excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 111 - According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended...

    Incorrect

    • According to the UK food standards agency which of the following RDIs (recommended daily intake) is 3 times higher in pregnancy than the non-pregnant state?

      Your Answer: Iron

      Correct Answer: Folic Acid

      Explanation:

      Folic Acid should be increased in diet of a pregnant women. Deficiency will lead to neural tube defects i.e. spina bifida.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 112 - Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Large for gestational age

      Explanation:

      Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.

      Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
      – Hypocalcemia in newborn.
      – Development of Rickets later in life.
      – Defective tooth enamel.
      – Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
      – Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 113 - Which of the following causes of polyhydramnios is more common? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following causes of polyhydramnios is more common?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Maternal disorders, such as diabetes, in-utero infections, drug usage, placental abnormalities and fetal conditions as congenital and chromosomal abnormalities, Rh iso-immunization, and multiple gestations, are generally associated with polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities such as duodenal, oesophageal, or intestinal atresia of the foetus are the most common malformations that typically cause gastro-intestinal obstruction and interfere with fetal swallowing and/or absorption resulting with polyhydramnios. However, in about 70% of cases, none of the aforementioned aetiologies are causes of polyhydramnios, and it is referred to as idiopathic or isolated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 114 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
      What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 115 - In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • In normal physiological changes in pregnancy, all of the following are increased, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The heart adapts to the increased cardiac demand that occurs during pregnancy in many ways:
      Cardiac output increases throughout early pregnancy, and peaks in the third trimester, usually to 30-50% above baseline.
      Oestrogen mediates this rise in cardiac output by increasing the pre-load and stroke volume, mainly via a higher overall blood volume (which increases by 40–50%).
      The heart rate increases, but generally not above 100 beats/ minute.
      Total systematic vascular resistance decreases by 20% secondary to the vasodilatory effect of progesterone. Overall, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure drops 10–15 mm Hg in the first trimester and then returns to the baseline in the second half of pregnancy.
      All of these cardiovascular adaptations can lead to common complaints, such as palpitations, decreased exercise tolerance, and dizziness

      A pregnant woman may experience an increase in the size of the kidneys and ureter due to the increased blood volume and vasculature.
      Later in pregnancy, the woman might develop physiological hydronephrosis and hydroureteronephrosis, which are normal.
      There is an increase in glomerular filtration rate associated with an increase in creatinine clearance, protein, albumin excretion, and urinary glucose excretion.
      There is also an increase in sodium retention from the renal tube so oedema and water retention is a common sign in pregnant women

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 116 - WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as ...

    Incorrect

    • WHO defines the perinatal mortality rate as

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number of stillbirths and deaths in the first week of life per 1000 births

      Explanation:

      WHO defines perinatal death as the number of still births and death in the first week of life per 1000 births.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 117 - A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clomiphene

      Explanation:

      Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.

      Ovulation Disorders

      WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
      Management:
      Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
      Reduce exercise if high levels
      Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulation

      WHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
      Management:
      Weight reduction if BMI >30
      Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
      Metformin (1st line)
      Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
      Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
      Gonadotrophins (2nd line)

      WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
      Management:
      Consider IVF with donor eggs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 118 - What type of virus is the Rubella virus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of virus is the Rubella virus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Single stranded RNA (ssRNA)

      Explanation:

      Rubella virus is the only member of the genus Rubivirus and is a type of Togavirus (Togaviridae). It is a single stranded RNA virus. Note for the exam if you are unsure – most RNA viruses encountered in clinical practice are single stranded. The exception is rotavirus which is dsRNA virus. RNA viruses that use DNA during their replication are classed as retroviruses (HIV is an example)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 119 - A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old patient attends the maternity unit as her waters have broken but she hasn't had contractions. She is at 39+5 weeks gestation. Speculum examination confirms prelabour rupture of membranes (PROM). What is the risk of serious neonatal infection with PROM?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 100

      Explanation:

      In pregnancy, term refers to the gestational period from 37 to 41+6 weeks. Preterm births occur between 24 and 36+6 weeks. Only 1% of women who go into PROM have risk of having serious neonatal infections.

      Management of PROM:
      60% of patients with PROM will go into labour within 24 hrs
      Induction is appropriate if >34 weeks gestation and more than 24 hours post rupture when labour hasn’t started.
      If < 34 weeks, induction of labour should not be carried out unless there are additional obstetric indications e.g. infection

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 120 - Which of the following best describes Clomiphene? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes Clomiphene?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator

      Explanation:

      Clomiphene is a non-steroidal compound with tissue selective actions. It is used to induce ovulation in women who wish to become pregnant. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulators.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 121 - Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody? ...

    Incorrect

    • Rhesus D immunoglobin treatment utilises what class of antibody?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      It utilizes the IgG class of the antibody.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 122 - A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now.

      Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia.

      Explanation:

      There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.

      Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.

      Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 123 - A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A patient is being discharged following a termination of pregnancy at 14 weeks. She had been taking a combined oral contraceptive pill in the past but stopped taking this 6 months prior to falling pregnant as she wasn't in a serious relationship. When should she start again?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start immediately

      Explanation:

      Following an abortion or miscarriage, combined oral contraceptive pills should be started immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 124 - Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is associated with Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients present with primary amenorrhea. These ladies have non functional or streak ovaries and they cant conceive. Their genetic traits is 45X. They have a shielded chest, webbed neck and low height. These patients suffer from primary amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 125 - A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female who was on sodium valproate for epilepsy came for the advice about contraception. Which of the following is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can use COCP

      Explanation:

      There are no interactions between the combined oral contraceptive pill, progesterone-only pill, medroxyprogesterone injections or levonorgestrel implants and the AEDs valproic acid (sodium valproate), vigabatrin, lamotrigine, gabapentin, tiagabine, levetiracetam, zonisamide, ethosuximide and the benzodiazepines. So she can use COCP along with Sodium valproate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology