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Question 1
Correct
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Which one of the following is a derivative of the midgut?
Your Answer: Caecum
Explanation:The primary intestinal loop is formed from the midgut which gives rise to the distal half of the duodenum, the jejunum, ascending colon, proximal two thirds of the transverse colon and the ileum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A case-control study is being designed to look at the relationship between eczema and a new vaccine for yellow fever. What is the usual outcome measure in a case-control study?
Your Answer: Relative risk
Correct Answer: Odds ratio
Explanation:A case–control study (also known as case–referent study) is a type of observational study in which two existing groups differing in outcome are identified and compared on the basis of some supposed causal attribute. Case–control studies are often used to identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have that condition/disease (the cases) with patients who do not have the condition/disease but are otherwise similar (the controls).
An odds ratio (OR) is a statistic that quantifies the strength of the association between two events, A and B. The odds ratio is defined as the ratio of the odds of A in the presence of B and the odds of A in the absence of B or vice versa. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A child presents to the clinic with the complaints of pale stools and jaundice. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endomysial antibodies
Correct Answer: US abdomen
Explanation:The patient is most likely suffering from obstructive jaundice. Ultrasound of the abdomen is the superior diagnostic tool in detecting and assessing biliary system obstruction, because it is easy, available, accurate and non-invasive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl presented with faecal incontinence for 2 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed a mass in right lower quadrant. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this girl?
Your Answer: Laxatives
Explanation:Laxatives have been shown to be beneficial in the treatment of chronic childhood constipation. Studies have shown that polyethylene glycol, mineral oil, magnesium hydroxide, and lactulose are effective and can be used for a prolonged periods without risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 5
Correct
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You notice an umbilical hernia in a 6-week old baby. What advice would you give the parents?
Your Answer: This is likely to resolve in 90% of cases by the age of 4 years. Repair is performed if still present
Explanation:Umbilical hernias are common in young children and they carry a low risk of incarceration as compared to inguinal hernias. About 90% umbilical hernias resolve by the age of 4 years. The best management for young children is to wait for resolution without surgical repair, unless there are complications. Parents should be assured that the child does not need to be referred to the general surgeon, nor should any home remedies such as taping a coin over the hernia be encouraged. If after the age of 4 it has not resolved, then surgery is indicated. This also applies to girls to prevent an unsightly hernia should she get pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 6
Correct
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A 5 month old baby presents with bilious vomiting. Doctors notice a palpable mass and drawing up of legs. They treat the baby with an air reduction enema, suspecting intussusception. However, the procedure is interrupted as the baby develops abdominal distention and starts to drop their saturations. What would be the single most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum
Explanation:Immediate needle decompression of pneumoperitoneum is necessary to avoid tension pneumoperitoneum. Air reduction enema is the main stay of treatment for intussusception and is successful in around 90% of cases. A serious potential risk of this procedure is perforation of the colon and a pneumoperitoneum, leading to rapid distension of the abdomen and splinting of the diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old child, who is not very active, presented with bruises on the back as well as on the chest. X-ray showed a radiolucent area around the ribs indicating callus formation. Which of the following is the most important investigation in this case?
Your Answer: Check child protection register
Correct Answer: Skeletal survey
Explanation:Because the initial chest X-ray returned an anomaly, a skeletal survey is the best option. Also known as a bone survey, the skeletal survey is a series of X-rays that will help analyse the structure of all the bones in the body. Because the child is not very active yet presents with bruising, the child protection register should also be checked but only after a skeletal survey has been conducted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the given electrolyte imbalances is a clinical feature of adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. The consequences of this deficiency are numerous electrolyte and acid-base imbalances, which include hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, and dehydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 8 year old boy presented with pain and swelling around the right eye. On examination there was no proptosis or ophthalmoplegia. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peri orbital cellulitis
Explanation:Infections of the superficial skin around the eyes are called periorbital, or preseptal, cellulitis. It is predominantly a paediatric disease. Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection involving the upper dermis which extends into the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Sinusitis is in sinuses. Orbital infections and conjunctivitis are within the eye.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy presented with a history of sleep disturbance for the past year. According to the parents, he has episodes in the middle of the night where he sits up in bed, unresponsive, eyes wide open, arms outstretched, and thrashing. During these episodes, he usually looks frightened, will cry out, and then goes back to sleep again. The event lasts for 2–3 minutes and can occur up to three times a night. The following day, he is tired and falls asleep at school. What is the most appropriate next step to be taken for this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe melatonin
Correct Answer: Request an EEG
Explanation:The most appropriate next step would be to request for an EEG (electroencephalogram).The two primary differential diagnoses for the clinical scenario presented would be night terrors (hypnopompic hallucinations) due to underlying narcolepsy or frontal lobe epilepsy.Though occult airway obstruction and obstructive sleep apnoea can cause sleep disturbances, the clinical scenario presented is more suggestive of neurological disorders.The hyper-motor activity, along with arm posturing (often dystonic in appearance) and multiple occurrences per night would favour epilepsy. The daytime somnolence could be secondary to the nocturnal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 8 year old presents with pain in both his wrists and knees. Swelling is also observed. He has a history of a right red eye which did not resolve with antibiotics. What should you exclude first?
Your Answer: Amblyopia
Correct Answer: Iritis
Explanation:The child has symptoms and signs suggestive of an inflammatory arthropathy. This is why he should firstly be referred for an eye exam to exclude iritis or treat it if present. – Amblyopia is not directly associated with inflammatory arthropathies unless they had recurrent ocular involvement.- Blepharitis is not an associated finding in a child with inflammatory arthropathy.- Episcleritis may occur, and is often non-sight threatening, and therefore would not be the main cause for concern.- Optic neuropathy in juvenile inflammatory arthritis has been reported, although it is rare.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 16 year old previously well male presents with a 4 day history of fever, lethargy and a generalized macular rash. There is no significant previous medical history and the patient has not travelled abroad either. Vitals are as follows: Temp: 38.5BP: 125/75mmHgPulse: 100/min On auscultation the chest was clear and no heart murmur was heard. Examination also reveals a non blanching widespread macular rash over the chest and abdomen. There is swelling of interphalangeal joints of both hands and feet associated with mild tenderness. Lymph nodes are palpable over the supraclavicular, axillary and inguinal areas. Abdominal examination reveals palpable mass on both right and left hypochondrium. Lab results are given below:Haemoglobin (Hb) 13.5 g/dlWhite cell count (WCC) 14.0 × 109/lPlatelets 380 × 109/lSodium 145 mmol/lPotassium 4.8 mmol/lCreatinine 89 μmol/lRheumatoid factor NegativeAntinuclear antibody NegativeAnti-dsDNA NegativeASO titre Not detectedElectrocardiogram (ECG) Sinus rhythmWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reiter’s syndrome
Correct Answer: Systemic Still’s disease
Explanation:People with Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (also known as Stills disease) can have recurrent fevers, a macular rash, joint pain, joint deformities, an enlarged liver and/or spleen, and can occasionally have polyserositis, lung involvement or pericardial effusions. Rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are usually negative. Treatment is with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the prognosis is better than for adult rheumatoid arthritis.In pauciarticular Still’s disease, antinuclear antibodies are present. Large joints are affected and most patients develop classic features of seronegative spondylarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old pre-schooler complains of ear pain and fever. He has taken paracetamol several times for relief. It is noted that he increases the volume of the television and has a symmetric loss of 40db on a hearing test. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: OM with effusion
Correct Answer: Otitis externa
Explanation:Increasing the volume of the TV and the child’s loss of hearing may suggest that he has otitis media with effusion but the fever and the ear pain and fever strongly points to otitis externa as the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Correct
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Which factor is most likely to trigger renin stimulation?
