-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 32 year old patient with a 28 day menstrual cycle is offered a Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) at an infertility clinic.
At which point in her cycle should the HSG be performed?Your Answer: Days 1-5
Correct Answer: Days 6-12
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is a radiological test used to investigate infertility especially in patients with no history suggesting tubal blockages such as pelvic surgery or PID, in which case a laparoscopy and dye is better suited. For the procedure, a contrast dye is inserted through the cervix, flows through the uterus and the fallopian tubes and should spill into the peritoneum. Fluoroscopy provides dynamic images of these structures to determine if there are any abnormalities or blockages. HSG is best performed on day 6-12 in the cycle, after the cessation of menses, and before ovulation, to avoid X Ray exposure in case of an unknown early pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode.
What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?
Your Answer: Carcinoma of the endometrium.
Correct Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.
Explanation:It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.
In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
The number of chromosomes in the human somatic cell is:
Your Answer: 23
Correct Answer: 46
Explanation:In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes. Each species of eukaryote has a characteristic number of chromosomes in the nuclei of its cells. Human body cells (somatic cells) have 46 chromosomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Supraclavicular nodes
Correct Answer: Axillary nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old lady comes to your office complaining of unpredictable vaginal bleeding for the past four months since starting to take combined oral contraceptive tablets (Microgynon 30). She engages in sexual activity and uses condoms to prevent sexually transmitted illnesses.
Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?Your Answer: She should switch to progestogen-only pills
Correct Answer: She should switch to a new combined pill with ethinylestradiole 50mcg
Explanation:Evidence is not yet of sufficient quality for there to be evidence-based guidelines or recommendations. Having excluded other causes:
Reassure patients that breakthrough bleeding is a common side-effect of CHC and usually resolves after three cycles of use.
Advise women who smoke that stopping smoking may improve cycle control.
If bleeding persists after three cycles, consider changing formulation:
Increase dose of oestrogen, particularly if on a 20-microgram ethinylestradiol (EE) preparationAll other options are not acceptable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 29-year-old woman was admitted to the maternity unit of a hospital due to early labour. She is considered healthy and has experienced an uncomplicated pregnancy. She asked a question regarding fetal monitoring during labour and mentioned that she has heard about cardio tocography (CTG) being helpful for assessing the baby's wellbeing and in preventing fetal problems.
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give in counselling regarding the use of CTG as a predictor of fetal outcome and satisfactory labour compared with intermittent auscultation and whether CTG monitoring is able to reduce the risk of neonatal developmental abnormalities?Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG
Explanation:Continuous CTG produces a paper recording of the baby’s heart rate and the mother’s labour contractions. Although continuous CTG provides a written record, mothers cannot move freely during labour, change positions easily, or use a birthing pool to help with comfort and control during labour. It also means that some resources tend to be focused on the need to constantly interpret the CTG and not on the needs of a woman in labour.
Continuous CTG was associated with fewer fits for babies although there was no difference in cerebral palsy; both were rare events. However, continuous CTG was also associated with increased numbers of caesarean sections and instrumental births, both of which carry risks for mothers. Continuous CTG also makes moving and changing positions difficult in labour and women are unable to use a birthing pool. This can impact on women’s coping strategies. Women and their doctors need to discuss the woman’s individual needs and wishes about monitoring the baby’s wellbeing in labour.
Future research should focus on events that happen in pregnancy and labour that could be the cause of long term problems for the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following causes of polyhydramnios is more common?
Your Answer: Diabetes
Correct Answer: Idiopathic
Explanation:Maternal disorders, such as diabetes, in-utero infections, drug usage, placental abnormalities and fetal conditions as congenital and chromosomal abnormalities, Rh iso-immunization, and multiple gestations, are generally associated with polyhydramnios. Congenital abnormalities such as duodenal, oesophageal, or intestinal atresia of the foetus are the most common malformations that typically cause gastro-intestinal obstruction and interfere with fetal swallowing and/or absorption resulting with polyhydramnios. However, in about 70% of cases, none of the aforementioned aetiologies are causes of polyhydramnios, and it is referred to as idiopathic or isolated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests:
Luteinizing hormone levels are low.
Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone.
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low.
Prolactin-high.
What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?Your Answer: Surgical resection of pituitary tumour
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.
Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections.
Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry.
What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?Your Answer: Schedule cystoscopy.
Correct Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.
Explanation:Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.
Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.
The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
How many days after fertilisation does the blastocyst form?
Your Answer: 4 days
Correct Answer: 5 days
Explanation:Shortly after the Morula enters into the uterus, approximately on the 4th day after fertilization a fluid filled cystic cavity appears in the morula and transforms the morula into a blastocyst.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pills
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 32-year-old lady is two weeks postpartum and in good health. She has painful defecation that is accompanied by some new blood on the toilet paper. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?
Your Answer: Acute anal fissure.
Explanation:The history of acutely painful defecation associated with spotting of bright blood is very suggestive of an acute anal fissure. Typically, the patient reports severe pain during a bowel movement, with the pain lasting several minutes to hours afterward. The pain recurs with every bowel movement, and the patient commonly becomes afraid or unwilling to have a bowel movement, leading to a cycle of worsening constipation, harder stools, and more anal pain. Approximately 70% of patients note bright-red blood on the toilet paper or stool. Occasionally, a few drops may fall in the toilet bowl, but significant bleeding does not usually occur with an anal fissure.. After gently spreading the buttocks, a close check of the anal verge can typically confirm the diagnosis.
Rectal inspection is excruciatingly painful and opposed by sphincter spasm; however, if the fissure can be seen, it is not necessary to make the diagnosis at first.A perianal abscess, which presents as a sore indurated area lateral to the anus, or local trauma linked with anal intercourse or a foreign body, are two more painful anorectal disorders to rule out.
Anal fistulae do not appear in this way, but rather with perianal discharge, and the diagnosis is based on determining the external orifice of the fistula.
Although first-degree haemorrhoids bleed, they do not cause defecation to be unpleasant.
Although carcinoma of the anus or rectum can cause painful defecation, it would be exceptional in this situation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
Anna, a 39-year-old medical receptionist presents to your gynaecologic clinic for a refill of her Microgynin 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill). Her history is significant for smoking around 1 pack per day. Her BMI is 37.
What should be the next management step?Your Answer: Reassure her that Microgynin is still very safe
Correct Answer: Offer her progestogen-only contraceptive options
Explanation:This patient is above 35 and smokes more than 15 cigarettes per day, which is an absolute contraindication to using a combined oral contraceptive pill. A BMI of greater than 35 is a relative contraindication to the usage of the combined oral contraceptive pill.
Progestogen-only contraception, such as etonogestrel implant, levonorgestrel intrauterine device, and depot medroxyprogesterone, should be offered to her.
Without initially attempting lifestyle changes, a referral for weight loss surgery is not required. Also, nicotine replacement therapy may aid in quitting smoking, but it may take time. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
According to the NICE guidelines on intrapartum care a multiparous women with intact membranes should be offered amniotomy if there is inadequate progress of the active second stage of labour (in terms of rotation and/or descent of the presenting part) after how long?
Your Answer: 90 minutes
Correct Answer: 30 minutes
Explanation:Multiparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 30 minutes Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section Nulliparous women active 2nd stage labour: Suspect delay if progress inadequate after 1 hour Diagnose delay if progress inadequate after 2 hours If delay is suspected amniotomy should be offered if membranes are intact If delay diagnosed then preparations should be made for C-section
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman presents to your clinic with cyclical mastalgia. Physical examination reveals that her breasts are normal. She has a family history of her mom who developed breast cancer at the age of 45 years and subsequently died from metastases. She states that her patient's maternal grandmother also had breast cancer before the age of 50.
