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  • Question 1 - An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says...

    Correct

    • An 11-year-old boy was brought to the hospital by his mother, who says that occasionally he tilts his head towards his right shoulder. She also remarked that his left eye seemed to move up suddenly when he looked towards his nose. Which of the following extraocular muscles is most likely to be affected in this child?

      Your Answer: Superior oblique

      Explanation:

      From the given scenario, the extraocular muscle affected in the child is superior oblique muscle. Point to remember:All of the extraocular muscles are supplied by the oculomotor nerve (3rd cranial nerve), except superior oblique (trochlear nerve/4th cranial nerve) and lateral rectus (abducens nerve/6th cranial nerve).The superior oblique muscle causes the eye to move downwards and medially. The unopposed inferior oblique, in this case, causes the eye to deviate upwards and medially. Children tend to tilt their head (torticollis) to the side opposite to the affected eye with their chin down toward the shoulder, and their face turned away from the affected side to decrease the diplopia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old? ...

    Correct

    • Which of these developmental milestones would be advanced for a 3-year-old?

      Your Answer: Doing up buttons unaided

      Explanation:

      3-year-old milestones:Social and Emotional:- Copies adults and friends – Shows affection for friends without prompting – Takes turns in games – Shows concern for crying friend – Understands the idea of “mine” and “his” or “hers” – Shows a wide range of emotions – Separates easily from mom and dad – May get upset with major changes in routine- Dresses and undresses self Language/Communication- Follows instructions with 2 or 3 steps – Can name most familiar things – Understands words like “in,” “on,” and “under” – Says first name, age, and sex- Names a friend – Says words like “I,” “me,” “we,” and “you” and some plurals (cars, dogs, cats) – Talks well enough for strangers to understand most of the time – Carries on a conversation using 2 to 3 sentencesCognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)- Can work toys with buttons, levers, and moving parts – Plays make-believe with dolls, animals, and people – Does puzzles with 3 or 4 pieces – Understands what “two” means – Copies a circle with a pencil or crayon – Turns book pages one at a time – Builds towers of more than 6 blocks – Screws and unscrews jar lids or turns the door handleMovement/Physical Development- Climbs well – Runs easily – Pedals a tricycle (3-wheel bike) – Walks up and downstairs, one foot on each stepDoing up buttons is a skill more usually seen in 5-year-olds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever...

    Correct

    • A 4 year old girl is brought to the emergency due to fever and urinary urgency. The temperature is recorded to be 39C. Which of the following is the best investigation in this case?

      Your Answer: Clean catch of urine

      Explanation:

      Urine culture and sensitivity is used to diagnose a urinary tract infection (UTI). A mid-stream clean catch urine sample is the most common type of sample collected. It is important to follow the clean catch process to have accurate results from an uncontaminated sample. Urine cultures can also check for infections of the bladder or kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct for distal renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer: Most patients manifest this dysfunction as part of Fanconi’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Children can present with nephrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes Ca and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria, thus precipitating calcium compounds in the kidney. Other consequences of the dRTA in children include rickets, hypokalaemia, and polyuria. While dRTA can occur as a result of various pathologies including autoimmune disease, proximal renal tubular acidosis often presents as part of Fanconi’s syndrome. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA offering the child an acid load will decrease the urinary ph whereas in distal disease the pH will be unaffected due to impairment in hydrogen ion secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 4-year-old boy who is known to have Down's syndrome to the outpatient clinic as she is concerned about his vision. Which one of the following eye problems is least associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome are at increased risk for a variety of eye and vision disorders. Fortunately, many of these eye problems can be treated, especially if discovered at an early age. The quality of life can be further enhanced by the proper assessment and correction of eye problems. The most common eye findings include:- Refractive errors – Children with Down syndrome are more likely to need glasses than are other children. This may be due to myopia (near-sightedness), hyperopia (far-sightedness), and/or astigmatism. Refractive error may develop early in life or later on.- Strabismus – Between 20% and 60% of individuals with Down syndrome have eyes that are misaligned (strabismus). Esotropia (eyes that drift in) is most common while exotropia(eyes that drift out) occurs less frequently. Strabismus may be treated with glasses, patching and/or eye muscle surgery.- Keratoconus – A cone shaped distortion of the cornea (front layer of the eye), occurs in up to 30% of those with Down syndrome. Keratoconus is usually diagnosed around puberty and should be monitored regularly. Blurred vision, corneal thinning, or corneal haze may result from keratoconus. Keratoconus is worsened by eye rubbing| therefore, eye rubbing should be discouraged.- Cataracts – There is an increased incidence of congenital cataracts (present at birth) as well as acquired cataracts (develop later). Cataracts may progress slowly and should be monitored regularly, with surgical treatment performed when appropriate.- Glaucoma- There is an increased risk of infantile glaucoma (elevated pressure within the eye).- Blepharitis – Inflammation of the eyelids with redness at the edge of the lids and crusting around the lashes may occur and cause a feeling of dryness or burning. Treatment is with eyelid hygiene and topical antibiotics.- Tearing – Excessive tears or watering of the eyes may occur because the drainage channels are blocked or narrow (nasolacrimal duct obstruction). This may require surgical intervention.- Nystagmus – This is an involuntary “back-and-forth” movement or shaking of the eyes. It can affect vision to a mild or severe degree.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl was diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Gram staining of the spinal fluid shows numerous polymorphonuclear neutrophils and Gram-positive cocci. Which is the empiric drug of choice to be given to the patient until the antibiotic sensitivity report is available?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Methicillin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial meningitis (including meningococcal meningitis, Haemophilus influenzae meningitis, and staphylococcal meningitis) is a neurologic emergency that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality. Initiation of empiric antibacterial therapy is therefore essential for better outcomes. The patient appears to be suffering from meningitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Methicillin would be the drug of choice . It is bactericidal and unlike streptomycin and chloramphenicol it is not associated with toxicity

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy visited Ghana with his family and arrived back home 6 weeks ago. 2 days ago he developed neck stiffness, a fever, and vomiting. He did not present with a rash and was treated with malaria prophylaxis. Choose the correct diagnosis from the list of options.

      Your Answer: Cerebral malaria

      Explanation:

      Due to malaria’s incubation period being between 7 and 30 days, malaria prophylaxis cannot provide a patient with confirmed protection. Prophylaxis treatment also often fails. The symptoms such as neck stiffness, fever, and vomiting are also consistent with the cerebral malaria diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents...

    Correct

    • An 18-month-old boy of Asian descent and a product of non-consanguineous marriage presents to the clinic with a history of swelling of both wrists. He has been complaining of painful legs and his parents are concerned about his bandy legs. The child was breastfed until 6 months of age, with solids being introduced in the diet later. At 12 months of age the child suffered from a non-stick fracture of the radius after falling at the nursery. Which condition is the child most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D-deficient rickets

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of vitamin D-dependent rickets begin within months after birth, and most are the same for all types of the condition. The weak bones often cause bone pain and delayed growth and have a tendency to fracture. When affected children begin to walk, they may develop abnormally curved (bowed) legs because the bones are too weak to bear weight. Impaired bone development also results in widening of the metaphysis, especially in the knees, wrists, and ribs. Some people with vitamin D-dependent rickets have dental abnormalities such as thin tooth enamel and frequent cavities. Poor muscle tone (hypotonia) and muscle weakness are also common in this condition, and some affected individuals develop seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Where does Stensens duct primarily open? ...

    Correct

    • Where does Stensens duct primarily open?

      Your Answer: Opposite the second molar tooth

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct (Stensen’s duct), which provides an exit for the gland’s secretions, passes through the anterior edge of the gland in the superficial lobe, turns medially at the anterior border of the masseter, penetrates the buccinator, then enters the oral cavity lateral to the second maxillary molar.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with symptoms of diabetes mellitus and a borderline fasting blood glucose. Her HBA1c was found to be 31 mmol/mol (5.0%). What is the most probable co-existing condition that can lead to these unusual HBA1c levels?

      Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

      Explanation:

      HbA1c stands for glycated haemoglobin. In patients with haemolytic diseases associated with a shortened RBC survival, HbA1c levels can be unusually low despite controlled diabetes mellitus.These haemolytic diseases can include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency and sickle cell anaemia.HbA1c:It is a measure of non-enzymatic glycation which occurs due to haemoglobin’s exposure to plasma glucose. As plasma glucose increases so does HbA1c.The level of HbA1c quantitively assesses the control of diabetes mellitus over the last 120 days (as this is the life span of a red blood cell).Haemoglobin type A is separated on cation exchange chromatographyOther subsections include HbA1O, HbA1a, HbA1b.According to the updated NICE recommendations (2015):The target level of HbA1c in children with T1DM is 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. It is monitored every three months. Better control is associated with fewer long term complications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of neonatal circulation?

      Your Answer: The foramen ovale closes in the first 7 days of life

      Correct Answer: The foramen ovale closes at birth when the pressure in the left atrium is higher than the pressure in the right atrium

      Explanation:

      In the prenatal heart, right-to-left atrial shunting of blood through the foramen ovale is essential for proper circulation. After birth, as the pulmonary circulation is established, the foramen ovale functionally closes as a result of changes in the relative pressure of the two atrial chambers, ensuring the separation of oxygen-depleted venous blood in the right atrium from the oxygenated blood entering the left atrium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      43.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing...

    Correct

    • A new-born boy presents with choking on feeding. The midwife had difficulty passing an NG tube. A Chest /Abdominal X-ray is performed which shows an NG tube coiled at T3/4 and a gasless abdomen. Which of the following operations is likely to be required?

      Your Answer: Laparotomy and open gastrostomy

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal atresia refers to a congenitally interrupted oesophagus. One or more fistulae may be present between the malformed oesophagus and the trachea. The lack of oesophageal patency prevents swallowing. In addition to preventing normal feeding, this problem may cause infants to aspirate and literally drown in their own saliva, which quickly overflows the upper pouch of the obstructed oesophagus. If a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is present, fluid (either saliva from above or gastric secretions from below) may flow directly into the tracheobronchial tree.The complete absence of gas in the GI tract denotes the absence of a distal tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF)| however, distal fistulae simply occluded by mucous plugs have been rarely reported.If no distal TEF is present, a gastrostomy may be created. In such cases, the stomach is small, and laparotomy is required. In all cases of oesophageal atresia in which a gastrostomy is created, care should be taken to place it near the lesser curvature to avoid damaging the greater curvature, which can be used in the formation of an oesophageal substitute. When a baby is ventilated with high pressures, the gastrostomy may offer a route of decreased resistance, causing the ventilation gases to flow through the distal fistula and out the gastrostomy site. This condition may complicate the use of ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the: ...

    Correct

    • In the adult heart, the sinus venosus gives rise to the:

      Your Answer: Coronary sinus

      Explanation:

      The sinus venosus is a large quadrangular cavity which precedes the atrium on the venous side of the chordate heart. It exists distinctly only in the embryonic heart (where it is found between the two venae cavae)| however, the sinus venosus persists in the adult. In the adult, it is incorporated into the wall of the right atrium to form a smooth part called the sinus venarum, which is separated from the rest of the atrium by a ridge of fibres called the crista terminalis. The sinus venosus also forms the SA node and the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or...

    Incorrect

    • Renal tubular acidosis affects the reabsorption of bicarbonate in the proximal tubule or excretion of hydrogen ions from the distal tubule. Which of the following is a key difference in clinical presentation of these two types of renal tubular acidosis?

      Your Answer: There is failure to thrive

      Correct Answer: Renal stone formation

      Explanation:

      Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA) is characterised by a decreased hydrogen ion excretion from the alpha intercalated cells of the collecting duct of the distal nephron. The resultant acidosis causes calcium and phosphates to be released from bones to buffer the acidosis causing hypercalciuria. This precipitates calcium compounds in the kidney, predisposing it to renal stone formation. On the other hand, proximal renal tubular acidosis is characterised by an impairment in bicarbonate resorption. Both types lead to metabolic acidosis and electrolyte imbalances including potassium depletion. Children often present with failure to thrive. One way to differentiate between the two conditions is with an acid challenge test. In proximal RTA (type 2) administering an ammonium chloride load will decrease the urinary pH whereas in distal disease (type 1), the urine pH will not decrease below 5.3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      35.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old male complained of scrotal pain following a game of football. He couldn't recall any trauma to groin. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: USG of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      USG of the scrotum is important to exclude any abnormality with testicles, epididymis and scrotum. This presentation can be acute epididymo-orchitis or testicular torsion. USG of the scrotum will help to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genitourinary
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents with hyperkeratotic plaques on the extensor aspects of the skin and the scalp margin. A skin scraping KOH mount and fungal culture in Sabouraud Dextrose Agar from the skin and hair revealed no growth.What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Discoid eczema

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms is psoriasis. Psoriasis:Chronic plaque psoriasis is characterised by pinkish-red hyperkeratotic plaques, which occur mainly on extensor surfaces such as knees and elbows. The lower back, ears and scalp can also be involved. Koebner phenomenon: Psoriasis typically exhibits this phenomenon where new plaques of psoriasis occur particularly at sites of skin trauma. Diagnosis:Skin biopsy of psoriatic plaques reveals acanthosis and parakeratosis, reflecting increased skin turnover. Capillary dilatation within the dermis also occurs, surrounded by a mixed neutrophilic and lymphohistiocytic perivascular infiltrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full...

    Correct

    • A 5-day-old infant is admitted to the ward. She was born at full term by normal vaginal delivery weighing 3.48kg and has been breastfed since birth. She has now lost 11% of her birth weight and bilirubin is above the phototherapy line. On examination, her fontanelle is soft, CRT<2 seconds, she is active and alert. U&Es have been sent, and the sodium on a blood gas is 144. You have started phototherapy, but still, need to make a plan about fluids and feeding. Mother wants to continue breastfeeding but is also happy to introduce some formula milk. What is the MOST appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Offer NG or cup feeds alongside breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Excessive weight loss is generally indicative of suboptimal feeding, and infants with excessive weight loss are potentially dehydrated or at risk of dehydration.Jaundice associated with suboptimal breastfeeding– this is classically associated with weight loss >10% and a vicious cycle of sleepiness that in turn leads to further poor feeding. In the absence of clinical signs of dehydration, no evidence suggests that overhydration is helpful. If the infant is dehydrated, hydration should be given as clinically indicated. However, if the infant can tolerate oral feeding, oral hydration with a breast milk substitute is likely to be superior to intravenous hydration because it reduces enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin and helps wash bilirubin out of the bowel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      62.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?

      Your Answer: Blastocyst

      Explanation:

      Time- EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following changes can be seen on a blood film post-splenectomy?

      Your Answer: Target cells

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of a post-splenectomy/hyposplenism blood picture can be made reliably by identifying Howell Jolly bodies in routine Wright-Giemsa stained blood and target cells. These are round basophilic bodies in red blood cells that represent residual nuclear material from marrow nucleated red cell precursors that are usually culled out by the spleen.These do not occur in individuals with normally functioning splenic tissue and their presence indicates either 1) an asplenic state or 2) hypofunctioning splenic tissue as might be seen in a patient with late-stage sickle cell anaemia. Their presence in an individual with splenomegaly leads to a narrow differential diagnosis and their absence in a splenectomised individual indicates accessory splenic Heinz bodies and poikilocytosis typically increase in a splenectomised individual and care must be taken not to overdiagnose haemolysis in such an individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl with type-1 diabetes mellitus presents with vomiting and rapid breathing. A diagnosis of acute diabetic ketoacidosis was made.Which among the following statements is true about this condition?

      Your Answer: Boluses of insulin are recommended

      Explanation:

      Among the statements provided, boluses of insulin are given to treat diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA).The following methods are adopted for the treatment of DKA:- Fluids: Boluses of 10 ml/kg of normal saline. Stop at three boluses to avoid precipitating cerebral oedema. The remaining deficit has to be corrected over 48 hours. Strict input/output, U&E, and pH monitoring is necessary in such patients.- Insulin: Insulin infusion can be initiated at 0.05-0.1 unit/kg/hour. It is essential to monitor blood glucose closely, and the aim is to decrease by 2 mmol/hour.- Potassium: Initially, it will be high, but following insulin administration, the levels drop quickly as K+ enters cells with glucose, and thus, replacement is almost always necessary.- Acidosis: Bicarbonate is avoided unless pH is less than 7. Acidosis will get corrected with the correction of fluid and insulin deficits. The definitive treatment is directed towards correcting the underlying precipitants of DKA, e.g. sepsis, infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic...