Your Answer: Hypovolaemia
Explanation:The most common physiological factors that influence renin secretion include renal perfusion pressure, renal sympathetic nerve activity, and tubular sodium chloride load.The perfusion pressure in the renal artery is the most profound parameter to influence renin secretion| when the renal perfusion pressure falls (i.e. hypovolaemia), renin secretion rises, and vice versa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl presents with a rash in her lower limbs. The rash appeared a few days after an upper respiratory infection and was associated with persistent haematuria. Renal biopsy revealed immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Immunoglobulin G (IgG) glomerular immune deposits are seen more commonly in HSP compared to IgA nephropathy.The presentation of the child is highly suggestive of Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP). It is an IgA-mediated, autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that targets the small vessels of the skin, GI tract, kidneys, and joints.It is most commonly seen in children aged 3 – 6years and is twice as common in boys than girls. Preceding viral URTI with low-grade pyrexia is common. The most common organism associated with HSP is, however, Group A streptococcal infection A.A purpuric rash is seen on the back of the legs and buttocks and can less frequently, affect the arms. Arthralgia is common (usually knees/ankles) in these patients. Abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea may occur. And half of the children with HSP have renal involvement. Rarely, it can lead to end-stage renal failure.Treatment includes adequate hydration, occasionally steroids, and other immunosuppressants. The disease can recur in 1 in 3 children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 16
Correct
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The following is true of power calculations for comparison of a numerical measurement between the two groups:
Your Answer: Should be performed before the study commences
Explanation:Power calculations are a important step in study design and preparation, but do not directly help with the interpretation of the results. They are used to determine how many subjects are needed in order to avoid errors in accepting or rejecting the null hypothesis. These calculations are not usually complex and for the best results, the power of the test should be set to above 80%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
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Question 17
Correct
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A premature male infant born at 35 weeks by emergency caesarean section, initially appears to be stable. However, over the next 24 hours, he develops worsening neurological function.Which one of the following processes is most likely to have occurred?
Your Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage
Explanation:Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences.Loss of autoregulation of cerebral blood flow is a pathophysiologic feature of germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Prematurity itself results in derangements in cerebral autoregulation. In some patients, a history of additional events that result in loss of autoregulation can be obtained. Furthermore, events that can result in beat-to-beat variability of cerebral blood flow may be identified in some patients.There may be no symptoms. The most common symptoms seen in premature infants include:- Breathing pauses (apnoea)- Changes in blood pressure and heart rate- Decreased muscle tone- Decreased reflexes- Excessive sleep- Lethargy- Weak suck- Seizures and other abnormal movements
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby boy presented to the paediatrician with yellow discolouration of his skin and sclera. His mother says his stools are pale. On examination, he was found to be below average weight. What is a likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: G6PD deficiency
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Pale stools suggest obstructive jaundice. Initially, the symptoms of biliary atresia are indistinguishable from those of neonatal jaundice, a usually harmless condition commonly seen in infants. However, infants with biliary atresia develop progressive conjugated jaundice, pale white stools and dark urine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is counselled about the changes that will occur in her body with puberty.In what order do these pubertal changes occur?
Your Answer: Growth of pubic hair, growth of axillary hair, breast buds
Correct Answer: Breast buds, growth of pubic hair, growth of axillary hair
Explanation:Three physical changes – breast budding, pubic hair growth, and axillary hair growth in the order mentioned precede menarche. These changes are due to oestrogen, a hormone essential for pubertal development.The various pubertal changes in males include:-Testicular growth: It is the first sign of puberty occurring at around 12 years of age (Range = 10 – 15 years).- Testicular volume: An increase in the volume of testicles to 4 ml indicates the onset of pubertyThe various pubertal changes in females include:- The first sign is breast development at around 11.5 years of age (range = 9-13 years)- Followed by the onset of height spurt reaching the maximum in puberty (at 12 years of age)- The final change that occurs is termed menarche at 13 (11-15) years of age.Some of the other pubertal changes include:- Gynecomastia may develop in boys- Asymmetrical breast growth may occur in girls- Diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding the treatment of eating disorders?
Your Answer: Hormone treatment with oestrogen should be used to treat bone loss in patients with anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Evidence-based self-help programme is first line in patients with bulimia
Explanation:Most individuals with eating disorders do not receive treatment. The treatment gap may involve individuals’ attitudes about accessing various types of treatment, as well as perceived barriers to seeking treatment. Therapies to be considered for the psychological treatment of anorexia nervosa include cognitive analytic therapy (CAT), cognitive behaviour therapy (CBT), interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), focal psychodynamic therapy and family interventions focused explicitly on eating disorders.The first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. Antidepressants may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.Acute pharmacologic treatment of anorexia nervosa is rarely required. However, vitamin supplementation with calcium should be started in patients, and although oestrogen has no established effect on bone density in patients with anorexia nervosa, oestrogen replacement (i.e., oral contraceptives) has been recommended for the treatment of osteopenia. Note: Oestrogen should not be used in children (due to premature fusion of the bones).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Adolescent Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy suffers a blow to the right side of his head with a hammer. On arrival at the emergency department, he is pronounced dead. Post-mortem findings will show which of the following features?
