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Question 1
Correct
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A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in his left ear. Which of the following can be considered as the most appropriate method to remove the insect?
Your Answer: Syringe the ear with warm water
Explanation:Removal of foreign bodies from the ear is indicated whenever a well-visualized foreign body is identified in the external auditory canal. Insects are better extracted with suction than with forceps or hooks. From the given answers, irrigation with warm water is the most suitable answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following is the gold standard laboratory investigation for diagnosing central precocious puberty?
Your Answer: GnRH stimulation test
Explanation:Precocious puberty is the attainment of normal pubertal biochemical and physical features at an abnormally early age. The age cut-offs commonly used to define precocious puberty are 8 years for females and 9 years for males. Precocious puberty may be central (true) or peripheral (false) based on the aetiology. Central precocious puberty is due to the premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, which in turn leads to the development of secondary sexual characteristics at an earlier than usual age. The best laboratory investigation to diagnose central precocious puberty is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulation test, which is regarded as the gold standard. It requires the collection of multiple blood samples at different time points to measure FSH and LH levels. If the LH levels increase to >8IU/L after stimulation with GnRH, then the diagnosis of central precocious puberty is confirmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Primary amenorrhea is caused by all of the following EXCEPT?
Your Answer: Testicular feminisation
Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Explanation:Primary amenorrhea is defined as the total absence of menarche in a girl of 14 years of age if the secondary sexual characteristics are also absent or in a girl of 16 years of age in whom normal secondary sexual characteristics are present. There are multiple causes of primary amenorrhea, but the most common are constitutional delay, imperforate hymen, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, hypothalamic failure, and testicular feminization. Cushing’s syndrome leads to secondary amenorrhea, which is defined as the absence of a menstrual period for 6 consecutive cycles in a girl who has achieved menarche.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the cause for tinea incognito?
Your Answer: Inappropriate treatment with antifungal cream
Correct Answer: Inappropriate treatment with steroid cream
Explanation:“Tinea incognito” is a term used to describe a tinea infection modified by topical steroids. It is caused by prolonged use of topical steroids, sometimes prescribed as a result of incorrect diagnosis. Topical steroids suppress the local immune response and allow the fungus to grow easily. As a result, the fungal infection may take on the bizarre appearance seen in this patient.The diagnosis of tinea incognito is simple to confirm by microscopic visualization of branching hyphae and spores typical of dermatophytes in a potassium hydroxide preparation.Treatment of tinea incognito requires cessation of all topical steroid use and implementation of specific antifungal treatment. A low-potency corticosteroid may be used briefly to avoid the flare often associated with abrupt cessation of a potent steroid. Patients should be warned of this possibility so they do not reinstitute use of topical steroids on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Normal male puberty is characterized by which of the following features?
Your Answer: Testicular volume increases to 4mL in Tanner stage 4
Correct Answer: Thinning and reddening of scrotal skin is typical of Tanner stage 2
Explanation:Puberty is a period of transitioning into adulthood by developing full reproductive potential by undergoing drastic physiological and psychological changes. For boys, it occurs around 9-16 years of age typically. The process of pubertal changes is usually divided into stages called tanner’s stages. The physiologic changes of puberty are initiated by the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormones from the hypothalamus, which then interact with numerous endogenous and environmental stimuli to bring about the physical pubertal features. Tanner stage 2 in boys is characterized by the thinning and reddening of the scrotal skin.The growth spurt of around 9cm per year is expected in boys, at the peak velocity.Testicular enlargement of >3cm commences puberty.Pubarche, in the absence of other secondary sexual characteristics, is pathological.Adrenarche is the increase in the secretion of adrenal androgens, occurring prior to increased gonadotropin release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which organs amongst these are the derivatives of the endoderm?
