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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which of these anaesthetics has the best chance of preventing HPV (hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction)?
Your Answer: Propofol 6-12 mg/kg/hour
Correct Answer: Desflurane 2 MAC
Explanation:Resistance pulmonary arteries constrict in response to alveolar and airway hypoxia, diverting blood to better-oxygenated alveoli.
In atelectasis, pneumonia, asthma, and adult respiratory distress syndrome, hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction optimises O2 uptake. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction helps maintain systemic oxygenation during single-lung anaesthesia.
A redox-based O2 sensor within pulmonary artery smooth muscle cells is involved in hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. The production of reactive oxygen species by smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery varies in proportion to PaO2. Hypoxic removal of these redox second messengers inhibits voltage-gated potassium channels, depolarizing smooth muscle cells in the pulmonary artery.
L-type calcium channels are activated by depolarization, which raises cytosolic calcium and causes hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Some anaesthetics suppress this response, increasing the risk of further deterioration in ventilation perfusion mismatch.
Agents that inhibit HPV are ether, halothane, and desflurane (>1.6 MAC).
Agents with no effect on HPV include thiopentone, fentanyl, desflurane (1MAC), isoflurane (<1.5MAC), sevoflurane(1MAC), and propofol. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Correct
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Regarding a drug whose elimination exhibits first-order kinetics, which of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: The rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration
Explanation:The elimination of phenytoin follows first order kinetics. Plasma concentrations determine the rate of elimination. The relationship between drug X plasma concentration and time is described by an exponential process in the following equation used to describe the rate of elimination:
C = C0. e-kt
C=drug concentration, C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated), k = rate constant and t=time
As enzyme systems become saturated when phenytoin concentrations are above the usual range, clearance of the medication becomes zero-order. The medication is metabolised at a constant pace, regardless of its plasma levels. Aspirin and ethyl alcohol are two more significant examples of medications that operate in this way.
A plot of drug concentration with time is a washout exponential curve.
A graph of concentration with time is a straight line i.e. Zero-order kinetics
The amount eliminated per unit time is constant defines the point at which zero order kinetics commences.
Elimination involves a rate-limiting reaction operating at its maximal velocity is incorrect.
The half life of the drug is proportional to the drug concentration in the plasma corresponds to a definition of first-order kinetics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman presented with chief complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. On urine culture and sensitivity testing, E.coli was detected with resistance to ampicillin.
What is the mechanism of resistance to ampicillin?Your Answer: Efflux pump removing antibiotic from bacteria
Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production
Explanation:Ampicillin belongs to the family of penicillin. Resistance to this group of drugs is due to ?-lactamase production which opens the ?-lactam ring and inactivates Penicillin G and some closely related congeners. The majority of Staphylococci and some strains of gonococci, B. subtilis, E. coli, and a few other bacteria produce penicillinase.
Resistance to cephalosporins is due to changes in penicillin-binding proteins.
Resistance to macrolides are due to post-transcriptional methylation of 23s bacterial ribosomal RNA
Resistance to fluoroquinolones is due to mutations in DNA gyrase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which one of the following pharmacokinetic models is most suitable for target-controlled infusion (TCI) of propofol in paediatric patients?
Your Answer: Schnider
Correct Answer: Kataria
Explanation:Marsh (adult) model, when used with children caused over-estimation of plasma concentration. To address this issue Kataria et al developed a three-compartmental model for propofol in children. The pharmacokinetic models used by Target controlled infusion (TCI) systems are used to calculate the relative sizes of the central (vascular), vessel-rich peripheral, and vessel-poor peripheral compartments. The relative volumes of these compartments are different in young children when compared to adults.
Kataria, therefore, is the correct option as described above.
The Maitre model is a three-compartmental model for alfentanil TCI.
The Marsh model describes a propofol TCI model for adults
The Minto model applies to TCI remifentanil.
The Schnider model is also an adult model for propofol that incorporates age and lean body mass as covariates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a ventricular rate of 210 beats per minute is admitted to the emergency department with atrial fibrillation. The patient develops ventricular fibrillation shortly after receiving pharmacotherapy to treat his arrhythmia, from which he is successfully resuscitated.
He has a PR interval of 40 Ms, a prominent delta wave in lead I, and a QRS duration of 120 Ms, according to an ECG from a previous admission.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be involved in this patient's development of ventricular fibrillation?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:The Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome (WPWS) is linked to an additional electrical conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles. This accessory pathway (bundle of Kent), unlike the atrioventricular (AV) node, is incapable of slowing down a rapid rate of atrial depolarization. In other words, a short circuit bypasses the AV node. Patients with a rapid ventricular response or narrow complex AV re-entry tachycardia are more likely to develop atrial fibrillation or flutter.