Your Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:An epidural hematoma occurs when there is bleeding between the dura mater (a tough fibrous layer of tissue between the brain and skull) and the skull bone. These occur when arteries are torn as a result of a blow to the head, and injury in the temple area is a common cause. Although the pattern of a lucid interval followed by later neurological symptoms is characteristic, only a minority of patients display this pattern of symptoms. Reported death rates from epidural hematoma vary widely, ranging from 5% to over 40%. Middle meningeal artery is frequently involved in such incidents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which one of the following fulfils the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: There is axillary freckling
Correct Answer: There is groin freckling and a plexiform neurofibroma
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disease caused by the mutation of the neurofibromin gene on Chromosome 17. The diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1 are two or more of the following:-6 or more cafe au lait macules-2 or more cutaneous neurofibroma or one plexiform Neurofibroma-Axillary of groin freckling -Optic pathway glioma -2 or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas of the iris seen on slit lamp examination)-Bony dysplasia (such as sphenoid wing dysplasia, bowing of the long bones, or pseudarthrosis)-First degree relative with neurofibromatosis type 1
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 16-month-old boy presented following a 20 min seizure. He was given 5 mg per rectum (PR) diazepam to terminate the seizure and is still only responding to voice 6 hours later. He was diagnosed with measles five days prior to this episode.Which of the following is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Febrile convulsion with drowsiness secondary to diazepam
Correct Answer: Encephalitis
Explanation:The most probable cause for the patient’s presenting symptoms is encephalitis secondary to measles infection.Encephalitis:Encephalitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It usually presents within 1–14 days of the rash, usually day 5. It may present with fever, headache, vomiting, stiff neck, meningeal irritation, drowsiness, seizures, reduced consciousness| 15% will have neurological sequelae| 10% mortality.Other options:- Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis occurs in 1 per 1000 measles cases. It is thought to be a postinfectious immune response. Clinical manifestations include fever, headache, neck stiffness, seizures and mental status changes. It could fit this presentation although it tends to present in the recovery phase of measles infection, typically two weeks after the exanthem. In contrast, encephalitis tends to occur within a few days of the rash.- The history is not that of a typical febrile seizure as it lasted >15 minutes. He has also not recovered consciousness at 4 hours. The diazepam should have been eliminated within 4 hours and so should no longer be contributing to his reduced level of consciousness. Also, the history states the recent diagnosis of measles, and so complications of measles should be considered.- Intracranial bleed secondary to thrombocytopenia: Measles is not known to cause thrombocytopenia.- Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (also known as Dawson’s encephalitis): This is an extremely rare complication of measles. It is a progressive degenerative disease of the central nervous system that occurs 7–10 years after a measles infection. The treatment for SSPE is mainly intraventricular interferon therapy through an Ommaya reservoir. The prognosis is poor, and it is usually fatal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 25
Incorrect
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An infant of 2 months is diagnosed with a ventricular septal defect. This congenital anomaly is most likely due to a developmental failure of which embryological structure?
Your Answer: Truncus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Endocardial cushions
Explanation:The heart is the first organ to form and become functional, emphasizing the importance of transport of material to and from the developing infant. It originates about day 18 or 19 from the mesoderm and begins beating and pumping blood about day 21 or 22. It forms from the cardiogenic region near the head and is visible as a prominent heart bulge on the surface of the embryo. Originally, it consists of a pair of strands called cardiogenic cords that quickly form a hollow lumen and are referred to as endocardial tubes. These then fuse into a single heart tube and differentiate into the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive ventricle, primitive atrium, and sinus venosus, starting about day 22. The primitive heart begins to form an S shape within the pericardium between days 23 and 28. The internal septa begin to form about day 28, separating the heart into the atria and ventricles, although the foramen ovale persists until shortly after birth. Between weeks five and eight, the atrioventricular valves form. The semilunar valves form between weeks five and nine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old presents to the physician with 2-week history of fever, chest pan, generalized stiffness, swollen wrists and fingers and lower extremity oedema bilaterally. There is a facial rash over her cheeks and palms. She complains that while combing her hair, she has started to notice hair loss. Based on these clinical findings, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor
Correct Answer: Low serum complement levels
Explanation:Complement activation plays a key role in the pathophysiology of SLE and it is recommended to continue monitoring serum levels of C3 and C4 to assess for disease activity. However, it is important to note that decreased serum complement is not consistently associated with disease flares.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A neonate of Asian parents presents with jaundice appearing less than 24 hours after birth. You are concerned about glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency. What is the mode of inheritance of this condition?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Correct Answer: X-linked
Explanation:Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is the most common enzyme deficiency in humans.It has a high prevalence in persons of African, Asian, and Mediterranean descent. It is inherited as an X-linked recessive disorder.G6PD deficiency is polymorphic, with more than 300 variantsG6PD deficiency can present as neonatal hyperbilirubinemia. Besides, persons with this disorder can experience episodes of brisk haemolysis after ingesting fava beans or being exposed to certain infections or drugs. Less commonly, they may have chronic haemolysis. However, many individuals with G6PD deficiency are asymptomatic.Most individuals with G6PD deficiency do not need treatment. However, they should be taught to avoid drugs and chemicals that can cause oxidant stress. Infants with prolonged neonatal jaundice as a result of G6PD deficiency should receive phototherapy with a bili light.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 28
Correct
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Which of the following conditions is associated with hypogonadism in boys?
Your Answer: Gigantism
Explanation:Hypogonadism is found to be a feature in gigantism also known as acromegaly, a condition caused by growth hormone abnormalities. The most common cause of gigantism is a pituitary adenoma. Hypogonadism exists among other endocrinopathies found in gigantism. Other causes of hypogonadism include Kleinfelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by premature testicular failure. The other options listed, primary hypothyroidism, teratoma, tuberous sclerosis and hepatoblastoma are all associated with precocious puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Angelman’s syndrome is characterized by a gene deletion in which of the following chromosomes?
