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  • Question 1 - A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox. How should she be treated?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, can pose serious risks to pregnant women and their unborn babies. If a woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents with chickenpox, it is important to treat her promptly to reduce the risk of complications.

      Acyclovir is the recommended treatment for chickenpox in pregnant women. It is an antiviral medication that can help reduce the severity and duration of the illness. There is no documented evidence of harm to the fetus when acyclovir is used to treat chickenpox during pregnancy.

      Painkillers alone are not sufficient to treat chickenpox in a pregnant woman, as they do not address the underlying viral infection. Immediate delivery of the child is not necessary unless there are other complications present. Varicella zoster immune globulin should be given to the infant after birth, not the mother. Steroids can actually make the chickenpox infection worse, so they should be avoided in this situation.

      In conclusion, the correct treatment for a pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation with chickenpox is acyclovir. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider for proper management and monitoring of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will...

    Correct

    • A social worker has been diagnosed with hepatitis C infection. Which test will conclusively establish the presence of this infection?

      Your Answer: HCV RNA

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that affects the liver and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. In order to conclusively establish the presence of a Hepatitis C infection, various tests can be conducted.

      The HCV RNA test is the most sensitive test for detecting Hepatitis C infection, especially in the acute phase. This test looks for the genetic material of the Hepatitis C virus in the blood and can detect the virus as early as 1-2 weeks after infection.

      On the other hand, the Anti-HCV test looks for antibodies that the body produces in response to the Hepatitis C virus. However, it can take at least 6 weeks for these antibodies to develop and be detectable in the blood.

      Therefore, in the case of a social worker who has been diagnosed with Hepatitis C infection, the HCV RNA test would be the most conclusive test to establish the presence of the infection. This test can provide early and accurate detection of the virus, allowing for prompt treatment and management of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - How does the guideline propose handling the records of HIV-positive women and their...

    Correct

    • How does the guideline propose handling the records of HIV-positive women and their infants?

      Your Answer: Using specific documents such as the Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet

      Explanation:

      The guideline proposes using specific documents such as the Maternity Case Record for the mother and The Road to Health Booklet for the HIV-exposed infant because these documents are designed to capture all the necessary information related to the healthcare of HIV-positive women and their infants. These documents provide a structured format for recording important medical history, test results, treatment plans, and follow-up care. By using these specific documents, healthcare providers can ensure that all relevant information is documented accurately and consistently, which is essential for providing comprehensive and coordinated care to HIV-positive women and their infants. Additionally, using standardized documents like the Maternity Case Record and The Road to Health Booklet can facilitate communication and information sharing among healthcare providers, ultimately improving the quality of care for this vulnerable population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Herpes Simplex is which type of virus ...

    Correct

    • Herpes Simplex is which type of virus

      Your Answer: double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex is a type of virus that belongs to the family Herpesviridae and is characterized by its double stranded DNA structure. This virus is further classified into two types, HSV-1 and HSV-2. HSV-1 is responsible for the majority of orolabial infections, commonly known as cold sores, and is typically acquired through direct physical contact such as kissing. On the other hand, HSV-2 is primarily responsible for genital herpes, a sexually transmitted infection.

      The fact that herpes simplex is a double stranded DNA virus is important because it helps in understanding its replication process and potential treatment options. Knowing the type of virus can also aid in developing effective prevention strategies and vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the recommended treatment for early latent syphilis in adults? ...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended treatment for early latent syphilis in adults?

      Your Answer: Single dose of Benzathine penicillin G IM

      Explanation:

      Early latent syphilis is a stage of syphilis where the infection is present in the body but there are no visible symptoms. The recommended treatment for early latent syphilis in adults is a single dose of Benzathine penicillin G administered intramuscularly. This treatment is highly effective in curing the infection and preventing further complications. Other antibiotics such as doxycycline, amoxicillin, azithromycin, or ceftriaxone may be used as alternative treatments for patients who are allergic to penicillin. However, Benzathine penicillin G is the preferred treatment due to its high efficacy and convenience of a single dose. It is important for individuals with syphilis to seek treatment promptly to prevent the progression of the disease and reduce the risk of transmitting it to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which medication requires a dose adjustment when an HIV-positive individual is also receiving...

    Correct

    • Which medication requires a dose adjustment when an HIV-positive individual is also receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment?

      Your Answer: Dolutegravir (DTG)

      Explanation:

      When an HIV-positive individual is receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment, there is a potential for drug interactions with certain antiretroviral medications. Rifampicin is known to induce the metabolism of many drugs, including some antiretrovirals, which can lead to decreased levels of these medications in the body.

      In the case of Dolutegravir (DTG), which is a commonly used antiretroviral medication, the dose adjustment is necessary when co-administered with rifampicin. This is because rifampicin can significantly decrease the levels of DTG in the body, potentially reducing its effectiveness in controlling HIV.

