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  • Question 1 - Which enzyme facilitates the function of pancreatic lipase by increasing exposure of its...

    Correct

    • Which enzyme facilitates the function of pancreatic lipase by increasing exposure of its active site?

      Your Answer: Colipase

      Explanation:

      Colipase is a co enzyme that optimize the activity of lipase by facilitating the exposure of its active sites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describes the cardiac muscle?

      Your Answer: Striato-smooth and involuntary

      Correct Answer: Striated and involuntary

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle (heart muscle) is an involuntary, striated muscle that is found in the walls and histological foundation of the heart, specifically the myocardium. Cardiac muscle is one of three major types of muscle, the others being skeletal and smooth muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following is able to move across cell membranes by...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is able to move across cell membranes by passive diffusion?

      Your Answer: K+

      Correct Answer: CO2

      Explanation:

      The cell membrane is permeable to water molecules and a few other small, uncharged, molecules like oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2). Larger molecules like glucose or charged ions are unable to cross passively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection?

      Your Answer: Anaerobe

      Explanation:

      Clostridium is a genus of Gram-positive bacteria, which includes several significant human pathogens, including the causative agent of botulism and an important cause of diarrhoea, Clostridium difficile. They are obligate anaerobes capable of producing endospores. The normal, reproducing cells of Clostridium, called the vegetative form, are rod-shaped, which gives them their name, from the Greek κλωστήρ or spindle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action...

    Incorrect

    • Impulse conduction through the AV node is slow and depends on the action potential produced by which of the following.

      Your Answer: Non of the above

      Correct Answer: Calcium flux

      Explanation:

      The action potentials in the SA and AV nodes are largely due to Ca2+, with no contribution by Na+ influx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following correctly describes stages in the formation of CSF? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following correctly describes stages in the formation of CSF?

      Your Answer: Movement of water through aquaporins

      Correct Answer: All of the above

      Explanation:

      All the above are true for the formation of CSF

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which...

    Correct

    • The telomerase is capable of adding several more repeats of telomeres at which end of the guanosine rich region.

      Your Answer: 3rd end

      Explanation:

      Telomerase is a reverse transcriptase that uses the RNA template to synthesize DNA in the 5th-3rd direction resulting in extension of the 3rd end and then translocates it to the newly synthesized end. The GT rich strand is thus elongated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old diabetic male presents with a feeling of generally being unwell. He also has a history of atrial fibrillation and epilepsy. His main complaint is a blue tinge to his vision. Which one of his medications is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Blue tinge of vision/cyanopsia is caused due to the intake of sildenafil citrate.Sildenafil citrate (Viagra) is the first oral drug to be widely approved for the treatment of erectile dysfunction. It is a potent and selective inhibitor of type-V phosphodiesterase, the primary form of the enzyme found in human penile erectile tissue, thereby preventing the breakdown of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), the intracellular second messenger of nitric oxide.Uses:It is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction, idiopathic pulmonary hypertension, premature ejaculation, high altitude illness, penile rehabilitation after radical prostatectomy, angina pectoris, and lower urinary tract symptoms.Adverse effects:Mild headache, flushing, dyspepsia, cyanopsia, back pain, and myalgias – due to a high concentration of PDE11 enzyme in skeletal muscle, which shows significant cross-reactivity with the use of tadalafil.It can also cause hypotension, dizziness, and rhinitis.Note: Xanthopsia (yellow-green vision) may occur secondary to treatment with digoxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Pharmacology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old cardiac patient is comfortable at rest but heavy housework results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea. What New York Heart Association class best describes the severity of their disease?

      Your Answer: NYHA Class III

      Correct Answer: NYHA Class II

      Explanation:

      New York Heart Association functional classification:

      Class I: no limitation is experienced in any activities; there are no symptoms from ordinary activities.

      Class II: slight, mild limitation of activity; the patient is comfortable at rest or with mild exertion.

      Class III: marked limitation of any activity; the patient is comfortable only at rest.

      Class IV: any physical activity brings on discomfort and symptoms occur at rest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which protein in the HIV genome is responsible for binding to the host...

    Correct

    • Which protein in the HIV genome is responsible for binding to the host CD4 cells?

      Your Answer: gp120

      Explanation:

      HIV can infect a variety of immune cells such as CD4+ T cells, macrophages, and microglial cells. HIV-1 entry to macrophages and CD4+ T cells is mediated through interaction of the virion envelope glycoproteins (gp120) with the CD4 molecule on the target cells and also with chemokine coreceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The rate limiting pump in the HCL secretion is the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrogen potassium ATPase

      Explanation:

      The rate limiting pump in HCl secretion is the H+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding oxidative deamination of amino acids, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occurs in the kidney & liver

      Explanation:

      Oxidative deamination is a form of deamination that generates α-keto acids and other oxidized products from amine-containing compounds, and occurs largely in the liver and kidney. Oxidative deamination is an important step in the catabolism of amino acids, generating a more metabolizable form of the amino acid, and also generating ammonia as a toxic by-product. The addition of ubiquitin to a substrate protein is called ubiquitination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which intestinal cells play a major role in secretory immunity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which intestinal cells play a major role in secretory immunity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: M cells

      Explanation:

      M cells are specialized epithelial cells of the MALT or mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues. They transport antigens from the intestinal lumen to cells of the immune system, thereby initiating an immune response. T and B cells are lymphocytes found in blood. Mucous cells secrete mucous and can be considered as a part of innate immunity. Chief cells in the gastric mucosa secret pepsin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Where is the most erythropoietin produced? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the most erythropoietin produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kidneys

      Explanation:

      Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney in close association with peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule. It is also produced in perisinusoidal cells in the liver. While liver production predominates in the fetal and perinatal period, renal production is predominant during adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by: ...