Your Answer: Chromosome 2
Correct Answer: Chromosome 15
Explanation:Angelman Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. The features of this condition include intellectual disability, a delay in developmental milestones, and movement disorders. The features occur as a result of the deletion or mutation of the maternal copy of the UBE3A gene located on Chromosome 15q. Though individuals usually inherit one copy of this gene from each parent, only the maternal gene remains active in parts of the brain. This phenomenon is known as genetic imprinting, and is also seen in Prader-Willi syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl was brought to the emergency department following profuse vomiting. Further investigations revealed a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. About a month ago, she was admitted after she took an overdose of her mother's medication. Which of the following drugs can lead to her current presentation?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Iron
Explanation:Based on the history and clinical presentation, she most likely has iron toxicity.Iron can cause scarring of the gut mucosa. This explains her pyloric stenosis. This typically occurs at the pylorus as this is where iron tablets tend to pool and cause maximal tissue damage.Other options:- Citalopram: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) ingestion rarely causes serious consequences. It can rarely lead to serotonin syndrome (autonomic instability, mental status change, and increased neuromuscular tone).- Ibuprofen: While it may cause gastritis, ibuprofen does not cause pyloric/intestinal stenosis.- Thyroxine: An overdose of thyroxine will cause features of hyperthyroidism which are not present in the patient in question.- Zinc: High doses of zinc can cause abdominal cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 16 year old patient was admitted with walking difficulties and knee pain. Upon examination, his leg is externally rotated and is 2cm shorter. His ability to flex, abduct and medially rotate his leg is limited and when he flexes his hip, external rotation is increased. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Correct Answer: Slipped femoral epiphysis
Explanation:The clinical presentation is typical of a slipped femoral epiphysis, which refers to a fracture through the growth plate (physis), resulting in slippage of the overlying end of the femur. It is the most common hip disorder in adolescence. SCFEs usually cause groin pain on the affected side, but sometimes cause knee or thigh pain. The range of motion in the hip is restricted in internal (medial) rotation, abduction, and flexion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy was sent for an x-ray of the leg because he was complaining of pain and swelling. The x-ray showed the classic sign of Codman's triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Codman’s triangle is the triangular area of new subperiosteal bone that is created when a lesion, often a tumour, raises the periosteum away from the bone. The main causes for this sign are osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma, eumycetoma, and a subperiosteal abscess.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Correct
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A 12 year old female presents at her local emergency room with a complete loss of consciousness, intercostal retractions, no residual signs and no post-ictal phase. She later went on to have a full recovery. From the list of options, choose the most probable diagnosis.
Your Answer: Partial generalized seizure
Explanation:The symptoms of a partial generalized seizure are consistent with this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 1 day old baby girl is born with severe respiratory compromise. She is seen to have a scaphoid abdomen and an absent apex beat. Which anomaly does this baby have?
Your Answer: Situs inversus
Correct Answer: Bochdalek hernia
Explanation:Answer: Bochdalek herniaA Bochdalek hernia is one of two forms of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia, the other form being Morgagni hernia. A Bochdalek hernia is a congenital abnormality in which an opening exists in the infant’s diaphragm, allowing normally intra-abdominal organs (particularly the stomach and intestines) to protrude into the thoracic cavity. In the majority of patients, the affected lung will be deformed, and the resulting lung compression can be life-threatening. Bochdalek hernias occur more commonly on the posterior left side (85%, versus right side 15%).In normal Bochdalek hernia cases, the symptoms are often observable simultaneously with the baby’s birth. A few of the symptoms of a Bochdalek Hernia include difficulty breathing, fast respiration and increased heart rate. Also, if the baby appears to have cyanosis (blue-tinted skin) this can also be a sign. Another way to differentiate a healthy baby from a baby with Bochdalek Hernia, is to look at the chest immediately after birth. If the baby has a Bochdalek Hernia it may appear that one side of the chest cavity is larger than the other and or the abdomen seems to be scaphoid (caved in).Situs inversus (also called situs transversus or oppositus) is a congenital condition in which the major visceral organs are reversed or mirrored from their normal positions. The normal arrangement of internal organs is known as situs solitus while situs inversus is generally the mirror image of situs solitus. Although cardiac problems are more common than in the general population, most people with situs inversus have no medical symptoms or complications resulting from the condition, and until the advent of modern medicine it was usually undiagnosed. In the absence of congenital heart defects, individuals with situs inversus are homeostatically normal, and can live standard healthy lives, without any complications related to their medical condition. There is a 5–10% prevalence of congenital heart disease in individuals with situs inversus totalis, most commonly transposition of the great vessels. The incidence of congenital heart disease is 95% in situs inversus with levocardia.Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic disease that causes persistent lung infections and limits the ability to breathe over time. In people with CF, mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene cause the CFTR protein to become dysfunctional. When the protein is not working correctly, it’s unable to help move chloride — a component of salt — to the cell surface. Without the chloride to attract water to the cell surface, the mucus in various organs becomes thick and sticky. In the lungs, the mucus clogs the airways and traps germs, like bacteria, leading to infections, inflammation, respiratory failure, and other complications. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is a medical condition where a portion of the bowel dies. It typically occurs in new-borns that are either premature or otherwise unwell. Symptoms may include poor feeding, bloating, decreased activity, blood in the stool, or vomiting of bile.The exact cause is unclear. Risk factors include congenital heart disease, birth asphyxia, exchange transfusion, and premature rupture of membranes. The underlying mechanism is believed to involve a combination of poor blood flow and infection of the intestines. Diagnosis is based on symptoms and confirmed with medical imaging.Morgagni hernias are one of the congenital diaphragmatic hernias (CDH), and is characterized by herniation through the foramen of Morgagni. When compared to Bochdalek hernias, Morgagni hernias are:-anterior-more often right-sided (,90%)-small-rare (,2% of CDH)-at low risk of prolapseOnly ,30% of patients are symptomatic. New-borns may present with respiratory distress at birth similar to a Bochdalek hernia. Additionally, recurrent chest infections and gastrointestinal symptoms have been reported in those with previously undiagnosed Morgagni hernia.The image of the transverse colon is herniated into the thoracic cavity, through a mid line defect and this indicates that it is a Morgagni hernia since the foramen of a Morgagni hernia occurs in the anterior midline through the sternocostal hiatus of the diaphragm, with 90% of cases occurring on the right side.Clinical manifestations of congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) include the following:Early diagnosis – Right-side heart| decreased breath sounds on the affected side| scaphoid abdomen| bowel sounds in the thorax, respiratory distress, and/or cyanosis on auscultation| CDH can often be diagnosed in utero with ultrasonography (US), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or bothLate diagnosis – Chest mass on chest radiography, gastric volvulus, splenic volvulus, or large-bowel obstructionCongenital hernias (neonatal onset) – Respiratory distress and/or cyanosis occurs within the first 24 hours of life| CDH may not be diagnosed for several years if the defect is small enough that it does not cause significant pulmonary dysfunctionCongenital hernias (childhood or adult onset) – Obstructive symptoms from protrusion of the colon, chest pain, tightness or fullness the in chest, sepsis following strangulation or perforation, and many respiratory symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 15-day old baby was brought to the emergency department with constipation for 4 days. On examination, the abdomen of the baby was found to be distended and tender all over. No bowel sounds were heard. A sigmoid colon biopsy was carried out, which showed absent ganglion cells. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rectal atresia
Correct Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease
Explanation:Hirschsprung’s disease is characterized by congenital absence of the autonomic plexus (Meissner’s and Auerbach’s plexus) in the intestinal wall. Usually limited to the distal colon, it can occasionally involve the entire colon or even the small bowel. There is abnormal or absent peristalsis in the affected segment, resulting in continuous spasm of smooth muscle and partial/complete obstruction. This causes accumulation of intestinal contents and dilatation of proximal segment. Skip lesions are highly uncommon. This disease is seen early in life with 15% patients presenting in first month, 60% by 1 year of age and 85% by the age of 4 years. Symptoms include severe and complete constipation, abdominal distension and vomiting. Patients with involvement of ultra-short segments might have mild constipation with intervening diarrhoea. In older children, symptoms include failure to thrive, anorexia, and lack of an urge to defecate. On examination, an empty rectum is revealed with stool palpable high up in the colon. If not diagnosed in time, it can lead to Hirschsprung’s enterocolitis (toxic megacolon), which can be fulminant and lead to death. Diagnosis involves a barium enema or a rectal suction biopsy. Barium enema shows a transition in diameter between the dilated, normal colon proximal to the narrowed, affected distal segment. It is to be noted that barium enema should be done without prior preparation, which can dilate the abnormal segment, leading to a false-negative result. A 24-hour post-evacuation film can be obtained in the neonatal period – if the colon is still filled with barium, there is a high likelihood of Hirschsprung’s disease. Full-thickness rectal biopsy is diagnostic by showing the absence of ganglion cells. Acetylcholinesterase staining can be done to highlight the enlarged nerve trunks. Abnormal innervation can also be demonstrated by rectal manometry.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A normal 6-month-old child is NOT expected to do which of the following?