Digoxin can promote impulse transmission through this accessory pathway if a patient with WPWS develops atrial fibrillation because it works by blocking the AV node. This can cause ventricular fibrillation and an extremely rapid ventricular rate. As a result, it’s not advised.
Adenosine, beta-blockers, and calcium channel blockers, among other drugs that interfere with AV nodal conduction, are also generally contraindicated.
The class III antiarrhythmic drugs amiodarone and ibutilide (K+ channel block) and procainamide (Na+ channel block) are the drugs of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 16-year-old female presented to the hospital with a chief complaint of headache, photophobia, fever, and confusion. She is treated empirically with antibiotics. Which of the following represents the correct mechanism of action of the most commonly used first-line antibiotic class?
Your Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
Explanation:Based on the presenting symptoms, this is the case of bacterial meningitis. The treatment of choice for bacterial meningitis is a cephalosporin. Cephalosporin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the best marker of mast cell degranulation in a patient with suspected anaphylaxis who became hypotensive and developed widespread urticarial rash after administration of Augmentin?
Your Answer: Histamine
Correct Answer: Tryptase
Explanation:Mast cell tryptase is a reliable marker of mast cell degranulation. Tryptase is a protease enzyme that acts via widespread protease-activated receptors (PARs).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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Following are some examples of induction agents. Which one has the longest elimination half-life?
Your Answer: Thiopental
Explanation:Thiopental has the longest elimination half-life of 6-15 hours.
Elimination half-life of other drugs are given as:
– Propofol: 5-12 h
– Methohexitone: 3-5 h
– Ketamine: 2 h
– Etomidate: 1-4 h -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Correct
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An 80-year old female was taken to the emergency room for chest pain. She has a medical history of coronary artery disease and previous episodes of atrial fibrillation. She was immediately attached to the cardiac monitor, which showed tachycardia at 148 beats per minute. The 12-lead ECG revealed atrial fibrillation.
Digoxin was given as an anti-arrhythmic at 500 micrograms, which is higher than the maintenance dose routinely given. Why is this so?Your Answer: It has a high volume of distribution
Explanation:When the loading dose of Digoxin is given, the primary thing to consider is the volume of distribution. The volume of distribution is the proportionality factor that relates the total amount of drug in the body to the concentration. LD is computed as:
LD = Volume of distribution X (desired plasma concentration/bioavailability)
Digoxin is an anti-arrhythmic drug with a large volume of distribution and high bioavailability, and only a small percentage of Digoxin is bound to plasma proteins (,20%).
In the case, since the arrhythmia is not life-threatening, there is no need for the medication to work rapidly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Correct
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A young woman presented with a gynaecological related infection and was prescribed a cephalosporin. Which of the following is correct about the mechanism of action of this drug?
Your Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation:Cephalosporin belongs to a family of beta-lactam antibiotics. All ?-lactam antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of the bacterial cell walls. The ?-lactam antibiotics inhibit the transpeptidases so that cross-linking (which maintains the close-knit structure of the cell wall) does not take place i.e. they inhibit bacterial cell wall formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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While administering a general anaesthetic to a 65-year-old man booked for a hip hemiarthroplasty, with a weight 70 kg, and an ASA 1 score, you give 1 g of paracetamol IV but notice that he had received the same dose on the ward one hour prior.
What is the most appropriate subsequent management of this patient?Your Answer: Avoid paracetamol for the next 12 hours and monitor the patient clinically
Correct Answer: Do nothing and give the next doses of paracetamol at standard 6 hour intervals
Explanation:After ingestion of more than 150 mg/kg paracetamol within 24 hours, hepatotoxicity can occur but can also develop rarely after ingestion of doses as low as 75 mg/kg within 24 hours. Hepatocellular damage will not occur in this patient and therefore no need to engage management pathway for paracetamol overdose. If his weight was <33 kg or he already had a history of impaired liver function, then the management would bde different. Subsequent post-operative doses will be a standard dose of 1 g 6 hourly. This is a drug administration error and should be reported as an incident even though the patient will not be harmed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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Which of the following anaesthetic agent is most potent with the lowest Minimal Alveolar Concentration (MAC)?
Your Answer: Isoflurane
Explanation:The clinical potency of the anaesthetic agent is measured using minimal alveolar concentration(MAC).