Your Answer: Gonads
Correct Answer: Epithelial part of the tympanic cavity
Explanation:Endoderm derivatives include the epithelium of the following: gastrointestinal tract and its glands, glandular cells of the liver and pancreases, urachus and urinary bladder, pharynx, trachea and alveoli, part of the tonsils, thyroid and parathyroid, tympanic cavity and thymus and part of the anterior pituitary gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The parents of a 5 year old child with cystic fibrosis present at the clinic with concerns over having another child. Neither of them have cystic fibrosis, and they would like to know what the chances are of their next child being a carrier of the cystic fibrosis gene. What is the probability of this occurring?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder that affects the lungs or the pancreas. In the case of an affected child whose parents do not have the disorder but carry one copy of the mutated gene, each sibling has a 50% chance of being a carrier of the disease. They can inherit one copy of the gene from each parent. There is a 25 % chance that the child may inherit both mutated genes and be homozygous for the trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6 year old child is admitted with generalised oedema, albuminuria, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidaemia. The renal biopsy is normal. What would you expect to see on electron microscopy?
Your Answer: Thinning of the capillary basement membrane
Correct Answer: Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
Explanation:The child has nephrotic syndrome which is most commonly caused by minimal change nephropathy in this age group. The condition presents with fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells under the microscope.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 9
Correct
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Which is the most common cardiac defect in babies with Down’s syndrome?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)
Explanation:Congenital heart defects are common (40-50%)| they are frequently observed in patients with Down syndrome who are hospitalized (62%) and are a common cause of death in this aneuploidy in the first 2 years of life.The most common congenital heart defects are the following:- Endocardial cushion defect (43%), which results in atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD)/AV canal defect- Ventricular septal defect (32%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (6%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (4%).About 30% of patients have more than one cardiac defect. The most common secondary lesions are patent ductus arteriosus (16%), atrial septal defect, and pulmonic stenosis (9%). About 70% of all endocardial cushion defects are associated with Down syndrome.Valve abnormalities, such as mitral valve prolapse or aortic regurgitation may develop in up to 40-50% of adolescents and adults who were born without structural heart disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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In a premature infant boy, an inguinal hernia will most likely:
Your Answer: Be direct hernias
Correct Answer: Recur after surgery
Explanation:Inguinal hernias are a common surgical condition in preterm male infants. Surgical repair is usually suggested shortly after birth due to a fear of incarceration or strangulation. These hernias are often indirect as they pass though the processes vaginalis, rather than the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Recurrence of the hernia is the most common post operative complication. While other complications can occur if left un-repaired, hydrocele and testicular atrophy are not as common, neither is spontaneous resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 4 year old girl presents to the clinic with sore throat and a small painful ulcer in her mouth since yesterday and small painful ulcers on palms and soles that are not itchy. She is febrile (38.5 degree Celsius) and is refusing to eat for the past two days. Which of the following will be the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Herpes Simplex virus
Correct Answer: Coxsackie virus
Explanation:Coxsackie viruses are a group of RNA viruses with over 20 serotypes| depending on specific viral characteristics, these serotypes are further divided into groups A and B. Infection is associated with a wide range of symptoms, which are dependent on the exact serotype. Hand, foot, and mouth disease (HFMD) and herpangina are commonly caused by group A coxsackie viruses, while pleurodynia and myocarditis are caused by group B coxsackie viruses. Both groups may cause viral meningitis, conjunctivitis, or flu‑like symptoms. Diagnostic procedures and treatment should be tailored to the specific disease manifestation. Coxsackie A :HerpanginaHand, foot, and mouth diseaseCharacteristics: highly contagiousClinical presentationGeneral symptoms: fever, reduced general conditionSkin/mucosaMaculopapular and partially vesicular rash on the hands and feetOral ulcersDiagnosis: clinicalTreatment: symptomaticPrognosis: almost always self‑limiting
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A father brought his 6-year-old son with cystic fibrosis to the ER department due to massive hematemesis. He is hypotensive and has a tachycardia. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Correct Answer: Bleeding oesophageal varices
Explanation:Bleeding oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension can cause a massive gastrointestinal haemorrhage resulting in shock. Perforated ulcer is less likely in this age group. Mallory Weiss tear would not likely result in a massive haemorrhage. Aorto-intestinal fistula is more common in older patients with abdominal aneurysms. Boerhaave’s syndrome is a result of a ruptured oesophagus following excessive vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following disorders is correctly linked to associated mutations?