The patient is on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and no other medications. She is generally healthy overall. Recent mammography results are also normal. An ultrasound of the breasts shows an uncomplicated cyst with no concerning features in the right breast.
Apart from advice about the use of simple analgesics and evening primrose oil for her mastalgia, which one of the following is the most appropriate management in the patient's follow-up regimen?Your Answer: Cease the OCR, yearly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.
Correct Answer: Remain on the OCP, six-monthly clinical review, yearly mammography and ultrasound.
Explanation:This is a case of a woman who presented with cyclical breast pain that is on an OCP and with a family history of breast cancer. Those with a family history of breast cancer in more than one blood relative (parent, sibling, grandparent) have a significantly higher chance of developing breast cancer than women with no family history. Regular six-monthly clinical review and yearly mammographic screening, with or without ultrasound screening, should start at least five years before the age of the diagnosis in the blood relatives.
The consensus now is that any additional risk of breast cancer from the oestrogen in the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) is less than the risk of unwanted pregnancy when using alternative, and perhaps less effective, contraception. Thus, the patient would not be advised to stop the OCP.
With two blood relatives that developed breast cancer before the age of 50, this patient is in a high-risk group of developing breast cancer. Even so, 50% of such high-risk women will not develop a breast cancer in their lifetime. There are specialised familial cancer screening clinics are available for high-risk women where genetic testing can be discussed further. Women at high risk may electively have a bilateral subcutaneous mastectomy performed prophylactically which will bring the risk of breast cancer development to an irreducible minimum.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
How many seminiferous tubules would you typically expect to find in a testicular lobule?
Your Answer: 200
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:There are between 250 and 400 lobules in each testis. The lobule is a structural unit of the testis with each lobule contained in one of the intervals between fibrous septa which extend between the mediastinum testis and the tunica albuginea. Each lobule contains 1 to 3 seminiferous tubules.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:
Your Answer: Lie
Explanation:Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.
Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.
Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.
Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: Recommend a weight loss program
Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.
To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.
→ Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
→ Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
→ Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
→ At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 40 year old women who is 13 weeks pregnant is found to have be high risk for Downs following the combined screening test. What is the most appropriate further test to see if the foetus is affected?
Your Answer: Quadruple test
Correct Answer: Chorionic Villous Sampling
Explanation:Chorion villus sampling is an invasive procedure which aims to collect the rapidly dividing cells in the placenta. It is used for numerous reasons including detection of early pregnancy, viability of the foetus, singleton pregnancy, confirm gestation age and for prenatal diagnosis of the fetal chromosomal abnormalities including diagnosis of Down’s syndrome. However it hold a 2% chance of miscarriage during the procedure. Nuchal thickness and imaging are part of the combined test that must have been performed before.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant.
Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F).
Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?Your Answer: Ice packs and use of a supportive bra
Correct Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics
Explanation:Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.
The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.
The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding
The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.
Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which is an absolute contraindication to contraceptive pills containing only progesterone?
Your Answer: Migraine
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Progestogen-only methods are contraindicated in suspected pregnancy, breast cancer and undiagnosed vaginal bleeding. Giving DMPA to a woman with a severe bleeding disorder may result in a large haematoma at the injection site.
Women who want to become pregnant within 18 months or who are afraid of injections should be discouraged from using DMPA. Progestogen-only methods are unsuitable for women unwilling to accept menstrual changes.
Relative contraindications are active viral hepatitis and severe chronic liver disease. For all progestogen-only methods, with the possible exception of DMPA, drug interactions are likely with many anticonvulsants, rifampicin, spironolactone and griseofulvin. This may result in lowered efficacy.
Migraine, malabsorption syndrome, smoking and history of liver disease have not been identified as contraindications to mini pills.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old female is at her second trimester of pregnancy and she presented to the medical clinic to receive human papillomavirus vaccination.
Which of the following is considered the best step to do?Your Answer: Postpone vaccination until after breast feeding
Correct Answer: Postpone vaccination until after delivery
Explanation:Genital HPV is a common virus that is passed from one person to another through direct skin-to-skin contact during sexual activity. Most HPV types cause no symptoms and go away on their own, but some types can cause cervical cancer in women and other less common cancers — like cancers of the anus, penis, vagina, and vulva and oropharynx. Other types of HPV can cause warts in the genital areas of men and women, called genital warts.
HPV vaccination is recommended for 11 and 12 year-old girls. It is also recommended for girls and women age 13 through 26 years of age who have not yet been vaccinated or completed the vaccine series; HPV vaccine can also be given to girls beginning at age 9 years. CDC recommends 11 to 12 year olds get two doses of HPV vaccine to protect against cancers caused by HPV.
The vaccine is not recommended for pregnant women. Studies show that the HPV vaccine does not cause problems for babies born to women who were vaccinated while pregnant, but more research is still needed. A pregnant woman should not get any doses of the HPV vaccine until her pregnancy is completed.
Getting the HPV vaccine when pregnant is not a reason to consider ending a pregnancy. If a woman realizes that she got one or more shots of an HPV vaccine while pregnant, she should wait until after her pregnancy to finish any remaining HPV vaccine doses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home.
On examination, she is conscious and pale.
Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak.
Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible.
What will be the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.
Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 33 year old lady in her first trimester of pregnancy presented with loss of weight, abdominal pain and frequent episodes of vomiting. Her vital signs are normal. She has been given a cyclizine injection but without any significant improvement. The next step would be?
Your Answer: Terminate pregnancy
Correct Answer: IV steroids
Explanation:In hyperemesis gravidarum, IV corticosteroids can be given to reduce vomiting, if the patient is not responding to standard anti emetics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have her contraception method evaluated. The patient has had unpredictable bleeding for the past 8 months since receiving a subdermal progestin implant and begs that it be removed. She used to use combined oral contraceptives and would like to go back to it. The patient has primary hypertension, which she was diagnosed with last year and is effectively controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. She does not take any other medications or have any allergies. Her father and brother both suffer from type 2 diabetes. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs.
24 kg/m2 is her BMI. Blood pressure is 130/75 millimetres of mercury. Physical examinations are all normal. Which of the following is increased by using combination oral contraceptives?Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Worsening hypertension
Explanation:Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor. These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.
COCs do not increase the risk of developing breast and endometrial cancer, Type 2 DM or breast fibroadenoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
What is the normal maximum endometrial thickness on ultrasound assessment of a post menopausal uterus?
Your Answer: 24mm
Correct Answer: 4mm
Explanation:In post menopausal women the thickness of the endometrium should be 4mm or less or women on tamoxifen is should be less than 5mm. If it is more than this the patient should be worked up for endometrial carcinoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 26-year old woman, 36 weeks age of gestation, is admitted for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) of the right calf. She receives heparin treatment. Which of the following is true regarding the use of heparin rather than a coumarin derivative for anticoagulation?
Your Answer: Reversal of the anticoagulant effect of heparin in the mother can be achieved more quickly than that of coumarin, should labour occur.
Explanation:Heparin is a large-sized molecule and does not cross the placenta; it can provide anticoagulation in the mother, however, has no effect on the baby. Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant therapy during pregnancy.
Moreover, the anticoagulant effect of heparin can be rapidly reversed by protamine sulphate.
Warfarin, a coumarin derivative, takes much longer to be reversed compared to heparin. This can be given to the mother between 13 and 36 weeks of pregnancy, however, should be avoided in the first trimester due to its teratogenic effects.
The anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives on the baby also takes longer to be reversed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
In normal pregnancy, the value of β-hCG doubles every:
Your Answer: 8 days
Correct Answer: 2 days
Explanation:During early pregnancy, hCG can be detected in the maternal serum as early as 6 to 8 days after fertilization. hCG levels are dynamically increased and doubled every 48 h in most normal pregnancies, and this pattern is similar in both in vivo or in vitro (IVF) conceptions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
One week after the delivery of her baby at the 38th week of pregnancy, a 33-year-old woman developed deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has been on enoxaparin therapy for DVT. Upon discharge, there is a plan to start her on warfarin. When this was explained, the patient was reluctant to take warfarin since she thinks it might cause problems to the baby because she is planning to breastfeed.
Which of the following is considered correct regarding warfarin and breastfeeding?Your Answer: She should not breast feed her baby while she is on warfarin
Correct Answer: She should continue to breastfeed her baby while she is on warfarin
Explanation:No adverse reactions in breastfed infants have been reported from maternal warfarin use during lactation, even with a dose of 25 mg daily for 7 days. There is a consensus that maternal warfarin therapy during breastfeeding poses little risk to the breastfed infant.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
Regarding pelvic inflammatory disease, which of the following is the tubal factor infertility rate?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 12.50%
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a known risk factor in causing tubal infertility due to its role in tubal damage. The tubal infertility rate after one episode of PID is thought to be about 12.5%. After two episodes the risk increases to 25%, and 50% after three episodes. The usual causative agents are chlamydia and gonorrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
Chief role of the mid-cycle LH surge is:
Your Answer: Facilitates oocyte expulsion
Correct Answer: All are correct
Explanation:LH surge occurs around ovulation and it is this LH surge which results in completion of the 1st meiotic division and ovulation occurs. It enhances the production of androgens and also luteinizes the granulosa cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A 36 year old patient is seen in clinic for follow up of a vaginal biopsy which confirms cancer. What is the most common type?
Your Answer: Melanoma
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vaginal cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about her recent pap smear result. A low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion was discovered (LSIL). Her most recent pap smear, performed two years ago, came back normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Correct Answer: Repeat the pap smear in one year
Explanation:An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.
As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age.
For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:
– Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
– Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.Referring the patient to an oncologist is not acceptable since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy that has been made. All other options are unacceptable since Pap smear must be done in 12 months.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
The maternal blood volume in normal pregnancy:
Your Answer: Decreases up to 40%
Correct Answer: Increases up to 40%
Explanation:Changes in the cardiovascular system in pregnancy are profound and begin early in pregnancy, such that by eight weeks’ gestation, the cardiac output has already increased by 20%. The primary event is probably peripheral vasodilatation. This is mediated by endothelium-dependent factors, including nitric oxide synthesis, upregulated by oestradiol and possibly vasodilatory prostaglandins (PGI2). Peripheral vasodilation leads to a 25–30% fall in systemic vascular resistance, and to compensate for this, cardiac output increases by around 40% during pregnancy.Â
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
Regarding CTG (cardiotocography) analysis what is the normal range for variability?
Your Answer: 5-25 bpm
Explanation:Fetal hypoxia may cause absent, increased or decreased variability. Other causes of decreased variability include: normal fetal sleep-wake pattern, prematurity and following maternal administration of certain drugs including opioids.
Variability Range:
Normal – 5 bpm – 25bpm
Increased – >25 bpm
Decreased – <5 bpm
Absent – <2 bpm -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which of the following changes would you expect in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Increased TSH Decreased Total T3 and T4
Correct Answer: Decreased TSH Increased Total T3 and T4
Explanation:Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) has thyrotrophic activity owing to subunit homology with thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and maternal TSH production is suppressed during the first trimester of pregnancy, when hCG levels are highest. The TSH response to thyrotrophin-releasing hormone (TRH) is reduced during the first trimester but returns to normal after this. Thyroid binding globulin increases in the first 2 weeks of pregnancy and reaches a plateau by 20 weeks. This leads to increased production of total T3 (tri-iodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
What is the mode of action of Mefenamic acid?
Your Answer: Activates Antithrombin III
Correct Answer: Inhibits Prostaglandin Synthesis
Explanation:Mefenamic acids is a NSAID. It works by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis – It inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 hence reducing the process of inflammation. Activation of antithrombin III and inactivation of factor Xa is the primary mechanism of action of Heparin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG) is structurally similar to which of the following hormones?
Your Answer: Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Explanation:TSH, FSH, LH and HCG are all similar glycoproteins. These hormones consist of a common α-subunit and specific β-subunit. All are glycosylated, which determines their bioactivity and half-life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman who is at 38 weeks gestation presented to the emergency department due to complaints of not feeling fetal movements since yesterday. Upon investigations, fetal demise was confirmed. Induced delivery was done and she gave birth to a dead foetus.
Which of the following is least likely to reveal the cause of the fetal death?Your Answer: Kleihauer-Betki test
Correct Answer: Chromosomal analysis of the mother
Explanation:Stillbirth has many causes: intrapartum complications, hypertension, diabetes, infection, congenital and genetic abnormalities, placental dysfunction, and pregnancy continuing beyond forty weeks.
In 5% of normal-appearing stillborns, a chromosomal abnormality will be detectable. With an autopsy and a chromosomal study, up to 35% of stillborns are found to have a major structural pathology, and 8% have abnormal chromosomes. After a complete evaluation, term stillbirth remains unexplained about 30% of the time. The chance of finding a cause is impacted by the age of the foetus, the experience of the caregiver, and the thoroughness of the exam. Chromosome testing for aneuploidy should be offered for all stillbirths to confirm or to seek a cause of the stillbirth. Genetic amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling before delivery offers the highest yield.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 41
Correct
-
A 32 year old mother is in her first trimester of pregnancy with her second child. She is worried about infections in this pregnancy as her daughter was born with a 'blueberry muffin rash' and was soon found to have sensorineural deafness due to an infection. Which of the following infections is most likely?
Your Answer: Rubella
Explanation:Congenital infections can be the cause of various congenital abnormalities. Infection with the Rubella virus, part of the TORCH infections (toxoplasmosis, other organisms, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex), can lead to cardiac abnormalities, ophthalmic defects, sensorineural deafness and neurodevelopmental delays. At birth congenital rubella syndrome presents with a petechial rash characteristically dubbed a blueberry muffin rash, and hepatosplenomegaly with jaundice. Immunization of the mother against measles is an effective way of reducing the occurrence of congenital rubella syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements regarding prolactin is true?
Your Answer: Prolactin levels decrease shortly after sleep
Correct Answer: Prolactin levels increase during stress
Explanation:Causes of Hyperprolactinemia: Prolactinomas, Medication (phenothiazines, metoclopramide, risperidone, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, oestrogens, verapamil), Stress, Pregnancy, Hypothyroidism, Kidney disease, Chest trauma
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
The UK childhood vaccination schedule includes vaccination against HPV for girls aged 12 to 13. What HPV subtypes are vaccinated against with the vaccine Gardasil®?
Your Answer: 6 , 8 and 11
Correct Answer: 6, 11, 16, and 18
Explanation:HPV Gardasil® is a quadrivalent vaccine against HPV Types 6, 11, 16, and 18. HPV types16 and 18 are responsible for 70% of cases of HPV related cancers. They are considered the most important high risk genotypes of HPV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements is true regarding management of caesarean section?
Your Answer: Oxytocics shouldn't be routinely used in planned CS
Correct Answer: Uterine closure can be in 1 or 2 layers
Explanation:Closure of the uterus should be performed in either single or double layers with continuous or interrupted sutures. The initial suture should be placed just lateral to the incision angle, and the closure continued to a point just lateral to the angle on the opposite side. A running stitch is often employed and this may be locked to improve haemostasis. If a second layer is used, an inverting suture or horizontal suture should overlap the myometrium. Once repaired, the incision is assessed for haemostasis and ‘figure-of-eight’
sutures can be employed to control bleeding. Peritoneal closure is unnecessary. Abdominal closure is performed in the anatomical planes with high strength, low reactivity materials, such as polyglycolic acid or polyglactin. Diamorphine is advised for intra and post op analgesia and oxytocin is advised to reduce blood loss. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
Regarding the ECG, what does the P wave represent?
Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation
Correct Answer: Atrial depolarisation
Explanation:P wave = Atrial depolarisation
QRS complex = Ventricular depolarisation
T wave = Ventricular repolarisation
U wave = repolarisation of the interventricular septum -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
You are reviewing a patient who is complaining of pain and numbness to the proximal medial thigh following abdominal hysterectomy. You suspect genitofemoral nerve injury. What spinal segment(s) is the genitofemoral nerve derived from?
Your Answer: T12,L1
Correct Answer: L1,L2
Explanation:The genitofemoral nerves takes its origin from the L1 and L2 spinal segments.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 47
Correct
-
The femoral triangle is bounded superiorly by which of the following structures?
Your Answer: Inguinal ligament
Explanation:Boundaries of the Femoral Triangle:
Superior: Inguinal ligament
Medial: Medial border of the adductor longus
Lateral: Medial border of the sartorius
Floor: Pectineus, Adductor longus and Iliopsoas muscles
Roof: Fascia Lata -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
The transvaginal ultrasound of a 37 year old woman reveals a left ovarian mass. The mass is a unilocular cyst with diffuse homogenous ground glass echoes as a result of hemorrhagic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Germ cell tumour
Correct Answer: Endometrioma
Explanation:An endometrioma, also known as a chocolate cyst is a benign ovarian cyst that occurs as a result of the trapping of endometriosis tissue inside the ovary. The findings on transvaginal ultrasound are often a unilocular cyst, with ground glass echogenicity due to haemorrhage. Other benign masses that can be evaluated using transvaginal ultrasound are functional cysts, serous and mucinous cystadenomas and mature teratomas.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer: 40%
Explanation:90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Among the following situations which one is NOT considered a risk factor for isolated spontaneous abortions?
Your Answer: Uterine adhesions
Correct Answer: Retroverted uterus
Explanation:Most common risk factors for spontaneous abortion are considered to be:
– Age above 35 years.
– Smoking.
– High intake of caffeine.
– Uterine abnormalities like leiomyoma, adhesions.
– Viral infections.
– Thrombophilia.
– Chromosomal abnormalities.
Conditions like subclinical thyroid disorder, subclinical diabetes mellitus and retroverted uterus are not found to cause spontaneous abortions.
The term retroverted uterus is used to denote a uterus that is tilted backwards instead of forwards. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following dimensions relates to the greatest diameter of the fetal head?
Your Answer: Suboccipit bregmatic
Correct Answer: Occipitomental
Explanation:Occipitomental diameter is the greatest diameter of the fetal scalp and runs from chin to the prominent portion on the occiput. It measure about 12.5cm in diameter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: Most children with neonatal herpes present with mucocutaneous lesions.
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 53
Correct
-
A patient arrives on labour ward she is 38 weeks pregnant. Her last and only pregnancy ended with delivery via uncomplicated lower segment C-Section 3 years ago. Contractions are 6 minutes apart and on examination and the cervix is 6cm dilated. She wants to know the chances of a successful vaginal delivery if she proceeds with a vaginal delivery after C-section(VBAC). What is the chance of successful delivery with VBAC?
Your Answer: 75%
Explanation:There is 70% chance that a women who has had a C-section can deliver via spontaneous vaginal delivery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 54
Correct
-
Which one of the following measurements is usually taken during clinical exam of the pelvis?
Your Answer: Shape of the pubic arch
Explanation:During pelvimetry, the shape of the pubic arch is usually examined. It helps in determining the outcome of the type of fetal delivery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years.
All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:Your Answer: Higher perinatal mortality
Correct Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel
Explanation:Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old primigravida woman presented to the clinic for her first antenatal check-up. Upon interview, it was noted that she was taking folic acid along with some other nutritional supplements as medication.
All of the following are considered correct regarding neural tube defects and folate before and during pregnancy, except:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence of neural tube defects among non-indigenous population is almost double than that in Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander babies
Explanation:Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common complex congenital malformations resulting from failure of the neural tube closure during embryogenesis. It is established that folic acid supplementation decreases the prevalence of NTDs, which has led to national public health policies regarding folic acid.
Neural tube defects (NTD) were 43% more common in Indigenous than in non-Indigenous infants in Western Australia in the 1980s, and there has been a fall in NTD overall in Western Australia since promotion of folate and voluntary fortification of food has occurred.
Women should take 5 mg/d of folic acid for the 2 months before conception and during the first trimester.
Women planning pregnancy might be exposed to medications with known antifolate activities affecting different parts of the folic acid metabolic cascade. A relatively large number of epidemiologic studies have shown an increased risk of NTDs among babies exposed in early gestation to antiepileptic drugs (carbamazepine, valproate, barbiturates), sulphonamides, or methotrexate. Hence, whenever women use these medications, or have used them near conception, they should take 5 mg/d of folic acid until the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman from the countryside of Victoria comes to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after noticing a sudden gush of clear fluid from her vagina.
Speculum examination shows pooling of liquor in the posterior fornix and patient developed fever, tachycardia and chills 12 hours after this episode.
Apart from giving antibiotics, what will be your strategy in management of this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Induce labour now
Explanation:Above mentioned patient presented with symptoms of premature rupture of membranes (PROM) which refers to membrane rupture before the onset of uterine contractions.
A sudden gush of clear or pale yellow fluid from the vagina is the classic clinical presentation of premature rupture of membranes. Along with this the patient also developed signs of infection like fever, tachycardia and sweating which is suggestive of chorioamnionitis.
Vaginal examination is never performed in patients with premature rupture of membrane, instead a speculum examination is the usually preferred method which will show fluid in the posterior fornix.
The following are the steps in management of premature rupture of membrane:
– Admitting the patient to hospital.
– Take a vaginal
ervical smears.
– Measure and monitor both white cell count and C- reactive protein levels.
– Continue pregnancy if there is no evidence of infection or fetal distress.
– In presence of any signs of infection or if CTG showing fetal distress it is advisable to induce labour.
– Corticosteroids must be administered if delivery is prior to 34 weeks of gestation.
– Give antibiotics as prevention and for treatment of infection. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her ankle, once initial management of her current problem is done, you realize that she is 10 weeks pregnant.
On further questioning, she admits to heroin addiction and says that Doc, I sometimes need to get high on meth, but my favorite wings to fly are cocaine though, since I cannot afford it, I take a bit when I manage to crash a party. She also drinks a bottle of whisky every day. During the past few weeks, she started worrying about not being a good mother, and for this she is taking diazepam at night which she managed to get illegally.
Considering everything this patient revealed, which is most likely to cause fetal malformations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Woman in the given case is taking a full bottle of Whisky every day. As per standards, a small glass of Whisky (1.5 Oz) is equivalent of a standard drink and a bottle definitely exceeds 12 standard drinks. This makes her fetus at significant risk for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) which is associated with many congenital malformations. Low-set ears, midfacial hypoplasia, elongated philtrum, upturned nose and microcephaly along with skeletal and cardiac malformations are the congenital malformations commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.
Health risks of benzodiazepines during pregnancy has not been clearly established, but there are inconsistent reports of teratogenic effects associated with fetal exposure to benzodiazepines. Neonatal abstinence syndrome of delayed onset can be associated with regular use of benzodiazepine in pregnancy.