MAC and oil: gas partition coefficient is inversely related. Anaesthetic agent Oil/gas partition coefficient and Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) is given respectively as
Desflurane 18 6
Isoflurane 90 1.2
Nitrous oxide 1.4 104
Sevoflurane 53.4 2
Xenon 1.9 71With these data, we can conclude Isoflurane is the most potent with the highest oil/gas partition coefficient of 90 and the lowest MAC of 1.2
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding prazosin?
Your Answer: Is a selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist.
Explanation:Selective ?1 -Blockers like prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, and alfuzosin cause a decrease in blood pressure with lesser tachycardia than nonselective blockers (due to lack of ?2 blocking action.
The major adverse effect of these drugs is postural hypotension. It is seen with the first few doses or on-dose escalation (First dose effect).
Its half-life is approximately three hours.
It is excreted primarily through bile and faeces (not through kidneys)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of macrolides?
Your Answer: Inhibits protein synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of action of macrolides is inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by preventing peptidyltransferase from adding to the growing peptide which is attached to tRNA to the next amino acid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A post-operative patient was brought to the recovery room after completion of dilation and curettage. Her medical history revealed that she was maintained on levodopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurses administered ondansetron 4 mg and dexamethasone 8 mg prior to transfer from the operating room to the recovery room. However, an additional antiemetic agent is warranted.
Which of the following agents should be prescribed to the patient?Your Answer: Metoclopramide 10 mg IV
Correct Answer: Cyclizine 50 mg IV
Explanation:The Beers criteria, a US set of criteria for good prescribing in the older patient, preclude the use of metoclopramide in Parkinson’s disease. The Adverse Reactions Register of the UK Committee on Safety of Medicines (CSM) for the years 1967 to 1982 contained 479 reports of extrapyramidal reactions in which metoclopramide was the suspected drug; 455 were for dystonic-dyskinetic reactions, 20 for parkinsonism and four for tardive dyskinesia. Effects can occur within days of initiation of treatment and may take months to wear off.
Other antiemetics are available, such as cyclizine (Valoid), domperidone and ondansetron, which would be more appropriate to use in those with Parkinson’s disease.
Cyclizine is a piperazine derivative with histamine H1 receptor antagonist and anticholinergic activity. It is used for the treatment of nausea, vomiting, (particularly opioid-induced vomiting), vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.
Prochlorperazine is an antipsychotic known to cause tardive dyskinesia, tremor and parkinsonian symptoms and is therefore likely to exacerbate Parkinson’s disease. Prochlorperazine is not favoured for older patients because of the increased risk of stroke and transient ischaemic attack (TIA).
Droperidol and phenothiazine are also potent antagonists on D2 receptors and must also be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding carbamazepine except
Your Answer: Is structurally related to sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Has neurotoxic side effects
Explanation:Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and Valproate act by inhibiting the sodium channels when these are open. These drugs also prolong the inactivated stage of these channels (Sodium channels are refractory to stimulation till these reach the closed/ resting phase from inactivated phase)
Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for partial seizures and trigeminal neuralgia
It can have neurotoxic side effects. Major neurotoxic effects include dizziness, headache, ataxia, vertigo, and diplopia
After single oral doses of carbamazepine, the absorption is fairly complete and the elimination half-life is about 35 hours (range 18 to 65 hours). During multiple dosing, the half-life is decreased to 10-20 hours, probably due to autoinduction of the oxidative metabolism of the drug.
It is metabolized in liver into active metabolite, carbamazepine-10,11-epoxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man weighing 70kg, underwent mesh repair for inguinal hernia under general anaesthesia. He was given intravenous co-amoxiclav (Augmentin) following which the patient developed widespread urticarial ras, became hypotensive (61/30 mmHg), and showed clinical signs of bronchospasm. Anaphylaxis is suspected in this patient.
Which one of the following is considered as best initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline 0.5 mg
Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline 50 mcg
Explanation:The drug of choice for the treatment of anaphylaxis is adrenaline. It has an intravenous route of administration. Since the patient already has intravenous access, the intramuscular route is not appropriate.
Second-line pharmacological intervention includes the use of chlorpheniramine 10mg intravenous, Hydrocortisone 200mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of erythromycin?
Your Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Correct Answer: Inhibit 50S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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In asthmatic patients, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics (NSAIDs) are generally contraindicated.
Which of the following membrane phospholipid metabolism products is most likely to cause NSAID-induced bronchospasm in asthmatic patients who are predisposed to it?Your Answer: Prostacyclin (PGI2)
Correct Answer: Leukotrienes
Explanation:Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) cause bronchospasm, rhinorrhoea, and nasal obstruction in some asthma patients.