    Correct

    • A baby is born to a mother who is known to have chronic hepatitis B. The mothers latest results are as follows:HBsAg PositiveHBeAg PositiveWhat is the most appropriate strategy for reducing the vertical transmission rate?

      Your Answer: Give the newborn hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      The Green Book guidelines report in an active infection (HBeAg+ and HBsAg+) to give the vaccine as well as immunoglobulin. If antibodies are present it is not active infection (anti-Hbe) and then in that case only the vaccine, and no immunoglobulin, would be given. The presence of HBeAg means a person is infectious and can transmit to other people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe...

    Correct

    • A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rh incompatibility

      Explanation:

      Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and...

    Correct

    • An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose...

    Correct

    • The positive likelihood ratio for a diagnostic test is 3. A patient, whose pre-test odds were 2 tests positiveThe following is most accurate:

      Your Answer: Their prior odds of having the disease are now 6

      Explanation:

      Before the test, the patient was likely to have the disease being tested for. Their pre test odds were 2, making them twice as likely to have the disease. After testing positive, their pretest odds of 2 and the likelihood ratio of 3 are multiplied to produce 6 as the post test odds. The patient is now 6 times as likely to have the disease after the test. Likelihood ratios above 10 or below 0.1 are strong evidence to rule in and rule out a diagnosis. The negative likelihood ratio is not known here, but does not subtract from the interpretation of the outcomes in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of infants born with meconium Ileus have cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: 60-90%

      Correct Answer: >90%

      Explanation:

      90% of patients with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis (CF). Indeed, in 10 – 15% of cases of CF, the patient presents with meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Correct

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new...

    Incorrect

    • A boy with Duchene muscular dystrophy and healthy parents is expecting a new brother. What are the chances that his brother develops the same disease after birth?

      Your Answer: 0.25

      Correct Answer: 0.5

      Explanation:

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an X-linked recessive pattern of inheritance. Since the first son is affected by the disease, it means that the mother is a carrier. The male children will inherit the Y chromosome from their father and the X chromosome from their mother, having 50% chances of inheriting the X chromosome with the affected gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Baby Jasmine is 3 months old. At this age she should be exhibiting...

    Correct

    • Baby Jasmine is 3 months old. At this age she should be exhibiting which of the following hearing and speech milestones?

      Your Answer: Crying when uncomfortable and annoyed

      Explanation:

      By the age of 3 months Jasmine should startle to loud noises, recognise her parents voices and turn to them when they are speaking, and should quiet down or smile at the sound of a familiar voice when crying. She should also cry when she is uncomfortable or irritated. By the time Jasmine is 9 months old she would begin to understand and respond to the word ‘no’ as well as other easy commands. She would be able vocalise and babble with repetitive sounds, and imitate adults’ playful sounds. She would be much less likely startled by loud noises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following scales is NOT used to measure the impact of eczema?

      Your Answer: Eczema Severity Questionnaire

      Explanation:

      Eczema is an immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the skin characterized by intense pruritis and scaly rashes over the body. The impact of the disease can be measured by using certain scales, which include the Dermatitis Family Impact (DFI) Questionnaire, infant’s Dermatitis Quality of Life Index, Patient-oriented Eczema Measure, and Children’s Dermatology Life Quality Index among many others. Eczema severity questionnaire is not a recognized scale to determine eczema impact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      5.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Child Development (2/2) 100%
Renal (1/1) 100%
Nephro-urology (0/2) 0%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Emergency Medicine (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (2/2) 100%
ENT (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology (2/2) 100%
Neonatology (1/2) 50%
Paediatric Surgery (1/2) 50%
Embryology (1/1) 100%
Genitourinary (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (2/2) 100%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
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