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Question 1
Correct
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Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?
Your Answer: Propofol
Explanation:Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.
Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
– Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
– Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
– Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
– Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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When administered as an infusion, which of the following medicines causes a reflex tachycardia?
Your Answer: Methyldopa
Correct Answer: Phentolamine
Explanation:The ?-2 adrenoceptor has three subtypes (2a, 2b and 2c). The receptors are generally presynaptic, meaning they prevent noradrenaline from being released at nerve endings. Both the central and peripheral nerve systems are affected by the ?-2 agonists. ?-2 agonists cause drowsiness, analgesia, and euphoria centrally in the locus coeruleus (in the brainstem), lower the MAC of volatile anaesthetic drugs, and are used to treat acute withdrawal symptoms in chronic opioid addicts.
The most common impact of ?-2 agonists on heart rate is bradycardia. The adrenoreceptors ?-1 and ?-2 are blocked by phenoxybenzamine.
Clonidine is a selective agonist for the ? -2 receptor, having a 200:1 affinity ratio for the ?-2: ?-1 receptors, respectively.
Tizanidine is similar to clonidine but has a few key variances. It has the same sedative, anxiolytic, and analgesic characteristics as clonidine, although for a shorter period of time and with less effect on heart rate and blood pressure.
Dexmedetomidine, like clonidine, is a highly selective ?-2 adrenoreceptor agonist having a higher affinity for the ?-2 receptor. In the case of ?-2: ?-1 receptors, the affinity ratio is 1620:1. It has a biphasic blood pressure impact and induces a brief rise in blood pressure and reflex bradycardia (activation of ?-2b subtypes of receptors in vascular smooth muscles), followed by a reduction in sympathetic outflow from the brainstem and hypotension/bradycardia.
A prodrug is methyldopa. It blocks the enzyme dopa-decarboxylase, which converts L-dopa to dopamine (a precursor of noradrenaline and adrenaline). It is also converted to alpha-methyl noradrenaline, a centrally active agonist of the ?-2 adrenoreceptor. These two processes contribute to its blood pressure-lowering effect. Without a rise in heart rate, cardiac output is generally maintained. The heart rate of certain patients is slowed.
Phentolamine is a short-acting antagonist of peripheral ?-1 and ?-2 receptors that causes peripheral vascular resistance to reduce and vasodilation to increase. It’s used to treat hypertensive situations that aren’t life threatening (e.g. hypertension from phaeochromocytoma).
A baroreceptor reflex commonly causes reflex tachycardia when systemic vascular resistance drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year old female came to the Obstetric and Gynaecology department for an elective hysterectomy under general anaesthesia. Upon physical examination, she was noted to be obese (BMI = 40).
Regarding the optimal dose of thiopentone, which of the following parameters must be considered for the computation?
Your Answer: Ideal body weight
Correct Answer: Lean body weight
Explanation:Using a lean body weight metric encompasses a more scientific approach to weight-based dosing. Lean body weight reflects the weight of all ‘non-fat’ body components, including muscle and vascular organs such as the liver and kidneys. As lean body weight contributes to approximately 99% of a drug’s clearance, it is useful for guiding dosing in obesity.
This metric has undergone a number of transformations. The most commonly cited formula derived by Cheymol is not optimal for dosing across body compositions and can even produce a negative result. A new formula has been developed that appears stable across different body sizes, in particular the obese to morbidly obese.
A practical downfall of the calculation of lean body weight (and other body size descriptors) is the numerical complexity, which may not be palatable to a busy clinician. Often limited time is available for prescribing and an immediate calculation is required. Lean body weight calculators are available online, for example in the Therapeutic Guidelines.
Using total body weight assumes that the pharmacokinetics of the drug are linearly scalable from normal-weight patients to those who are obese. This is inaccurate. For example, we cannot assume that a 150 kg patient eliminates a drug twice as fast as a 75 kg patient and therefore double the dose. Clinicians are alert to toxicities with higher doses, for example nephro- and neurotoxicity with some antibiotics and chemotherapeutics, and bleeding with anticoagulants. Arbitrary dose reductions or ‘caps’ are used to avoid these toxicities, but if too low can result in sub-therapeutic exposure and treatment failure.
Body surface area is traditionally used to dose chemotherapeutics. It is a function of weight and height and has been shown to correlate with cardiac output, blood volume and renal function. However, it is controversial in patients at extremes of size because it does not account for varying body compositions. As a consequence, some older drugs such as cyclophosphamide, paclitaxel and doxorubicin were ‘capped’ (commonly at 2 m^2) potentially resulting in sub-therapeutic treatment. Recent guidelines suggest that unless there is a justifiable reason to reduce the dose (e.g. renal disease), total body weight should be used in the calculation of body surface area, until further research is done. Little research into dosing based on body surface area has been conducted for other medicines.