The inhibition of cyclooxygenase-1 (Cox-1) appears to be the cause of NSAID-induced reactions. This activates the lipoxygenase pathway, which increases the release of cysteinyl leukotrienes (Cys-LTs), which causes bronchospasm and nasal obstruction.
The following changes in arachidonic acid (AA) metabolism have been observed in NSAID-intolerant asthmatic patients:
Prostaglandin E2 production is low, possibly due to a lack of Cox-2 regulation.
An increase in leukotriene-C4 synthase expression and
A decrease in the production of metabolites (lipoxins) released by AA’s transcellular metabolism.Phospholipase A produces membrane phospholipids, which are converted to arachidonic acid.
TXA2 causes vasoconstriction as well as platelet aggregation and adhesion.
PGI2 causes vasodilation and a reduction in platelet adhesion.
PGE2 is involved in parturition initiation and maintenance, as well as thermoregulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following is the maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child?
Your Answer: 5 ml
Explanation:Bupivacaine is used to decrease sensation in a specific area. It is injected around a nerve that supplies the area, or into the spinal canal’s epidural space.
The maximum volume of 0.5% bupivacaine that should be administered to a 10kg child is 5 ml
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A balanced general anaesthetic including a muscle relaxant is administered at induction. It is observed that the train-of-four count is two after two hours, with no further doses of the muscle relaxant.
What is most likely reason for this?Your Answer: Rocuronium in renal failure
Correct Answer: Mivacurium with plasma cholinesterase deficiency
Explanation:Mivacurium is metabolised primarily by plasma cholinesterase at an In vitro rate of about 70% that of succinylcholine. Mivacurium is contraindicated in patients with genetic and acquired plasma cholinesterase deficiencies.
The clearance of atracurium is by Hoffman degradation and ester hydrolysis in the plasma and is independent of both hepatic and renal function.
Rocuronium is eliminated primarily by the liver after metabolises to a less active metabolite, 17-desacetyl-rocuronium. Its duration of action is not affected much by renal impairment.
Vecuronium undergoes hepatic metabolism into 3-desacetyl-vecuronium which has 50-80% the activity of the parent drug. It undergoes biliary (40%) and renal excretion (30%). The aminoglycoside antibiotics possess additional neuromuscular blocking activity. The potency of gentamicin > streptomycin > amikacin. Calcium can be used to reverse the muscle weakness produced by gentamicin but not neostigmine. When vecuronium and gentamycin are given together the effect on neuromuscular blockade is synergistic.
Significant residual neuromuscular block 2 hours after the administration of these drugs is unlikely In this scenario.
Any recovery from neuromuscular blockade with suxamethonium in a patient with deficiency of plasma cholinesterase demonstrate four twitches on a train of four count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Correct
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Infrared radiation is absorbed by asymmetric, polyatomic polar molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2).
When measuring CO2 in gas samples, mainstream capnography uses this physical principle.
Which of the following gases is most likely to interfere with carbon dioxide's absorption spectrum?Your Answer: Nitrous oxide
Explanation:Carbon dioxide absorbs the most infrared (IR) light between the wavelengths of 4.2-4.4m (4.26m is ideal).
Nitrous oxide absorbs infrared light at wavelengths of 4.4-4.6m (very similar to CO2) and less so at 3.9m.
At a frequency of 4.7m, carbon monoxide absorbs the most IR light.
At 3.3 m and throughout the ranges 8-12 m, the volatile agents have strong absorption bands.
Although oxygen does not absorb infrared light, it collides with CO2 molecules, interfering with absorption. The absorption band is widened as a result of this (so called collision or pressure broadening). A drop of 0.5 percent in measured CO2 can be caused by 95% oxygen.
Nitrous oxide causes a greater inaccuracy of 0.1 percent per ten percent of nitrous oxide.
Water vapour absorbs infrared light as well, resulting in absorption band overlap, collision broadening, and partial pressure dilution. Water traps and water permeable tubing are used to reduce inaccuracies.
Collision broadening is compensated for in modern gas multi-gas analysers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which oral hypoglycaemic agent has no effect on insulin sensitivity or secretion?
Your Answer: Thiazolidinediones
Correct Answer: Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
Explanation:Because alpha glucosidase inhibitors slow starch digestion in the small intestine, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity, glucose from a meal enters the bloodstream more slowly and can be matched more effectively by an impaired insulin response or sensitivity.
Biguanides decrease hepatic glucose output while increasing glucose uptake in peripheral cells.
The meglitinides are secretagogues that act on a different site of the KATP receptors.
Insulin secretion is stimulated by sulphonylureas, which stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. The KATP channels are inhibited by these substances.