Your Answer: Lift head from prone position
Correct Answer: Sit unsupported for 10 minutes
Explanation:Milestones of 6 monthsSocial and EmotionalKnows familiar faces and begins to know if someone is a stranger Likes to play with others, especially parents Responds to other people’s emotions and often seems happy Likes to look at self in a mirror Language/CommunicationResponds to sounds by making sounds Strings vowels together when babbling (“ah,” “eh,” “oh”) and likes taking turns with the parent while making sounds Responds to own name Makes sounds to show joy and displeasure Begins to say consonant sounds (jabbering with “m,” “b”) Cognitive (learning, thinking, problem-solving)Looks around at things nearby Brings things to mouth Shows curiosity about things and tries to get things that are out of reach Begins to pass things from one hand to the other Movement/Physical DevelopmentRolls over in both directions (front to back, back to front) Begins to sit without support When standing, supports weight on legs and might bounce Rocks back and forth, sometimes crawling backwards before moving forward
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum?
Your Answer: The nodules nearly always ulcerate, often causing scarring
Correct Answer: It is associated with streptococcal infections
Explanation:Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Chronic or recurrent erythema nodosum is rare but may occur.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adults.The eruptive phase of erythema nodosum begins with flulike symptoms of fever and generalized aching. Arthralgia may occur and precedes the eruption or appears during the eruptive phase. Most lesions in infection-induced erythema nodosum heal within 7 weeks, but active disease may last up to 18 weeks. In contrast, 30% of idiopathic erythema nodosum cases may last more than 6 months. Febrile illness with dermatologic findings includes abrupt onset of illness with initial fever, followed by a painful rash within 1-2 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Which of the following immune responses occurs in Coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity
Correct Answer: Type IV hypersensitivity
Explanation:Celiac disease is classified as a Type IV hypersensitivity mediated by T-cell response. Negatively charged gliadin has been shown to induce interleukin 15 in the enteric epithelial cells, stimulating the proliferation of the natural killer cells and intraepithelial lymphocytes to express NK-G2D, a marker for natural killer T lymphocytes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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Which of the following can cause Torsades de Pointes?
Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Torsade de pointes is an uncommon and distinctive form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (VT) characterized by a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line.Conditions associated with torsade include the following:Electrolyte abnormalities – Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcaemiaEndocrine disorders – Hypothyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hyperaldosteronism, hypoglycaemiaCardiac conditions – Myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, myocarditis, bradyarrhythmia, complete atrioventricular (AV) block, takotsubo cardiomyopathyIntracranial disorders – Subarachnoid haemorrhage, thalamic hematoma, cerebrovascular accident, encephalitis, head injuryNutritional disorders – Anorexia nervosa, starvation, liquid protein diets, gastroplasty and ileojejunal bypass, celiac diseaseRisk factors for torsade include the following:Congenital long QT syndromeFemale genderAcquired long QT syndrome (causes of which include medications and electrolyte disorders such as hypokalaemia and hypomagnesemia)BradycardiaBaseline electrocardiographic abnormalitiesRenal or liver failure
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency with severe testicular pain and is diagnosed with suspected testicular torsion. He is scheduled for surgical exploration. The surgeon makes an incision on the skin and then the dartos muscle. Which of the following tissue layers will be incised next?
Your Answer: Visceral layer of the tunica vaginalis
Correct Answer: External spermatic fascia
Explanation:Coverings of the spermatic cord:Spermatic cord is covered by three concentric layers of fasciae, derived from the layers the of anterior abdominal wall. Developmentally, each covering is acquired as the processus vaginalis descends into the scrotum through the layers of the abdominal wall. The layers are:External spermatic fascia: It is derived from the external oblique muscle. It attaches to the margins of superficial inguinal ring.Cremasteric fascia: It is derived from the internal oblique muscle. It covers the cremaster muscle.Internal spermatic fascia: It is derived from the fascia transversalis (fascia covering the transversus abdominis muscle). It is attached to the margins of the deep inguinal ring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 41
Correct
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According to NICE guidelines, which of the following factors pose an increased risk of severe hyperbilirubinemia?
Your Answer: History of a previous sibling requiring phototherapy for jaundice
Explanation:Identify babies as being more likely to develop significant hyperbilirubinemia if they have any of the following factors:- gestational age under 38 weeks- a previous sibling with neonatal jaundice requiring phototherapy- mother’s intention to breastfeed exclusively- visible jaundice in the first 24 hours of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 42
Correct
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Question 43
Correct
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Gertrude is an 18 month old child who is developing normally. Which of the following should she be able to do?