Your Answer: Charcot- Marie-Tooth- whole gene duplication
Explanation:Types of DNA mutations and their impactpoint mutation:Substitution: One base is incorrectly added during replication and replaces the pair in the corresponding position on the complementary strand as in Sickle cell anaemiaInsertion: One or more extra nucleotides are inserted into replicating DNA, often resulting in a frameshift as in one form of beta-thalassemiaDeletion: One or more nucleotides is skipped during replication or otherwise excised, often resulting in a frameshift as in Cystic fibrosis.Chromosomal mutation:Inversion: One region of a chromosome is flipped and reinserted as in Opitz-Kaveggia syndromeDeletion: A region of a chromosome is lost, resulting in the absence of all the genes in that area as in Cri du chat syndromeDuplication: A region of a chromosome is repeated, resulting in an increase in dosage from the genes in that region as in some cancers and Charcot-Marie toothTranslocation: A region from one chromosome is aberrantly attached to another chromosome as in One form of leukaemiaCopy number variation:Gene amplification: The number of tandem copies of a locus is increased as in Some breast cancersExpanding trinucleotide repeat: The normal number of repeated trinucleotide sequences is expanded as in Fragile X syndrome, Huntington’s disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A normal 6-month-old child is NOT expected to do which of the following?
Your Answer: Have no head lag
Correct Answer: Sit unsupported for 10 minutes
Explanation:Milestones of 6 monthsSocial and EmotionalKnows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/CommunicationResponds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with the parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical DevelopmentRolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child is diagnosed with a left sided cataract after an ophthalmoscopic exam. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Crohn's disease
Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Explanation:Hyperthyroidism is the least likely cause of cataract development as all of the other mentioned options can lead to eye problems. Asthma and crohn’s can lead to steroid induced cataract formation, while trauma to the eye can cause traumatic cataracts to develop afterwards. JIA often leads to uveitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 2 month old baby presents to the clinic with vomiting. On examination he has ambiguous genitalia. The lab results are as follows: Na: 125mmol/L, K: 6mmol/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) comprises a group of autosomal recessive defects in enzymes that are responsible for cortisol, aldosterone, and, in very rare cases, androgen synthesis. All forms of CAH are characterized by low levels of cortisol, high levels of ACTH, and adrenal hyperplasia. The exact clinical manifestations depend on the enzyme defect. The most common form of CAH, which is caused by a deficiency of 21β-hydroxylase, presents with hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, and virilization (in the female genotype), and/or precocious puberty (in both males and females). It is further characterized by hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone confirm the diagnosis of 21β-hydroxylase deficiency. Treatment of CAH involves lifelong glucocorticoid replacement therapy. Patients with a 21β-hydroxylase deficiency also require mineralocorticoid replacement with fludrocortisone. Complications of CAH include severe hypoglycaemia, adrenal insufficiency, and/or a failure to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is true of Alport syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is caused by defects in collagen
Explanation:Alport syndrome is a genetic condition characterized by kidney disease, hearing loss, and eye abnormalities.Alport syndrome can have different inheritance patterns. About 80 percent of cases are caused by mutations in type IV collagen genes (COL4A5) and are inherited in an X-linked autosomal recessive pattern. Alport syndrome has autosomal dominant inheritance in about 5 percent of cases.People with Alport syndrome experience progressive loss of kidney function. Almost all affected individuals have blood in their urine (haematuria), which indicates abnormal functioning of the kidneys. Many people with Alport syndrome also develop high levels of protein in their urine (proteinuria). The kidneys become less able to function as this condition progresses, resulting in end-stage renal disease (ESRD).People with Alport syndrome frequently develop sensorineural hearing loss, which is caused by abnormalities of the inner ear, during late childhood or early adolescence. Affected individuals may also have misshapen lenses in the eyes (anterior lenticonus) and abnormal coloration of the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (retina). These eye abnormalities seldom lead to vision loss.Significant hearing loss, eye abnormalities, and progressive kidney disease are more common in males with Alport syndrome than in affected females.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Growth failure can be managed with recombinant human growth hormone (Somatropin) in the all of the following conditions except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Achondroplasia