Use of Amphetamine in controlled doses during pregnancy is unlikely to pose a substantial teratogenic risk, but a range of obstetric complications such as reduced birth weight and many these outcomes which are not specific to amphetamines but influenced by use of other drug and lifestyle factors in addition to amphetamine are found commonly among women who use it during pregnancy. Exposure to amphetamines in utero may influence prenatal brain development, but the nature of this influence and its potential clinical significance are not well established.
3,4- methylenedioxymetham phetamine(MOMA), which is an amphetamine derivative and commonly known as ecstasy, have existing evidences suggesting that its use during first trimester poses a potential teratogenic risk. So it is strongly recommended to avoided the use of ecstasy during 2-8 weeks post conception or between weeks four to ten after last menstrual period as these are the considered periods of organogenesis.
Role of cocaine in congenital malformations is controversial as cases reported of malformations caused by cocaine are extremely rare. However, it may lead to fetal intracranial haemorrhage leading to a devastating outcome.
Opiate addictions carry a significant risk for several perinatal complications, but it has no proven association with congenital malformation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
The first stage of labour:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ends with fully dilation of the cervix
Explanation:First stage of the labour starts with the contractions of the uterus. With time, the no. of contractions, its duration and intensity increases. It ends once the cervix is fully dilated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-3 days
Explanation:Oxytocin can also stimulate after pains that occur 2-3 following delivery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of vaginal discharge. She has had malodorous vaginal discharge and small amounts of vaginal bleeding for about a week. Her mother called the patient’s primary care provider and instructed to stop giving bubble baths to the child, however, the symptoms have not improved. Aside from the discharge, the girl is normal, she was toilet trained at age 2 and has had no episodes of incontinence. She started kindergarten a month ago. Mother informed that patient has no fever, abdominal pain, or dysuria.Â
On examination, the labia appear normal but a purulent, malodorous vaginal discharge is noted. Visual inspection with the child in knee-chest position shows a whitish foreign body inside the vaginal introitus.Â
Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irrigate with warmed fluid after local anesthetic application
Explanation:Vaginal spotting, malodorous vaginal discharge and no signs of trauma like lacerations are the clinical features of vaginal foreign bodies in prepubertal girls. The most common object found as foreign body is toilet paper and its management includes warm irrigation and vaginoscopy under sedation/anesthesia.
Common cause of vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls are vaginal foreign bodies. Although other objects like small toys, hair bands, etc can be occasionally found, the most common vaginal foreign body is toilet paper. Symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge, intermittent vaginal bleeding or spotting and urinary symptoms like dysuria are caused due to the chronic irritation caused by the foreign body (the whitish foreign body in this case) on the vaginal tissue.
An external pelvic examination is performed with the girl in a knee-chest or frog-leg position in cases of suspected vaginal foreign body. An attempt at removal, after application of a topical anesthetic in the vaginal introitus, using vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or a swab can be done in case of an easily visualized small foreign body like toilet paper. In cases were the age of the girl or the type of foreign body prohibit adequate clinical evaluation the patient should be sedated or given a general anesthesia for examination using a vaginoscope and the foreign body should be removed.
In cases where child abuse or neglect is suspected Child Protective Services should be contacted. Vaginal or rectal foreign bodies can be the initial presentation of sexual abuse; however in otherwise asymptomatic girls with no behavioral changes, urinary symptoms and vulvar or anal trauma, presence of toilet paper is not of an immediately concerning for abuse.
To evaluate pelvic or ovarian masses CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis can be used; but it is not indicated in evaluation of a vaginal foreign body.
Patients in there prepubertal age have a narrow vaginal introitus and sensitive hymenal tissue due to low estrogen levels, so speculum examinations should not be performed in such patients as it can result in significant discomfort and trauma.
Topical estrogen can be used in the treatment of urethral prolapse, which is a cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls. This diagnosis is unlikely in this case as those with urethral prolapse will present with a beefy red protrusion at the urethra and not a material in the vagina.
Prepubertal girls with retained toilet paper as a vaginal foreign body will present with symptoms like malodorous vaginal discharge and vaginal spotting secondary to irritation. Initial management is topical anaesthetic application and removal of foreign body either by vaginal irrigation with warm fluid or removal with a swab.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
A couple present to the fertility clinic after failing to conceive despite trying for 2.5 years. The semen analysis shows azoospermia. You perform a full examination of the male partner which reveals Height 192cm, BMI 20.5, small testes and scant facial hair. You decide to organise karyotyping. What is the result likely to show?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome is associated with testicular atrophy, eunuchoid body shape, tall, long extremities, female hair distribution and gynaecomastia. It is a common cause of hypogonadism seen during fertility workup.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
Which structure reinforces the inguinal canal anterolaterally?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal oblique
Explanation:The anatomy of the inguinal canal is of surgical importance. In the male, the inguinal canal carries the spermatic cord, ilioinguinal nerve and important blood vessels, while in females the inguinal canal holds the round ligament, ilioinguinal nerve and blood vessels. The floor of the inguinal canal is made of the inguinal ligament (a thickened portion of the inguinal ligament), while the posterior wall is made of the transversalis muscle. The anterior wall is made of the external oblique aponeurosis, and the roof is made up of fibres of the internal oblique, transversus abdominis and its aponeurosis, and the conjoint tendon. This means that the anterolateral support structure of the inguinal canal would be the fibres of the internal oblique.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is suggestive of ovulation:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular cycle with dysmenorrhea
Explanation:Ovulation in the menstrual cycle usually occurs over 4 days. There is an increase in basal body temperature at the time of ovulation due to the effect of progesterone.
A high Day 21 progesterone level indicates ovulation and the release of an egg.
Dysmenorrhea is described as painful menstruation. The symptoms start at the time of ovulation and persist till menstruation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish.
What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer
Explanation:TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.
The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
Oestrogen have all of the following actions, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevention of thrombosis
Explanation:The properties of oestrogen:
Structure: Stimulates endometrial growth, maintenance of vessels and skin,
reduces bone resorption, increases bone formation, increases uterine growth
Protein synthesis: Increases hepatic synthesis of binding proteins
Coagulation: Increases circulating levels of factors II, VII, IX, X, antithrombin III and plasminogen; increases platelet adhesiveness
Lipid: Increases HDL and reduces LDL,increases triglycerides, reduces
ketone formation, increases fat deposition
Fluid balance: Salt and water retention
Gastrointestinal: Reduces bowel motility, increases cholesterol in bile -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
Regarding the diagnosis of Gestational Diabetes which of the following tests is recommended by the WHO for diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 75g OGTT with 2 hour glucose
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral 75g glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
You review a 58 year old patient in clinic. She asks what the results of her recent DEXA scan are. You note her hip BMD hip T-score is -1.4. You note she has a history of olecranon fracture 4 years ago. What is her classification according to WHO criteria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteopenia
Explanation:Her T-score puts her in the osteopenic range. The presence of fragility fractures is more important in the osteoporotic patient. Olecranon fracture is not a typical fragility fracture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
Which of the following best describes Clomiphene?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective Oestrogen Receptor Modulator
Explanation:Clomiphene is a non-steroidal compound with tissue selective actions. It is used to induce ovulation in women who wish to become pregnant. It is a selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
You are asked to assess a patients perineal tear following labour by vaginal delivery. You note a laceration that extends through the vaginal mucosa into the perineal muscle and fascia. The external anal sphincter appears to be in tact. How would you classify this tear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2nd
Explanation:If the external anal sphincter is in tact then this is a 1st or 2nd degree tear. As the perineal muscles are involved this is 2nd degree tear.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
All of the following features are associated with congenital uterine malformations except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy induced hypertension
Explanation:Congenital uterine abnormalities are associated with an increased risk of spontaneous abortions, preterm delivery of the foetus, fetal growth retardation and malpresentation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presented with nausea and vomiting along with headache during pregnancy. She also has a past medical history of a migraine.