Your Answer: Follow commands such as 'give me a doll please'
Explanation:At the age of 18 months, Gertrude should be able to follow a one step command. At this age she would also be capable of putting words together in 1 or 2 word phrases, scribbling, throwing a ball, and building a tower of four cubes. At 2 she should be able to feed herself with a spoon or a fork, copy a vertical line, ride a tricycle, kick a ball and balance on one foot. Activities such as jumping will follow later on in her development at 3 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which of the following actions will a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones be able to perform?
Your Answer: Stand on one leg for 3 - 5 seconds
Correct Answer: Pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor
Explanation:Among the given options a 2-year-old child with normal developmental milestones will be able to pull and push large wheeled toys and squat to play with toys on the floor.Other options:- Bouncing and catching a ball is learnt by the age of 5.- The ability to pedal a tricycle should be attained by 3 years of age, not 2.- A child can walk on tip-toe by 2.5 and run on tip-toe by (option D) 3 years of age, not 2.- The ability to momentarily maintain balance using one leg (option E) should be attained by 3 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 45
Incorrect
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Female twins are born. They are noted by the midwife to be identical. They separated in the womb after implantation but before day 8.What type of twin is this?
Your Answer: Monochorionic monoamniotic
Correct Answer: Monochorionic diamniotic
Explanation:A monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twin pregnancy is a subtype of monozygotic twin pregnancy. An MCDA pregnancy results from a separation of a single zygote at ,4-8 days (blastocyst) following formation. These fetuses share a single chorionic sac but have two amniotic sacs and two yolk sacs. It accounts for the vast majority (70-75%) of monozygotic twin pregnancies although only ,30% of all twin pregnancies. The estimated incidence is at ,1:400 pregnanciesThe layman term is that the twins are identical – in reality, they are phenotypically similar, and of course of the same gender.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the physician complaining of malaise and inability to participate in physical activities due to exhaustion. His vitals, including the blood pressure are within the normal range and the labs are as follows: sodium 145 mmol/lpotassium 2.8 mmol/lbicarbonate 30 mmol/lchloride 83 mmol/l (95-107)magnesium 0.5 mmol/l (0.75-1.05)glucose 5.0 mmol/lrenin 5.1 mmol/ml per h (3-4.3)aldosterone 975 mmol/l (330-830)urea 5.2 mmol/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gitelman’s syndrome
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes an imbalance of charged atoms (ions) in the body, including ions of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.The signs and symptoms of Gitelman syndrome usually appear in late childhood or adolescence. Common features of this condition include painful muscle spasms (tetany), muscle weakness or cramping, dizziness, and salt craving. Also common is a tingling or prickly sensation in the skin (paraesthesia), most often affecting the face. Some individuals with Gitelman syndrome experience excessive tiredness (fatigue), low blood pressure, and a painful joint condition called chondrocalcinosis. Studies suggest that Gitelman syndrome may also increase the risk of a potentially dangerous abnormal heart rhythm called ventricular arrhythmia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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Bone age would be delayed in which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trisomy 21 in a 10 year old boy
Explanation:Bone age is used to determine the maturation of a child’s bones’ and is used to detect pathological growth. This is done using the X-ray of the wrist. Several conditions can either advance or delay the bone age such that they may not match the child’s chronological age. Bone age is advanced in conditions where there are prolonged or elevated sex hormone levels such as precocious puberty, or in genetic overgrowth conditions such as Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. Bone age is delayed in constitutional growth delay, chronic ill health, endocrine disorders such as growth hormone deficiencies or hypothyroidism, genetic disorders such as Trisomy 21, Trisomy 18, and Turner’s syndrome. Obesity is unlikely to cause growth delay.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old boy was brought to clinic, as his parents were concerned regarding possible delayed puberty. He was otherwise well, played sports regularly and his academic performance was good. His height was 1.7m and weight was 70 kg. On examination, he had a small penis and testes, absent pubic hair, but no other abnormalities. Investigations revealed: Serum testosterone 4 nmol/L (9-35) Plasma follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) 1 U/L (1-7) Plasma luteinising hormone (LH) 1 U/L (1-10) Plasma prolactin 300 mU/L (<450) Plasma TSH 2 mU/L (0.5-5) Which one of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kallman's syndrome
Explanation:Klinefelter’s syndrome: The low follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), together with the low testosterone, suggests a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. We know that there is no mental retardation, and we are told that physical examination is normal and sense of smell would usually not be tested. Consequently a diagnosis of Kallman’s is suggested. We are not told of a family history of growth delay, thus this is unlikely to be constitutional delay. The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is normal, making hypothyroidism unlikely and this together with the normal prolactin make hypopituitarism most unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of abdominal pain. He has no features of puberty. A lower gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy shows patches of ulceration in the terminal ileum. What is the first-line treatment for this boy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)
Explanation:Based on the presentation, the patient is probably a case of Crohn’s disease. The first-line treatment of Crohn’s disease is exclusive enteral nutrition.Exclusive enteral nutrition (EEN)This involves drinking a protein-based formula exclusively for 6–8 weeks. It has been shown to have superior mucosal healing when compared with steroids. Furthermore, it is nutritionally advantageous when compared to steroids and does not have the side-effect profile of steroids.Other options:- Intravenous steroids: This is the first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) or Crohn’s disease if there is rectal disease (which is not the case here). Side-effects include adrenal suppression, behavioural effects, osteopenia and changes in adipose tissue distribution.- Oral steroids: This can be used if EEN is not possible. However, the side-effect profile is less favourable and is not as effective concerning mucosal healing.- Parental nutrition and surgery: They may be occasionally required in severe cases that have failed first-line therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding congenital hypothyroidism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may lead to prolongation of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