    Incorrect

    • The posterior aspect of the interventricular septum is supplied by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A branch of the right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior aspect of the heart is supplied by the posterior interventricular artery which is a branch of the right coronary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which intercellular connections are responsible for fastening the cells to one another? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which intercellular connections are responsible for fastening the cells to one another?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemidesmosomes, zonula adherens & desmosomes

      Explanation:

      There are three major types of cell junction:Adherens junctions, desmosomes and hemidesmosomes (anchoring junctions),Gap junctions (communicating junction) &Tight junctions (occluding junctions)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What are the diagnostic criteria for an ST segment elevation type of acute...

    Incorrect

    • What are the diagnostic criteria for an ST segment elevation type of acute myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 mm ST elevation in 2 limb leads

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines for the ECG diagnosis of the ST segment elevation type of acute myocardial infarction require at least 1 mm (0.1 mV) of ST segment elevation in the limb leads, and at least 2 mm elevation in the precordial leads. These elevations must be present in anatomically contiguous leads. (I, aVL, V5, V6 correspond to the lateral wall; V3-V4 correspond to the anterior wall ; V1-V2 correspond to the septal wall; II, III, aVF correspond to the inferior wall.)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids,...

    Incorrect

    • Di and tri peptides are absorbed via a different mechanism as amino acids, this is due to the working of which transporter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PEPT 1

      Explanation:

      GLUT and SGLT are glucose transporters. Peptides which are longer that four amino acids are not absorbed. There is abundant absorption of di and tri peptidases in the small intestine. They are absorbed into the epithelial cells of the small intestine via a transporter called PepT1 by co-transport with H+ ions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time? ...

    Incorrect

    • How many molecules of myosin attach to actin at any given time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      1 molecule of myosin binds to actin at any give time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the urea cycle, which substance is formed in the mitochondria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamoyl phosphate

      Explanation:

      Before the urea cycle begins ammonia is converted to carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Metabolism
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Where does the SA node develop? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the SA node develop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: From structures on the right side of the embryo.

      Explanation:

      The SA node develops from the right side of the embryo and the AV node from the left. This is the reason why in adults the right vagus supplies the SA node and the left vagus supplies the AV node.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not true regarding mitochondrial chromosome disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Because mitochondrial chromosomes have no introns in their genes, any point mutation has a low likelihood of having an effect.

      Explanation:

      Any point mutation in any part of the mitochondrial DNA will lead to a mutated mitochondria and will likewise have its ill effect on the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are: ...

    Incorrect

    • The steps of cardiac cycle in sequence are:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.

      Explanation:

      The cardiac cycle refers to a complete heartbeat from its generation to the beginning of the next beat, and so includes the diastole, the systole, and the intervening pause.1st stage: diastole, or passive filling is when the semilunar valves (the pulmonary valve and the aortic valve) close, the atrioventricular (AV) valves (the mitral valve and the tricuspid valve) open, and the whole heart is relaxed. 2nd stage: atrial systole, is when the atrium contracts, and blood flows from atrium to the ventricle (active filling).3rd stage: isovolumic contraction is when the ventricles begin to contract, the AV and semilunar valves close, and there is no change in volume. 4th stage: ventricular ejection, is when the ventricles are contracting and emptying, and the semilunar valves are open. 5th stage: isovolumic relaxation time, pressure decreases, no blood enters the ventricles, the ventricles stop contracting and begin to relax, and the semilunar valves close due to the pressure of blood in the aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Normally the portal venous pressure is about: ...

    Incorrect

    • Normally the portal venous pressure is about:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10mmhg

      Explanation:

      Normal portal venous pressure is between 5-10 mmHg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Antibiotic resistance may happen by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antibiotic resistance may happen by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: By enzymes which inactivate the drug

      Explanation:

      The three main mechanisms of antibiotic resistance are, enzymatic degradation of antibacterial drugs, alteration of bacterial proteins that are antimicrobial targets, and changes in membrane permeability to antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The cavernous sinus is? ...

    Incorrect

    • The cavernous sinus is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral to the body of the sphenoid

      Explanation:

      It is a venous sinus which creates a cavity called the lateral sellar compartment bordered by the temporal bone and the sphenoid bone. There are 2 on either side. It is about 1cm wide and extends from the posterior aspect of the orbit to the petrous part of the temporal bone. They sit on either side or lateral to the sphenoid bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Concerning the sleep-wake cycle, Melatonin is secreted by which structure in the brain...

    Incorrect

    • Concerning the sleep-wake cycle, Melatonin is secreted by which structure in the brain following which environmental conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pineal gland, darkness

      Explanation:

      Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland located in the midline attached to the posterior roof of the third ventricle in the brain. Melatonin affects circadian rhythm in the body or the sleep wake cycle. The precursor to melatonin is serotonin and the rate limiting enzyme that converts serotonin to melatonin is low during the day time and reaches its peak during the night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where in the body would you find Kupffer cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver

      Explanation:

      Kupffer cells are hepatic macrophages. They are responsible for 80% of the phagocytic activity in the liver.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is troponin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is troponin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A component of thin filaments

      Explanation:

      Skeletal muscle cytoplasmic proteins include myosin and actin (also known as thick and thin filaments, respectively) which are arranged in a repeating unit called a sarcomere. Troponin is a component of thin filaments (along with tropomyosin), and is the protein to which calcium binds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal (1/1) 100%
Medicine (5/11) 45%
Cardiovascular (0/3) 0%
Cell Biology (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Passmed