Explanation:Somatropin is a recombinant human growth hormone used to treat growth failure conditions associated with natural growth hormone deficiencies. According to the UK National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, these conditions include, Prader-Willi syndrome, Noonan syndrome, short stature Homeobox (SHOX) gene deficiency, Turner’s syndrome, chronic renal insufficiency and children who are small for gestational age. Treatment of short stature in achondroplasia has not seen any significant changes with somatotropin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers
Explanation:Answer: Curling’s ulcersCurling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness. A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scarlet fever
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a childhood infectious disease caused by group A Streptococcus. It produces a papular rash, which is classically described as a sand-paper rash. The rash initially appears on the trunk, groin, and underarms and then spreads to extremities, usually sparing the palms and soles. Circumoral area is also spared, giving it pallor-like appearance. Diseases like erythema multiforme, contact dermatitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, and rubella produce a rash that classically affects the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a concern that he is the shortest in his class, and his voice has not 'broken' yet. A thorough examination reveals that his sexual development is within the normal range, and he is reassured that puberty occurs at different times for everyone. Which of the following cells in the testes secrete testosterone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leydig cells
Explanation:The cells in the testes that secrete testosterone are the Leydig cells.Other cells in testes include:- Spermatogonia: These are undifferentiated male germ cells which undergo spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules of the testes.- Sertoli cells: They are a part of the seminiferous tubule of the testes, cells are activated by FSH and nourish developing sperm cells.- Myoid: They are squamous contractile cells which generate peristaltic waves, they surround the basement membrane of testes.- Fibroblasts: Cells which synthesise collagen and the extracellular matrix.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is correct regarding bone age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Girl's growth plates close around age 13 to 15 years
Explanation:Bone age is a valuable tool for determining the skeletal maturation in children. An X-ray of the left hand and wrist or knee is used to calculate bone age, which is then compared with the chronological age of the subject to know if the bone age is advanced or delayed. Certain standardized methods are used to score skeletal maturity| most common methods are the Tanner-Whitehouse (TW) and Greulich-Pyle (GP) methods. The growth plate comprises a resting zone, a proliferative zone, hypertrophic cartilage zone, calcified cartilage zone, and then the ossification zone. This is the zonal distribution from the epiphysis to the diaphysis. After the closure of growth plates, spinal growth still occurs to some extent, adding up to the final height. The growth plates in boys close at around 17 to 19 years of age, while in girls, they close at around 13 to 15 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Congenital hypothyroidism is associated with which of the following clinical features?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiomegaly
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism results from insufficient levels of thyroid hormone in the body since birth, which is either due to dysgenesis of the thyroid gland or dyshormonogenesis. The important features of this disease include coarse facial features (macroglossia, large fontanelles, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism, etc.), failure to thrive, cardiomegaly, hypotonia, umbilical hernia, and low core body temperature among many others. Frontal bossing is the usual feature of rickets and acromegaly. Mitral regurgitation is not usually associated with congenital hypothyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A cohort study is developed to assess the correlation between blood pressure and working long hours. After 10 years of follow-up and for the 1050 individuals working less than 40 hours per week, 1000 patients had normal blood pressure and 50 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. For the 660 patients working more than 40 hours per week, 600 patients had normal blood pressure and 60 patients were diagnosed with hypertension. If you work more than 40 hours per week, what is the odds ratio of developing hypertension compared to the individuals working less than 40 hours per week?