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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient complaining of loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue has most likely suffered damage to which nerve?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) provides motor innervation to all of the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for the palatoglossus muscle, which is innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X). It runs superficial to the hyoglossus muscle. Lesions of the hypoglossal nerve cause deviation of the tongue to the ipsilateral (i.e., damaged) side.Taste to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is achieved through innervation from the chorda tympani nerve, a branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). General sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is by innervation from the lingual nerve, a branch of the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3). The lingual nerve is located deep and medial to the hyoglossus muscle and is associated with the submandibular ganglion.On the other hand, taste to the posterior one-third of the tongue is accomplished through innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which also provides general sensation to the posterior one-third of the tongue.Taste perception also is performed by both the epiglottis and the epiglottic region of the tongue, which receives taste and general sensation from innervation by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve (CN X). Damage to the vagus nerve (CN X) causes contralateral deviation (i.e., away from the injured side) of the uvula.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the given statements is correct regarding Klinefelter's syndrome?
Your Answer: The karyotype is 47, XYY
Correct Answer: Fertility is affected
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome is the most common sex chromosome linked disorder with a karyotype of 47XXY. The incidence of the disease is 1 in 500-1000 male births. Childhood presentation consists of unusual growth spurt along with learning difficulties and delayed speech. The adolescence is marked by abnormal sexual maturation leading to hypogonadism and sub-fertility in adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Where does the spinal cord terminate in neonates?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L3
Explanation:The spinal cord ends at L3 in the new-bornmigrates cephalad during childhood to end at L1 – L2 and reaches adult size by the age of 10.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 2-year and 10 months-old-girl presents to the outpatient clinic with delayed acquisition of speech and developmental delay. She babbles but does not speak any identifiable words. Her receptive language is relatively preserved but she is severely delayed in all developmental domains and is not yet walking. On examination, she is an excitable girl who laughs frequently and is keen to crawl around the room and engage in social interaction. Her eye contact is good. She makes flapping movements of the hands when she is excited. Her purposeful upper limb movements are rather ataxic. What is the most likely explanation for this child’s speech and language delay?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Angelman syndrome
Explanation:Angelman syndrome is a rare genetic and neurological disorder caused by deletion or abnormal expression of the UBE3A gene and characterized by severe developmental delay and learning disabilities| absence or near absence of speech| inability to coordinate voluntary movements (ataxia)| tremulousness with jerky movements of the arms and legs and a distinct behavioural pattern characterized by a happy disposition and unprovoked episodes of laughter and smiling. Although those with the syndrome may be unable to speak, many gradually learn to communicate through other means such as gesturing. In addition, children may have enough receptive language ability to understand simple forms of language communication. Additional symptoms may occur including seizures, sleep disorders and feeding difficulties. Some children with Angelman syndrome may have distinctive facial features but most facial features reflect the normal parental traits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Question 6
Incorrect
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We want to compare body mass index (BMI) values between children from several ethnic groups, taking into account differences in the age distributions of the groups.The appropriate analysis is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linear regression analysis with age and ethnicity as predictors
Explanation:Linear regression is a basic and commonly used type of predictive analysis. The overall idea of regression is to examine two things: (1) do a set of predictor variables do a good job in predicting an outcome (dependent) variable? (2) Which variables, in particular, are significant predictors of the outcome variable, and in what way do they–indicated by the magnitude and sign of the beta estimates–impact the outcome variable.These regression estimates are used to explain the relationship between one dependent variable and one or more independent variables. Three major uses for regression analysis are (1) determining the strength of predictors, (2) forecasting an effect, and (3) trend forecasting
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl has complained of pain in her left arm for 4 months. An X-ray reveals a mass along with erosion of the affected humerus. Histologically, the tumour is found to be formed by small, round, blue cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma
Explanation:Ewing’s sarcoma is formed by small, round, blue cells, and is common in children. The usually develop in limbs, and clinical findings include pain and inflammation, with lytic destruction showing up on X-rays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Oligohydramnios is characterized by which of the given clinical facts?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a higher incidence of chorioamnionitis
Explanation:An important predictor of the foetal well-being is the evaluation of amniotic fluid volumes, commonly done using ultrasonography. Amniotic fluid index (AFI) is calculated by measuring the largest vertical diameter of the fluid pocket in all four quadrants of the uterine cavity and then added together. Oligohydramnios or decreased amniotic fluid volume can be defined as an AFI less than 5cm and occurs in about 4-5% of the pregnancies. It is associated with a number of foetal abnormalities and complications. Foetal abnormalities that lead to oligohydramnios include premature rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital foetal abnormalities among others. A single umbilical artery is an anatomical defect of the umbilical cord, which leads to IUGR, uteroplacental insufficiency and may be associated with multiple congenital abnormalities as well, which all ultimately lead to the development of oligohydramnios. It also leads to multiple complications, out of which the incidence of chorioamnionitis is very high. Other complications include fetal growth retardation, limb contractures, GI atresia, and even fetal death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with poor development of secondary sex characteristics, colour blindness and a decreased sense of smell. On examination, his testes are small soft and located in the scrotum.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallmann’s syndrome
Explanation:Classic Kallmann syndrome (KS) is due to isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Most patients have gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) deficiency, as suggested by their response to pulsatile GnRH therapy. The hypothalamic-pituitary function is otherwise normal in most patients, and hypothalamic-pituitary imaging reveals no space-occupying lesions. By definition, either anosmia or severe hyposmia is present in patients with Kallmann syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which among the following is a type of acquired anterior pituitary disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Among the given options, pituitary adenoma is an acquired anterior pituitary disorder which represent between 10 and 25% of all intracranial neoplasms.Other options:- Agenesis of the corpus callosum is characterised by the partial or complete absence of the corpus callosum. This condition is associated with pituitary hormone deficiencies.- Congenital disorders such as hydrocephalus or arachnoid cysts may be a cause of precocious puberty.- Pituitary hypoplasia and septo-optic dysplasia are congenital disorders of the pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions does not typically display lesions of 20 cm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratosis pilaris
Explanation:Keratosis pilaris most often affects the outer aspect of both upper arms. It may also occur on the thighs, buttocks and sides of the cheeks, and less often on the forearms and upper back. The distribution is symmetrical.The scaly spots may appear skin coloured, red (keratosis pilaris rubra) or brown (hyperpigmented keratosis pilaris). They are not itchy or sore.Macules are flat, nonpalpable lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter.Examples include freckles, flat moles, tattoos, and port-wine stains, and the rashes of rickettsial infections, rubella, measles (can also have papules and plaques), and some allergic drug eruptions.Papules are elevated lesions usually < 10 mm in diameter that can be felt or palpated. Examples include nevi, warts, lichen planus, insect bites, seborrheic keratoses, actinic keratoses, some lesions of acne, and skin cancers. Plaques are palpable lesions > 10 mm in diameter that are elevated or depressed compared to the skin surface. Plaques may be flat topped or rounded. Lesions of psoriasis and granuloma annulare commonly form plaques.Nodules are firm papules or lesions that extend into the dermis or subcutaneous tissue. Examples include cysts, lipomas, and fibromas.Vesicles are small, clear, fluid-filled blisters < 10 mm in diameter. Vesicles are characteristic of herpes infections, acute allergic contact dermatitis, and some autoimmune blistering disorders (e.g., dermatitis herpetiformis).Bullae are clear fluid-filled blisters > 10 mm in diameter. These may be caused by burns, bites, irritant contact dermatitis or allergic contact dermatitis, and drug reactions. Classic autoimmune bullous diseases include pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid. Bullae also may occur in inherited disorders of skin fragility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Persistent hypoglycaemia in the new-borns is caused by which of the given choices?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medium chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency
Explanation:Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common yet serious condition characterized by blood sugar levels less than 2.2mmol/L during the first 3 days of life and less than 2.5mmol/L later on. There are multiple aetiologies and various risk factors that lead to hypoglycaemia in new-borns like prematurity, sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, and maternal diabetes- induced hyperinsulinism in the new-born. Among the inborn errors of metabolism, fatty acid oxidation defects can lead to persistent hypoglycaemia in new-borns. One such defect is the medium- chain acyl CoA dehydrogenase deficiency, which is the enzyme needed for the breakdown of medium- chain fatty acids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Basophil