What among the following will be the most appropriate management in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codein and promethazine
Explanation:This patient should be given promethazine and codeine as she presents with severe migraine.
Usage of metoclopramide is safe during pregnancy and for increasing effectiveness it can be added to paracetamol. However, because of its risk for causing extrapyramidal effects it should be used only as a second-line therapy and Promethazine should be considered as the first line choice of remedy. So the answer is Codeine and promethazine.
Opioid pain relievers such as codeine are not been reported of having any associated with increased birth defects or miscarriage, but its long-term use can lead to dependency in mother and withdrawal signs in the baby.
Paracetamol alone or combined with codeine is not found to be useful in controlling vomiting.
It is advised to completely avoid dihydroergotamine and the triptans throughout pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 31 year old is being seen in EPU and you are asked to review her ultrasound. There is a solid collection of echoes with numerous small (3-10 mm) anechoic spaces. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Molar Pregnancy
Explanation:Gestational trophoblastic disorder is characterized by an abnormal trophoblastic proliferation and include a complete and partial mole. It is characterized by persistently elevated BHCG levels after pregnancy and on ultrasound a snow storm appearance. These appear as anechoic areas on ultrasound.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness.
Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Free T4
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 29 year old woman is in her 32nd week of gestation and is diagnosed with placental abruption. This is her 3rd pregnancy and despite all effective measures taken, bleeding is still present. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotting factor problem
Explanation:Clotting factor problem. Some of the more common disorders of coagulation that occur during pregnancy are von Willebrand disease, common factor deficiencies, platelet disorders and as a result of anticoagulants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 15 year old girl is being investigated for primary amenorrhoea. She has normal FSH,LH and E2 levels on hormone profiling and normal secondary sexual characteristics. An ultrasound shows no uterus. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome
Explanation:Mullerian agenesis occurs in 1 in 5000 to 1 in 40000 girls. The Mullerian system does not develop which results in an absent uterus and upper vagina. This condition is also known as Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome, The ovarian function is normal and so the most common presentation is amenorrhea in the presence of an otherwise normal pubertal development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following is NOT a recognised risk factor
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High polyunsaturated fat intake
Explanation:Gestational diabetes (GDM) occurs in 2–9 per cent of all pregnancies. Screening for diabetes in pregnancy can be justify ed to diagnose previously unrecognized cases of pre-existing diabetes and to identify a group of women who are at risk of developing NIDDM later in life. No single screening test has been shown to be perfect in terms of high sensitivity and specific city for gestational diabetes. Urinary glucose is unreliable, and most screening tests now rely on blood glucose estimation, with an oral glucose tolerance test commonly used. The aim of glucose control is to keep fasting levels between 3.5 and 5.5 mmol/L and postprandial levels 7.1 mmol/L, with insulin treatment usually indicated outside these ranges. There are various risk factors for gestational diabetes including increasing age, ethnicity, previous still births etc.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
Which of the following describes the change from cervical columnar epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metaplasia
Explanation:Cells adapt to external stressors in a variety of ways. A cell can either undergo hypertrophy or hyperplasia to overcome the stress, or atrophy if unable to overcome the stress. Metaplasia occurs when fully differentiated cell lines transform into another fully differentiated cell type to adapt to a new external environment. The replacement of columnar epithelium of the cervix to a stratified squamous epithelium occurs in the squamocolumnar transformation zone in response to the exposure of an everted ectocervix to the acidic pH of the vagina at puberty and first pregnancy. Carcinoma in situ is thought to involve the immature metaplastic cells in this region.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
Congenital Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection effects how many pregnancies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 150
Explanation:CMV effects 1 in 200 pregnancies of which 30% will transmit the virus to the foetus and of which 30% foetus will be effected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 37-year-old female at her 33 weeks of gestation who sustains a road traffic accident at 90 km/hour, is taken to the emergency department.
On examination, she is found to be pale, with a heart rate of 112 bpm, blood pressure of 95/55 mm of Hg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute and her oxygen saturation in room air is 95%. Fetal heart rate is audible at 102 bpm and her uterus is tense and tender, she denied having any direct trauma to the abdomen.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this given case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:This patient presents with signs and symptoms similar to clinical features of placental abruption.
Any trauma during the last trimester of pregnancy could be dangerous to both mother and fetus. By force of deceleration, motor vehicle accidents can result in placental separation. Also when subjected to strong acceleration-deceleration forces such as those during a motor vehicle crash uterus is thought to slightly change its shape. Since the placenta is not elastic and amniotic fluid is not compressible, such uterine distortion caused due to acceleration-deceleration or direct trauma will result in abruptio placentae due to shear stress at the utero-placental interface.
A painful, tender uterus which is often contracting is characteristic of placental abruption and the condition will lead to maternal hypovolemic hypotension and consequent fetal distress which is presented as fetal bradycardia and repetitive late decelerations. Vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, contractions, uterine rigidity with tenderness, and a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing are the clinical features diagnostic of abruption. However, a significant abruption can occasionally be asymptomatic or associated with minimal maternal symptoms in the absence of vaginal bleeding. Therefore the amount of vaginal bleeding is not always an appropriate indicator to the severity of placental abruption, this is because, in cases bleeding could be very severe or it may be concealed in the form of a hematoma in between the uterine wall and the placenta.
Sharp or blunt abdominal trauma can lead to uterine rupture or penetrating injury, since there is no reported abdominal trauma to the patient, uterine rupture is less likely to happen in this case. Severe abdominal pain with tenderness, cessation of contractions and loss of uterine tone are the most common symptoms characteristic of Uterine rupture. It will also be associated with mild to moderate vaginal bleeding along with fetal bradycardia or loss of heart sound. In this case uterus will be less tense and tender in comparison to placental abruption
Symptoms like low blood pressure, tachycardia and fetal bradycardia can be justified by ruptured spleen and liver laceration, but not the tense, tender and contracting uterus.
The diagnosis of placenta previa cannot be considered with the given clinical picture as it presents with sudden, painless bleeding of bright red blood and there will not be any uterine tenderness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
Which of the following dugs is a strong inducer of cytochrome P450?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Antiepileptic, phenytoin more so than topiramate are inducers of cytochrome P450. They should not be given with COCPs. The metabolism of oestrogen and progestogen is increased by anti-epileptic drugs that induce cytochrome P450 leading to a loss of contraceptive effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
Regarding miscarriage rates, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In women over 45 years of age miscarriage rate approximately 75%
Explanation:With increasing maternal age, the risk of miscarriage increases. For women between the ages of 40-44, the miscarriage rates sit at about 50% and increases to over 75% for women 45 years and over. The miscarriage rate for women between the ages of 35-39 is 25%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 32 year old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic with yellow, frothy vaginal discharge and vaginal soreness. Trichomoniasis is confirmed after microscopy on a wet smear. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg TDS 7 days
Explanation:Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour.
For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy.
The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated, and screening for other STIs should be carried out.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH.
What is the most suitable advice for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization
Explanation:Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
What is the incidence of listeriosis in pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The incidence of listeria infection in pregnant women is estimated at 12 per 100 000 compared to 0.7 per 100 000 in the general population.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
A patient, in her third pregnancy with a history of two consecutive spontaneous abortions, presents at 12 weeks of gestation. She has had regular menstrual cycles, lasting 30 days in duration. Just prior to coming for her assessment, she reports passing a moderate amount of blood with clots per vaginally along with some intermittent lower abdominal pain. On examination, her cervical canal readily admitted one finger. Bimanual palpation found a uterus corresponding to the size of a pregnancy of 8 weeks’ duration.