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of the association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Wherea = Number of exposed casesb = Number of exposed non-casesc = Number of unexposed casesd = Number of unexposed non-casesOR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old autistic boy arrives at the clinic with lethargy, curly corkscrew like hair and petechiae. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:Presentation can vary by individual. Early stages are often characterized by malaise, fatigue, and lethargy. One to 3 months of inadequate intake can lead to anaemia, myalgia, bone pain, easy bruising (Figure 3), swelling, petechiae, perifollicular haemorrhages, corkscrew hairs, gum disease, poor wound healing, mood changes, and depression. Perifollicular haemorrhages and easy bruising are often first seen in the lower extremities, as capillary fragility leads to an inability to withstand hydrostatic pressure. Late stages of scurvy are more severe and life threatening| common manifestations include generalized oedema, severe jaundice, haemolysis, acute spontaneous bleeding, neuropathy, fever, convulsions, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Anorexia nervosa is associated with which of the following skin and nail related changes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis
Explanation:Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder which is characterized by distorted self-image leading to abnormally decreased calorie intake. This disorder affects multiple bodily systems, including the skin, GI, and endocrine system. Due to extreme weight loss, patients with anorexia nervosa develop cold intolerance along with bluish discoloration of their fingers, nose, and ears, which is known as acrocyanosis. This phenomenon may be due to the shunting of the blood from the peripheries to the central body systems as a reaction to hypothermia. Other notable changes in the integumentary system include extreme dryness (xerosis), lanugo hairs, decubitus ulcers, and easy bruisibility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 8 year old girl presents with a chest injury, following a road traffic accident. You intubate and ventilate her. However, at some point you notice that the girl becomes tachycardic and her blood pressure drops. Her trachea is displaced to one side and neck veins appear quite distended. What should you do next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Needle Decompression
Explanation:The clinical picture suggests tension pneumothorax which requires immediate needle decompression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor
Explanation:Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female was brought to the emergency department. Her presentation was highly suggestive of meningitis. Direct ophthalmoscopy revealed no signs of papilledema. Thus, she was planned for a lumbar puncture. What is the structure first encountered while inserting the needle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraspinous ligament
Explanation:During lumbar puncture, the first structures encountered by the needle are skin and subcutaneous tissue. But, since they are not provided in the options, the most superficial structure after them is the supraspinous ligament.Lumbar puncture is a procedure performed to obtain cerebrospinal fluid. The procedure is best performed at the level of L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace. During the procedure, the needle pierces the following structures in order from superficial to deep: Skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, the epidural space containing the internal vertebral venous plexus, dura, and arachnoid, finally entering the subarachnoid space. The supraspinous ligament connects the tips of spinous processes and the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes.As the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, it causes a give. A second give is felt when the needle penetrates the dura mater and enters the subarachnoid space. At this point, clear CSF flows through the needle and can be collected for diagnostic purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-month-old abandoned baby with congenital non-communicating hydrocephalus is hosted by a clinic at its new-born hostel. A CT scan of the baby's brain reveals what might be a blockage of the ventricular system between the third and the fourth ventricles. Which of the following is the most likely blocked structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cerebral aqueduct
Explanation:The drainage of cerebral spinal fluid from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle is carried out by the cerebral aqueduct. The cerebral aqueduct is the narrowest passageway in the entire ventricular system and thus forms the most common site of blockage of flow of cerebrospinal fluid. The interventricular foramen allows passage of CSF to the third ventricle. The foramen of Luschka and Magendie are located on the fourth ventricle and allow passage of CSF to the subarachnoid space from the ventricular system. The pontine cistern is a space located on the ventral aspect of the pons. The cisterna magna is an opening on the subarachnoid space between the pia matter and the arachnoid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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