Ideal body weight was developed for insurance purposes not for drug dosing. It is a function of height and gender only and, like body surface area, does not take into account body composition. Using ideal body weight, all patients of the same height and sex would receive the same dose, which is inadequate and generally results in under-dosing. For example a male who has a total body weight of 150 kg and a height of 170 cm will have the same ideal body weight as a male who is 80 kg and 170 cm tall. Both could potentially receive a mg/kg dose based on 65 kg (ideal body weight).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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All the following statements are false regarding nitrous oxide except:
Your Answer: Decreases cerebral blood flow
Correct Answer: Maintains carbon dioxide reactivity
Explanation:Nitrous oxide increases cerebral blood flow by direct cerebral stimulation and tends to elevate intracranial pressure (ICP)
It increases the cerebral metabolic rate of oxygen consumption (CMRO2)
It is not an NMDA agonist as it antagonizes NMDA receptors.
Cerebral autoregulation is impaired with the use of nitrous oxide but when used with propofol, it is maintained.
Carbon dioxide reactivity is not affected by it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 5
Correct
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Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) used for the acute treatment of angina is best administered via the sublingual route.
Why is this the best route of administration?Your Answer: High first pass metabolism
Explanation:Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) has a significant first pass metabolism. About 90% of a dose of GTN is metabolised in the liver by the enzyme glutathione organic nitrate reductase.
An INSIGNIFICANT amount of metabolism occurs in the intestinal mucosa.
There is approximately 1% bioavailability after oral administration and 38% after sublingual administration.
GTN does NOT cause gastric irritation and it is well absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
The volume of distribution of GTN is 2.1 to 4.5 L/kg. This is HIGH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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At sea level, Sevoflurane is administered via a plenum vaporiser. 100 mL of the fresh gas flow is bypassed into the vaporising chamber. Temperature within the vaporising chamber is maintained at 20°C.
The following fresh gas flows approximates best for the delivery of 1% sevoflurane.Your Answer: 2.7 L/minute
Explanation:The equation for calculating vaporiser output is:
Vaporiser output (VO) mL = Carrier gas flow (mL/minute) × SVP of agent (kPa)
Ambient pressure (kPa) − SVP of agent (kPa)The saturated vapour pressure of sevoflurane at 1 atm (100 kPa) and 20°C is 21 kPa.
VO = (100 mL × 21 kPa)/(100 kPa − 21kPa) for sevoflurane,
VO = 26.6 mL26.6 mL of 100% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is being added to the fresh gas flow per minute.
2660 mL of 1% sevoflurane and 100 mL bypass carrier gas is approximately 2.7 L/minute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is not true regarding soda lime?
Your Answer: It mostly contains sodium hydroxide
Correct Answer: Silica is added to prevent disintegration of the granules
Explanation:Soda-lime contains mostly calcium hydroxide (about 94%) and the remaining sodium hydroxide.
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O + heat
Here in this exothermic reaction, we can see that the production of calcium carbonate does not require heat.When soda lime is allowed to dry with subsequent use of desflurane, isoflurane, and enflurane, it can lead to the generation of carbon monoxide.
Silicated hardens the granules and can thus prevent disintegration.
The size of soda-lime granules is 4-8 mesh because it allows sufficient surface area for chemical reaction to occur without critically increasing the resistance to airflow.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following statement is correct regarding the difference between dabigatran and other anticoagulants?
Your Answer: Competitive thrombin inhibitor blocking both free and bound thrombin
Explanation:Dabigatran template is a prodrug and its active metabolite is a direct thrombin inhibitor. It is a synthetic, reversible, non-peptide thrombin inhibitor. This inhibition of thrombin results in a decrease of fibrin and reduces platelet aggregation.
Drugs like warfarin act by inhibiting the activation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. These factors are synthesized by the liver and activated by gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues with the help of vitamin K. Hydroquinone form of vitamin K is converted to epoxide form in this reaction and regeneration of hydroquinone form by enzyme vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR) is required for this activity. Oral anticoagulants prevent this regeneration by inhibiting VKOR, thus vitamin K-dependent factors are not activated. These factors include clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X as well as anti-clotting proteins, protein C and protein S.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of gentamicin?
Your Answer: Inhibit cell wall formation
Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA
Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase
Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer: Are a pair of drugs containing a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) that have trans and cis isomers
Correct Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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