Explanation:Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) is inadequate thyroid hormone production in new-born infants. It can occur because of an anatomic defect in the gland, an inborn error of thyroid metabolism, or iodine deficiency.CH is the most common neonatal endocrine disorder, and historically, thyroid dysgenesis was thought to account for approximately 80% of cases. However, studies have reported a change in the epidemiology, with a doubling in incidence to around 1 in 1500 live new-borns.Infants with congenital hypothyroidism are usually born at term or after term. Symptoms and signs include the following:Decreased activityLarge anterior fontanellePoor feeding and weight gainSmall stature or poor growthJaundiceDecreased stooling or constipationHypotoniaHoarse cryProlonged neonatal jaundice or unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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Which of the given medical conditions does NOT produce adrenal insufficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Adrenal insufficiency is a serious medical condition that leads to inadequate secretion of corticosteroids. There are three main types of adrenal insufficiency: primary, secondary, and tertiary, based on the location of the abnormality. Primary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathology located inside the adrenal glands. The most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency is Addison’s disease, which is an autoimmune condition. Adrenoleukodystrophy is an X-linked neurodegenerative disease that also causes primary adrenal insufficiency. Secondary adrenal insufficiency is caused by any pathological impairment of the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus. The important causes of secondary adrenal insufficiency include iatrogenic (steroid use), pituitary tumours like craniopharyngioma, and conditions leading to panhypopituitarism like Sheehan’s syndrome. Tertiary adrenal insufficiency is caused by the deficiency of the corticotropin-releasing hormone. Hypoparathyroidism does not cause adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 14 year-old girl is found to have haemophilia B. What pathological problem does she have?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deficiency of factor IX
Explanation:Haemophilia B (also known as Christmas disease) is due to a deficiency in factor IX. Haemophilia A is due to a deficiency in factor VIII.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella
Explanation:Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 54
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the first symptom or sign of a congenital cataract in a 1-year old?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A strabismus
Explanation:The most obvious sign of a congenital cataract in a child less than 1 year would be a strabismus/squint. A 12 month old child is unable to complain of loss of visual acuity and the child is likely to see well in one eye ruling out clumsiness. Amblyopia may also be difficult to test at this age unless it presents with the strabismus. ‘White’ red reflexes usually only present in very mature congenital cataracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 12-year old girl was brought to the hospital with recurrent headaches for 6 months. Her physical examination revealed no abnormality. A CT scan of the head revealed a suprasellar mass with calcifications, eroding the surrounding sella turcica. The lesion is likely to represent:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Craniopharyngioma
Explanation:Craniopharyngiomas (also known as Rathke pouch tumours, adamantinomas or hypophyseal duct tumours) affect children mainly between the age of 5 and 10 years. It constitutes 9% of brain tumours affecting the paediatric population. These are slow-growing tumours which can also be cystic, and arise from the pituitary stalk, specifically the nests of epithelium derived from Rathke’s pouch. Histologically, this tumour shows nests of squamous epithelium which is lined on the outside by radially arranged cells. Calcium deposition is often seen with a papillary type of architecture.
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenomas are rare and mostly microadenomas. Paediatric astrocytoma’s usually occur in the posterior fossa. Although null cell adenomas can cause mass effect and give rise to the described symptoms, they are not suprasellar. Prolactinomas can also show symptoms of headache and disturbances in the visual field, however they are known to be small and slow-growing. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Palms and soles are relatively spared by which of the given medical conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Scarlet fever
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a childhood infectious disease caused by group A Streptococcus. It produces a papular rash, which is classically described as a sand-paper rash. The rash initially appears on the trunk, groin, and underarms and then spreads to extremities, usually sparing the palms and soles. Circumoral area is also spared, giving it pallor-like appearance. Diseases like erythema multiforme, contact dermatitis, staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, and rubella produce a rash that classically affects the palms and soles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy was brought to the emergency department following a boiling water scalding injury to his hand. On examination, his hand appears to be white but he does not complain of any pain. What is the explanation for the absence of pain in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurones
Explanation:The clinical scenario provided is highly suggestive of third-degree burns (or full-thickness burns) that may have invaded the deeper levels up to dermis, evident from the insensate nature of the lesion.Degrees of Burns:- First degree burns are superficial second-degree burns.- Second-degree burns are just deeper than that of first-degree burns but vary enormously in other properties.- Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns which are leathery in consistency, and insensate. These burns do not heal on their own. The sensory neurons present in the skin at the deeper levels are destroyed completely and hence provide a paradoxical lack of pain.- Fourth-degree burns involving the subcutaneous tissues, tendons, and bones are very difficult to manage.Assessment of the extent of the burns for the treatment employs specialized charts, such as Lund and Browder charts and Wallace rule of nines.The Lund and Browder chart is, however, considered the most accurate.Wallace’s Rule of Nines can be used for children >16 years: – Head + neck = 9%- Each arm = 9%- Each anterior part of leg = 9%- Each posterior part of leg = 9%- Anterior chest = 9%- Posterior chest = 9%- Anterior abdomen = 9%- Posterior abdomen = 9%
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A term baby with a birth weight of 4.5 kg with meconium aspiration syndrome is intubated and ventilated. Conventional ventilation was unsuccessful and so a trial of high-frequency oscillatory ventilation has commenced. Settings are mean airway pressure 14 cmH2O, delta P 25, rate 10 Hz, FiO2 1.0. Baby’s oxygen saturations are 84%. Blood gas shows pH 7.32, CO2 6.5 kPa, BE –4. Chest X-ray shows poorly inflated lungs.What is the first change that should be made to the ventilation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase mean airway pressure
Explanation:The baby needs more oxygen saturation which could be attempted by increasing the mean airway pressureAfter initial resuscitation and stabilization, the following should be the ventilator settings used:Rate: 30-40/minutePeak inspiratory pressure (PIP) – determined by adequate chest wall movement.An infant weighing less than 1500 grams: 16-28 cm H2O.An infant weighing greater than 1500 grams: 20-30 cm H2O. Positive end expiratory pressure (PEEP): 4 cm of H2O OR 5-6 cm if FiO2 > 0.90.FiO2: 0.4 to 1.0, depending on the clinical situation.Inspiratory time: 0.3-0.5 sec.After 15 to 30 minutes, check arterial blood gases and pH.If the PaO2 or the O2 saturation is below accepted standards, the FiO2 can be raised to a maximum of 1.0. If the PaO2 or O2 saturation is still inadequate, the mean airway pressure can be raised by increasing either the PIP, PEEP, inspiratory time or the rate, leaving inspiratory time constant.If the PaCO2 is elevated, the rate or peak inspiratory pressure can be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A midwife calls you from the postnatal ward. A baby has been born to a mother who had not booked at the hospital. Her notes are not available and she does not speak English. However, her partner has managed to communicate that Zika virus had been confirmed in pregnancy. The midwife wants to know if it is safe for the mother to breastfeed the baby in the meantime.What is the MOST appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encourage breastfeeding
Explanation:Possible Zika virus infections have been identified in breastfeeding babies, but Zika virus transmission through breast milk has not been confirmed. Additionally, we do not yet know the long-term effects of Zika virus on young infants infected after birth. Because current evidence suggests that the benefits of breastfeeding outweigh the risk of Zika virus spreading through breast milk, CDC continues to encourage mothers to breastfeed, even if they were infected or lived in or travelled to an area with risk of Zika.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presented with generalised excessive hair growth, especially on her limbs. Which one of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She is on phenytoin to control seizures