Which is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal ultrasound.
Explanation:It is essential to notice the important details mentioned in the case scenario. These would be the details about her menstruation, a smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix. A smaller than expected uterine size could be caused by her passing out some tissue earlier or it could be due to the foetus having been dead for some time. The finding of an open cervix would be in line with the fact that she had passed out some fetal tissue or it could signify that she is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage (while all fetal tissue is still kept within her uterus).
The likely diagnoses that should be considered for this case would be miscarriage (threatened, incomplete, complete and missed), cervical insufficiency, and ectopic pregnancy. A smaller than dates uterus and an open cervix makes threatened abortion an unlikely diagnosis. Her clinical findings could be expected in both an incomplete abortion and a complete abortion.
In ectopic pregnancy, although there would be a smaller than dates uterus, the cervical os would usually be closed. Cervical insufficiency is probable due to an open os but the uterine size would be expected to correspond to her dates, making it also less likely than a miscarriage.Since she most likely has had a miscarriage (be it incomplete or complete), the next best step would be to do a per vaginal ultrasound scan which could show whether or not products of conception are still present within the uterine cavity. If present, it would be an incomplete miscarriage which would warrant a dilatation and curettage; if absent, it is a complete miscarriage so D&C would not be needed.
In view of her open cervix and 12 weeks of amenorrhea, there is no indication for a pregnancy test nor assessment of her beta-hCG levels. Cervical ligation would only be indicated if the underlying issue was cervical incompetence, which is not in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
In the 3rd trimester anaemia is defined by?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Anaemia in pregnancy is defined by the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) guidance: 1st trimester Hb < 110 g/l 2nd and 3rd trimester Hb < 105 g/l Postpartum Hb less than 100 g/l
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive.
Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion.
In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give anti-D now
Explanation:As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.
Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.All the other options are incorrect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
During pregnancy, maternal oestrogen levels increase markedly. Most of this oestrogen is produced by the:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Placenta
Explanation:The placenta does not have all the necessary enzymes to make oestrogens from cholesterol, or even progesterone. Human trophoblast lack 17-hydroxylase and therefore cannot convert C21-steroids to C19-steroids, the immediate precursors of oestrogen. To bypass this deficit, dehydroisoandrosterone sulphate (DHA) from the fetal adrenal is converted to estradiol-17ί by trophoblasts. In its key location as a way station between mother and foetus, placenta can use precursors from either mother or foetus to circumvent its own deficiencies in enzyme activities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following features best describes the role of prostaglandins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Are involved in the onset of labour
Explanation:Prostaglandins are involved in the uterine contraction and cervical dilatation during labour. Higher prostaglandin concentrations can also lead to severe menstrual cramps.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
Regarding pelvic Gonorrhoea infection in women. What percentage of cases are asymptomatic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted disease that is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea. It infects the mucous membrane of the genital tract epithelium in the endocervical and the urethral mucosa. Around 50% of the women are asymptomatic. However it presents as increase vaginal discharge, dysuria, proctitis and pelvic tenderness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to the medical clinic due to a vaginal discharge. Upon history taking, it was revealed that she had a history of preterm labour at 24 weeks of gestation during her last pregnancy. Upon examination, the presence of a clear fluid coming out of the vagina was noted.
Which of the following is considered to be the best in predicting pre-term labour?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical length of 15mm
Explanation:Preterm birth is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality not attributable to congenital anomalies or aneuploidy. It has been shown that a shortened cervix is a powerful indicator of preterm births in women with singleton and twin gestations – the shorter the cervical length, the higher the risk of spontaneous preterm birth. Ultrasound measurements of the cervix are a more accurate way of determining cervical length (CL) than using a digital method.
25 mm has been chosen as the ‘cut off’ at above which a cervix can be regarded as normal, and below which can be called short. A cervix that is less than 25 mm may be indicative of preterm birth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows:
Pulse: 76 beats/min
Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg
Temperature: 36.8°C
Fetal heart rate: 144/min
On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile.
Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.
Explanation:This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.
For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.
If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.
A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.
Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour room with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen was non-tender and os was closed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Threatened miscarriage is a term used to describe any abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs in first trimester, sometime associated with abdominal cramps. The cervix remains closed and the pregnancy may continue as normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
Lidocaine works by blocking which of the following ion channels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: fast voltage gated sodium channels
Explanation:It blocks the voltage gated sodium channels and reduce the influx of sodium ions preventing depolarization of the membrane and blocking the conduction of the action potential. The affinity of the receptor site in the sodium channels depends on whether it is resting, open or inactive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago.
Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.
Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid.
Further examination was done and her results were:
Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg
Pulse is 112/min
Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss
Explanation:Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
– baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
– baseline FHR variability moderate
– accelerations present or absent
– late or variable decelerations absent
– early decelerations present or absentThe onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old female presents with complaints of intermittent lower abdominal pain episodes that last for about three days each month.
These symptoms have been ongoing for the past 12 months.
She reports that pubertal breast changes started about four years ago, however she has not yet had her first period.
On examination of her abdomen there is no evidence of any suprapubic mass or tenderness when she is not in pain.
Blood tests indicate that she is ovulating.
From the following developmental abnormalities, identify the one that is most likely to be the cause of her abdominal pain.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis.
Explanation:The clinical evaluation indicates that the patient is ovulating but has not started menstruating. These observations suggest that the pain she is experiencing on a monthly basis could be related to ovulation or there could be an obstruction preventing the flow of menstrual blood from the uterus.
Uterine or vaginal anomalies that can obstruct menstrual flow include imperforate hymen, absent vagina, a transverse vaginal septum, or cervical obstruction.
If the cause was an obstruction to the flow, the retained menstrual products would have developed into a suprapubic mass (hematometra/ haematocolpos). However, no palpable mass was detected on abdominal examination.
Mullerian (paramesonephric) agenesis (correct answer) is the only condition that would result in no endometrial development; consequently there was no palpable mass observed and no menstrual loss that could be shed was present. A pelvic (lower abdominal) ultrasound examination can confirm the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following is true regarding routine prenatal screening ultrasonography before 24 weeks gestation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has not been proven to have any significant benefits
Explanation:Routine ultrasonography at around 18-22 weeks gestation has become the standard of care in many communities. Acceptance is based on many factors, including patient preference, medical-legal pressure, and the perceived benefit by physicians. However, rigorous testing has found little scientific benefit for, or harm from, routine screening ultrasonography.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She is not sexually active and her periods last between 32 and 35 days. Her most recent regular menstrual period began three weeks ago. A pelvic ultrasound was performed which shows a normal uterus, left ovary, and a thin unilocular cyst in the right ovary around 4 cm in size. The most likely cause of this ultrasound finding is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A follicular cyst.
Explanation:If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.
A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.
The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. In the United Kingdom, what is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy
Explanation:History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an increase in abdominal size. Ultrasound was performed and revealed a foetus in which parameters correspond to 32 weeks of gestation. Upon history taking, it was noted that she works in a pub and occasionally takes marijuana, cocaine, amphetamine and opioid.
Which of the following is considered to have the most teratogenic effect to the foetus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:All of the conditions that comprise fetal alcohol spectrum disorders stem from one common cause, which is prenatal exposure to alcohol. Alcohol is extremely teratogenic to a foetus. Its effects are wide-ranging and irreversible. Although higher amounts of prenatal alcohol exposure have been linked to increased incidence and severity of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, there are no studies that demonstrate a safe amount of alcohol that can be consumed during pregnancy. There is also no safe time during pregnancy in which alcohol can be consumed without risk to the foetus. Alcohol is teratogenic during all three trimesters. In summary, any amount of alcohol consumed at any point during pregnancy has the potential cause of irreversible damage that can lead to a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.