Insulin-sensitive genes are influenced by thiazolidinediones, which increase the production of mRNAs for insulin-dependent enzymes. As a result, the cells make better use of glucose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding gabapentin except:
Your Answer: Side effects typically include visual field defects with long term use
Correct Answer: Requires dose adjustment in renal disease
Explanation:Therapy with gabapentin requires dose adjustment with renal diseases. However, plasma monitoring of the drug is not necessary.
Gabapentin is not a liver enzyme inducer unlike other anticonvulsants like phenytoin and phenobarbitone
Gabapentin has not been shown to be associated with visual disturbances.
Gabapentin is used for add-on therapy in partial or generalized seizures and used in the management of chronic pain conditions but is of no use in petit mal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 25
Correct
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Buffers are solutions that resist a change in pH when protons are produced or consumed. They consist of weak acids and their conjugate bases. Buffers are also present in our bodies, and they are known as physiologic buffers.
Which of these is the most effective buffer in the blood?Your Answer: Bicarbonate
Explanation:The first line of defence against acid-base disorder is buffering. The blood mainly utilizes bicarbonate ion (HCO3-) for its buffering capacity (total of 53%, plasma and red blood cells combined).
Strong acids, when acted upon by a buffer, release H+, which then combines to HCO3- and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). When acted upon by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, H2CO3 dissociates into H2O and CO.
The rest are the percentage of utilization for the following buffers:
Haemoglobin (by RBCs) – 35%
Plasma proteins (by plasma) – 7%
Organic phosphates (by RBCs) – 3%
Inorganic phosphates (by plasma) – 2% -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents to ER following the deliberate ingestion of 2 g of amitriptyline. On clinical examination:
Glasgow coma score: 10
Pulse rate: 140 beats per minute
Blood pressure: 80/50 mmHg.
ECG showed a QRS duration of 233 Ms.
Which of the following statement describes the most important initial course of action?Your Answer: Start a noradrenaline infusion
Correct Answer: Give fluid boluses
Explanation:The first line of treatment in case of hypotension is fluid resuscitation.
Activated charcoal can be used within one hour of tricyclic antidepressant ingestion but an intact and secure airway must be checked before intervention. The risk of aspiration should be assessed.
Vasopressors are indicated for the treatment of hypotension following (Tricyclic Antidepressant) TCA overdose when patients fail to respond to fluids and bicarbonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are false regarding insulin except:
Your Answer: Acts via a similar mechanism to steroid receptors
Correct Answer: Can be detected in the lymph
Explanation:Insulin is secreted from the ? cells of the pancreas. It consists of 51 amino acids arranged in two chains. It interacts with cell surface receptors (not the nuclear receptors and thus mechanism of action is not similar to steroids).
Since insulin can pass from plasma to interstitium and lymphatics, it can be measured in lymph but the concentrations here can be up to 30% less than that of plasma.It decreases blood glucose by stimulating the entry of glucose in muscle and fat (by increasing the synthesis of Glucose transporters)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria?
Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial rRNA complex and inhibits protein synthesis.
Vancomycin binds to the acyl-D-ala-D-ala portion of the growing cell wall in a susceptible gram-positive bacterium. After binding, it prevents the cell wall from forming the cross-linking.
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid. Tetrahydrofolic acid is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding sucralfate?
Your Answer: Is a simple compound formed from sulphated sucrose
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Sucralfate is an octasulfate of glucose to which Al(OH)3 has been added. It undergoes extensive cross-linking in an acidic environment and forms a polymer which adheres to the ulcer base for up to 6 hours and protects it from further erosion. Since it is not systemically absorbed it is virtually devoid of side effects. However, it may cause constipation in about 2% of cases due to the Aluminium component in it.
Sucralfate does not have antibacterial action against Helicobacter pylori. However, Bismuth has antibacterial action due to its oligodynamic effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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A drug with a 2-hour half-life and a first-order kinetics of elimination is administered intravenously. The initial plasma concentration is calculated to be 12 mcg/mL and plasma concentrations is measured hourly.
At 6 hours, how much drug will be left?Your Answer: 1.5 mcg/mL
Explanation:In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is proportional to plasma concentration.
Rate of elimination is described by the following equation:
C = C0. e^-kt
Where:
C=drug concentration,
C0= drug concentration at time zero (extrapolated),
k = rate constant and
t = time.The initial concentration of this drug is 12 mcg/ml therefore:
The plasma concentration will have halved to 6 mcg/ml at 2 hours.
The plasma concentration will have halved to 3 mcg/ml at 4 hours and
The plasma concentration will have halved to 1.5 mcg/ml t 6 hours. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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