      To counteract this interaction, the dose of DTG should be increased to 50 mg 12-hourly when a patient is on a DTG-containing regimen and receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment. This adjustment helps to maintain adequate levels of DTG in the body and ensure that the HIV treatment remains effective.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential drug interactions and make appropriate dose adjustments to ensure optimal treatment outcomes for HIV-positive individuals receiving rifampicin-containing TB treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What action is recommended if a client's viral load remains below 50 c/mL...

    Correct

    • What action is recommended if a client's viral load remains below 50 c/mL after three months of persistent low-grade viremia?

      Your Answer: Enhanced adherence support and monitoring

      Explanation:

      Persistent low-grade viremia refers to a situation where a client’s viral load remains detectable but below the threshold of 50 copies/mL despite being on antiretroviral therapy (ART). In this scenario, it is important to assess the client’s adherence to their medication regimen, as poor adherence is a common cause of low-grade viremia.

      The recommended action of providing enhanced adherence support and monitoring is based on the understanding that improving adherence can lead to better viral suppression. This may involve working closely with the client to address any barriers to adherence, providing education on the importance of taking medications as prescribed, and offering additional support such as pillboxes or reminder systems.

      Switching to a different regimen or conducting resistance testing may not be necessary if the client’s viral load is still below 50 c/mL, as long as adherence can be improved. It is important to continue monitoring the client’s viral load to ensure that it remains suppressed over time.

      Overall, the goal is to support the client in achieving optimal viral suppression and maintaining their health through consistent adherence to their ART regimen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      75.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old male presented with a fever and fatigue. On examination, he had...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male presented with a fever and fatigue. On examination, he had multiple lesions on his back and abdomen in various forms. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster

      Explanation:

      Varicella zoster, also known as chickenpox, is a viral infection that commonly affects children but can also occur in adults. It presents with symptoms such as fever, fatigue, and multiple lesions on the skin. These lesions typically start as red spots and progress to fluid-filled blisters before crusting over.

      Herpes zoster, on the other hand, is caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in individuals who have previously had chickenpox. It presents as a painful rash with fluid-filled blisters, typically in a single dermatome.

      Impetigo is a bacterial skin infection that presents with red sores or blisters that can burst and form a yellow crust. It is more common in children than adults.

      Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that causes red, scaly patches on the skin. It is not typically associated with fever or fatigue.

      In this case, the most probable diagnosis is varicella zoster, given the patient’s age, symptoms of fever and fatigue, and the presence of multiple lesions in various forms on the back and abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What action should be taken if a client presents symptoms of cough, night...

    Correct

    • What action should be taken if a client presents symptoms of cough, night sweats, fever, or recent weight loss during the TB symptom screen?

      Your Answer: Investigate for TB before initiating ART

      Explanation:

      When a client presents symptoms of cough, night sweats, fever, or recent weight loss during a TB symptom screen, it is important to investigate for TB before initiating ART (antiretroviral therapy). This is because TB can be a serious co-infection in individuals with HIV, and it is crucial to diagnose and treat TB before starting ART to prevent potential complications.

      Initiating ART without addressing TB first can lead to worsening of TB symptoms, drug interactions between TB and HIV medications, and potential immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). Therefore, it is recommended to conduct further testing, such as a TB GeneXpert test, to confirm the presence of TB before starting ART.

      By investigating for TB before initiating ART, healthcare providers can ensure that the client receives appropriate treatment for both HIV and TB, leading to better outcomes and improved overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Evaluation
      77
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are consulted by the healthcare team for advice on a patient who...

    Correct

    • You are consulted by the healthcare team for advice on a patient who is HIV positive and experiencing depression. What would be the most effective course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      The most effective course of treatment for a patient who is HIV positive and experiencing depression would be to prescribe Citalopram. Citalopram is the preferred first-line treatment for depression in patients with HIV because it has minimal impact on the cytochrome system and does not interfere with HIV medications. This is important because some antidepressants, like fluoxetine, can interact with HIV medications and cause complications.

      Other medications like TCAs (Amitriptyline, Lofepramine) are generally not well-tolerated in HIV patients due to severe side effects. MAOIs are also not recommended. While other medications such as mirtazapine, trazodone, reboxetine, and bupropion have been studied, they were limited by high rates of side effects.

      It is important to address mental health issues in patients with HIV as depression is common in this population and can have a significant impact on their quality of life. By prescribing the appropriate medication, like Citalopram, healthcare providers can help improve the mental health and overall well-being of patients living with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      19.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (4/4) 100%
Microbiology (3/3) 100%
Clinical Evaluation (3/3) 100%
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