Explanation:Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old male presented in the emergency room with sudden nosebleed that started 15 minutes ago. Which management step should be taken in such a case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Press soft parts of the nose
Explanation:With children nosebleeds often occur after nose picking and are benign in nature. For active bleeding, pressing of soft parts of the nose is required to stop the bleeding before doing anything else.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with suspected appendicitis. On examination, the maximum tenderness was at the McBurney's point. What is the surface landmark of McBurney's point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2/3rds laterally along the line between the umbilicus and the anterior superior iliac spine
Explanation:McBurney’s point is found 2/3rds of the way along an imaginary line that runs from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine on the right-hand side. On examination, features of generalised peritonitis can be observed if the appendix has perforated.Retrocecal appendicitis may have relatively fewer signs.Digital rectal examination may reveal boggy sensation if a pelvic abscess is present.Diagnosis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers coupled with compatible history, and examination findings.Ultrasound is useful in females where pelvic organ pathology can be a close differential diagnosis. Although it is not always possible to visualise the appendix on ultrasound, the presence of free fluid (always pathological in males) should raise suspicion. Ultrasound examination can also show evidence of luminal obstruction and thickening of the appendix.Management: Definitive management of appendicitis and appendicular perforation is appendicectomy which can be performed via either an open or laparoscopic approach.Simultaneous administration of metronidazole reduces wound infection rates. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage. Patients without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 5 month old girl was admitted to the emergency department with reduced movement of her right arm. History reveals she was born at term, 4.5 kg and via natural delivery. Her mother reports her head was stuck for a while before she was fully delivered. Postnatal examination revealed reduced movement of her right arm as well but was thought to improve over time. The baby cannot sit and her right arm is flaccid, internally rotated, adducted, and extended. The reflexes are absent in the right arm. Which of the following investigations would provide the most useful information?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MRI scan
Explanation:The vignette describes an infant with a sustained post-delivery brachial plexus injury that does not improve with time. MRI is the most appropriate intervention to assess the injury and evaluate the treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Erythema multiforme is NOT associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammation of fat cells under the skin
Explanation:Erythema multiforme is a skin rash characterized by the eruption of macules, papules, and target-like lesions. The target or iris lesions appear rounded with a red centre surrounded by a pale ring, which in turn is surrounded by a dark red outer ring. These are acute and self-limiting, mostly appearing on the distal extremities along with palmoplantar involvement. The disease affects the mucous membrane and orbits as well. The most common infectious cause is herpes simplex virus 1 and 2 to a lesser extent. Inflammation of the adipocytes underlying the skin is referred to as erythema nodosum, and it is not a feature of EM.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laxatives
Explanation:Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old female presents to the dermatologist with a pigmented lesion on her back. A melanoma is suspected. What would be the most appropriate initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of the lesion
Explanation:Melanoma, a highly malignant tumour arising from melanocytes, is the most common life-threatening dermatological disease. Risk factors include UV radiation exposure, particularly in light-skinned individuals that are easily sunburned, increasing age, family history, and immunosuppression. Lesions that are suspicious for melanoma should be excised with complete margins. Radical excision is not routinely undertaken for diagnostic purposes and therefore if subsequent histopathological assessment determines that the lesion is a melanoma a re-excision of margins may be required.Margins of excision-Related to Breslow thicknessLesions 0-1mm thick – 1cmLesions 1-2mm thick – 1- 2cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions 2-4mm thick – 2-3 cm (Depending upon site and pathological features)Lesions >4 mm thick – 3cm
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A Blood group A-ve mother gives birth to a baby who develops severe jaundice within the first 24 hours of delivery. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rh incompatibility
Explanation:Jaundice is considered pathologic if it presents within the first 24 hours after birth. Although up to 60 percent of term new-borns have clinical jaundice in the first week of life, few have significant underlying disease.1,2 However, hyperbilirubinemia in the new-born period can be associated with severe illnesses such as haemolytic disease, metabolic and endocrine disorders, anatomic abnormalities of the liver, and infections. The risk factors here is the mothers blood ground which suggests the cause is fetal-maternal blood group incompatibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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