In general, diagnoses within fetal alcohol spectrum disorders have one or more of the following features: abnormal facies, central nervous system abnormalities, and growth retardation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
You see a patient in fertility clinic who you suspect has Klinefelters. What is the likely karyotype?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 47XXY
Explanation:Klinefelter syndrome occurs in 1:1000 individuals. They are phenotypically male and genotypically they have 47,XXY chromosomes. These individuals have small testes, are tall with disproportionate long lower limbs.40% will also have gynecomastia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
During wound healing the clotting cascade is activated. Which of the following activates the extrinsic pathway?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tissue Factor
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is activated by the tissue factor, which converts factor VII to VIIa which later on converts factors X and II to their activated form finally leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin fibres.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 108
Incorrect
-
Evidence from a panel of experts is what level of evidence
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV
Explanation:Level I: Evidence obtained from at least one properly designed randomized controlled trial. Level II-1: Evidence obtained from well-designed controlled trials without randomization. Level II-2: Evidence obtained from well-designed cohort or case-control analytic studies, preferably from more than one centre or research group. Level II-3: Evidence obtained from multiple time series designs with or without the intervention. Dramatic results in uncontrolled trials might also be regarded as this type of evidence. Level III: Opinions of respected authorities, based on clinical experience, descriptive studies, or reports of expert committees.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
A midwife is concerned regarding CTG changes and suggests a fetal blood sample (FBS). At what dilatation would you NOT perform FBS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Less than 3cm
Explanation:Fetal Blood Sampling (FBS) should only be performed when the cervix is >3cm dilated.
Indications for FBS:
1. Pathological CTG in labour
2. Suspected acidosis in labourContraindications to FBS
– Maternal infection e.g. HIV, HSV and Hepatitis
– Known fetal coagulopathy
– Prematurity (< 34 weeks gestation)
– Acute fetal compromiseInterpretation of FBS results:
pH >7.25 = Normal -Repeat in 1 hour if CTG remains abnormal
7.21 to 7.24 = Borderline – Repeat in 30 minutes
<7.20 = Abnormal - Consider delivery -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia. It is usually caused by a tumour of the parathyroid gland. Symptoms are related to increased calcium levels which can cause kidney stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric overtones and bones disease such as osteoporosis,osteomalacia and arthritis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
The vulva is mainly supplied by which one of the following vessels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pudendal artery
Explanation:Vulva is defined by the area which is located outside the female vagina and comprises of the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, mons pubis and Bartholin glands. It is supplied by the vestibula branch of pudental artery.
Inferior hemorrhoidal artery supplies the lower part of the rectum.
Femoral artery is the continuation of external iliac artery and supplies most of the leg. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 77 year old woman undergoes staging investigations for endometrial carcinoma. This shows invasion of the inguinal lymph nodes. What is this patients 5-year survival?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Lymph node involvement means that the carcinoma is stage 4. The 5 year survival of stage 4 endometrial carcinoma is 16%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 113
Incorrect
-
Regarding twin pregnancies all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Identical or monozygotic twins arise from fertilization of two ovum
Explanation:Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 114
Incorrect
-
A woman has undergone genetic testing due to her family history and has the BRCA 1 gene. What would you advise her lifetime risk of ovarian cancer is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:The most common hereditary cancer in the breast ovarian cancer syndrome accounts for 90% of the hereditary cancers. It is due to mutations in the BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 genes, most commonly the BRCA 1 gene accounting for 70% life time risk of breast cancer and 40% life time risk of ovarian cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
-
-
Question 115
Incorrect
-
You are asked to speak to a 27 year old patient who is pregnant for the first time. She is concerned as her friend recently gave birth and the baby was found to have profound hearing loss. Her friend was told this was due to an infection whilst she was pregnant. What is the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV is the most common congenital infection causing sensorineural deafness.
10-15% of infected infants will be symptomatic at birth. A further 10-15% who are asymptomatic at birth will develop symptoms later in life. Transmission can also be via breastmilk and the incubation period for CMV is 3-12 weeks. Diagnosis of fetal CMV infection is via amniocentesis however this should not be performed for at least 6 weeks after maternal infection and not until the 21st week of gestation -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
-
-
Question 116
Incorrect
-
Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic due to infertility. Upon interview, it was noted that she has been having unprotected intercourse with her husband regularly for the past year but has not become pregnant. She mentioned that her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Her menses occur every 28 to 30 days and they last 4 to 5 days. A day before her menses, she has episodes of severe lower abdominal pain that is only partially relieved by ibuprofen.
Further history taking was done and revealed that she was treated for gonococcal cervicitis at age 19. The patient also takes a prenatal vitamin every day and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her 31-year-old husband recently had semen analysis and his results were normal.
Further examination was done and the following are her results:
Blood pressure is 126/70mmHg
Pulse is 85/min
BMI is 31 kg/m2
Upon further examination and observation, it was revealed that she has a small uterus with a cervix that appears laterally displaced and there is accompanying pain upon cervical manipulation.
Which of the following is most likely considered the cause of the patient’s infertility?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecologic disease characterized by the development and presence of histological elements like endometrial glands and stroma in anatomical positions and organs outside of the uterine cavity. The main clinical manifestations of the disease are chronic pelvic pain and impaired fertility. The localization of endometriosis lesions can vary, with the most commonly involved focus of the disease the ovaries followed by the posterior broad ligament, the anterior cul-de-sac, the posterior cul-de-sac, and the uterosacral ligament.
The clinical presentation of the disease differs in women and may be unexpected not only in the presentation but also in the duration. Clinicians usually suspect and are more likely to diagnose the disease in females presenting with the typical symptomatology such as dyspareunia, namely painful sexual intercourse, pelvic pain during menstruation (dysmenorrhea), pain in the urination (dysuria), defecation (dyschezia), and/or infertility. The pain is usually characterized as chronic, cyclic, and progressive (exacerbating over time). Furthermore, some women suffering from endometriosis experience hyperalgesia, a phenomenon, when even with the application of a nonpainful stimulus, an intolerable painful reaction is released. This condition indicates neuropathic pain.
Tenderness on vaginal examination, palpable nodules in the posterior fornix, adnexal masses, and immobility of the uterus are diagnostically indicating findings of endometriosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 118
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
-
-
Question 119
Incorrect
-
According to the RCOG Green-top guidelines on prevention and management of post-partum haemorrhage (PPH) which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: For women delivering by caesarean section, Oxytocin 5 iu by slow IV injection should be used
Explanation:Misoprostol is not as effective as oxytocin but may be used if Oxytocin is not available e.g. home birth Recommended doses of Oxytocin For vaginal deliveries: 5 iu or 10 iu by intramuscular injection. For C-section: 5 iu by IV injection
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
-
-
Question 120
Incorrect
-
Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive
Explanation:Rhesus positive mothers should not get anti-D. They have Rhesus antigens and the anti-D would result in maternal blood being bound and removed from her circulation. The danger is to children born to mothers who are rhesus negative. As the mother may develop antibodies against Rhesus positive fetal blood. Therefore if the baby is Rhesus negative then there is no risk of alloimmunisation (sensitisation)
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
-
-
Question 121
Incorrect
-
You receive a swab result from a patient who had complained of odorous vaginal discharge. It confirms bacterial vaginosis (BV). Which pathogen is most commonly associated with BV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is characterised by a foul smelling vaginal discharge without inflammation. The most common spp to cause this is gardnerella vaginalis. Other spp include mycoplasma hominis and bacteroides. It occurs due to growth and increase in anaerobic spp with simultaneous reduction in lactobacilli in vaginal flora causing an increase in vaginal pH. It is the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in women of childbearing age.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)