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are most likely due to phenytoin intake.Note:Hypertrichosis occurs in 5–12% of patients on phenytoin and is most prominent on the extremities. Other options:- Hypertrichosis is the excess hair growth, whereas hirsutism is the development of male-pattern-dependent hair growth, as seen in polycystic ovarian syndrome. – A Becker’s naevus is associated with localised hypertrichosis in the naevus. – Cyclosporine intake can typically lead to diffuse hair growth that begins within 2–4 weeks of starting the drug. – Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is associated with variable hypertrichosis occurring on the eyebrows, face, limbs and mid-back.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 7-week-old baby girl has a bright red, well-circumscribed and lobulated lesion developing on her right temple that wasn't noted at birth, but is now 5 mm in diameter.What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress
Explanation:Capillary haemangiomas are one of the most common benign tumours of infancy. They are benign endothelial cell neoplasms that are typically absent at birth and characteristically have rapid growth in infancy with spontaneous involution later in life. This is in contrast to another known group of childhood vascular anomalies, vascular malformations. Vascular malformations, such as lymphangiomas and arteriovenous malformations, are present at birth and are characterized by very slow growth with persistence into adult life. The indications for treatment can be divided into systemic, ophthalmic, and dermatologic reasons. Systemic reasons for intervention include congestive heart failure, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, and nasopharyngeal obstruction. Ophthalmic indications for intervention include occlusion of the visual axis, optic nerve compression, severe proptosis, and anisometropia. Dermatologic indications for intervention include maceration and erosion of the epidermis, infection, and cosmetic disfigurement.The first-line treatment of capillary haemangiomas is simple observation. Since most of these lesions regress on their own, there is no need to intervene unless one of the above criteria is met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rubella
Explanation:The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 63
Incorrect
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An 18 month old baby presents with sudden onset of marked cyanosis and stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body
Explanation:Stridor is a sign of upper airway obstruction. One of the most common causes of stridor in children is laryngomalacia. In the absence of laryngomalacia, stridor presenting with respiratory distress, few chest signs and no preceding coryza symptoms or fever all point to the inhalation of a foreign object. This is common in children, with a peak incidence between 1 and 2 years of age. This child did not present with a high temperature, usually indicative of epiglottitis . The incidence of epiglottis has decreased due to the H. Influenza type b vaccine. Additionally viral croup and bronchiolitis present with upper respiratory tract infection. Asthma rarely presents with stridor but is rather associated with a wheeze.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 64
Incorrect
-
A 3-year-old was brought to the ED after falling down while playing. The mother reports hearing a popping sound when his face hit the floor. Examination revealed swelling and bruising on the right mandible. Which of the following investigations should be ordered next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Facial XR
Explanation:The swelling and bruising on the mandible needs to be checked for fractures. A facial X-ray can adequately visualize this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 65
Incorrect
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An 8 year old male child of Afro-Caribbean descent complains of acute abdominal pain. Clinical examination reveals a soft abdomen. The boy is tachycardic and has an Hb of 6 g/dl. His mother says she noticed fresh rectal bleeding. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's Diverticulum
Explanation:Compared to the rest of the options, Meckel’s diverticulum with ectopic gastric mucosa seems to be the most probable diagnosis, as it can lead to fresh bleeding.Fresh red bleeding can be caused by haemorrhoids, polyps or a massive GI bleed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
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Question 66
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions do NOT result in polyuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Polyuria is defined as a total increase in the urine output or > 2L/m2 of daily urine produced in children. Polyuria can be a symptom of a vast number of medical conditions. The commonest and most important disease having polyuria as the main symptom is diabetes mellitus. Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus also results in polyuria along with polydipsia. Other conditions that lead to an increase in the urine output are renal failure, acute tubular necrosis, and exposure to high altitude. Hyperkalaemia does not result in polyuria| rather hypokalaemia can be an associated finding with polyuria in the case of diuretic abuse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
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Question 67
Incorrect
-
Which is a sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splinter haemorrhages
Explanation:Infective endocarditis (IE) is defined as an infection of the endocardial surface of the heart.Fever, possibly low-grade and intermittent, is present in 90% of patients with IE. Heart murmurs are heard in approximately 85% of patients.One or more classic signs of IE are found in as many as 50% of patients. They include the following:- Petechiae: Common, but nonspecific, finding- Subungual (splinter) haemorrhages: Dark-red, linear lesions in the nail beds -Osler nodes: Tender subcutaneous nodules usually found on the distal pads of the digits- Janeway lesions: Nontender maculae on the palms and soles- Roth spots: Retinal haemorrhages with small, clear centres| rareSigns of neurologic disease, which occur in as many as 40% of patients, include the following:- Embolic stroke with focal neurologic deficits: The most common neurologic sign- Intracerebral haemorrhage- Multiple microabscessesOther signs of IE include the following:- Splenomegaly- Stiff neck- Delirium- Paralysis, hemiparesis, aphasia- Conjunctival haemorrhage- Pallor- Gallops- Rales- Cardiac arrhythmia- Pericardial rub- Pleural friction rub
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions result in a port wine stain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sturge-Weber syndrome
Explanation:Various types of birthmarks are commonly seen in children of different age groups. Birthmarks can be broadly classified as pigmented and vascular birthmarks. Port-wine stain (nevus flammeus) is an example of a vascular birthmark, and is characterized by a reddish-purple discoloration of the skin due to abnormal underlying skin vasculature. Port-wine stain has also been associated with vascular diseases like Sturge-weber syndrome, which is a congenital neurocutaneous disorder. In Sturge-weber syndrome, the port-wine stain affects the skin around the ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old woman presents with a 7 month history of secondary amenorrhoea and three months history of galactorrhoea. She has been otherwise well. She had menarche at the age of 12 and has otherwise had regular periods. She has been sexually active for approximately one year and has occasionally used condoms for contraception. She smokes five cigarettes daily and occasionally smokes cannabis.On examination, she appears well, and clinically euthyroid, has a pulse of 70 bpm and blood pressure of 112/70 mmHg.Investigations show:Serum oestradiol 130 nmol/L (130-600)Serum LH 4.5 mU/L (2-20)Serum FSH 2.2 mU/L (2-20)Serum prolactin 6340 mU/L (50-450)Free T4 7.2 pmol/L (10-22)TSH 2.2 mU/L (0.4-5.0)What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:The patient has hyperprolactinaemia with otherwise normal oestradiol, FSH and LH. This is highly suggestive of Prolactinoma rather than a non functioning tumour.In polycystic ovaries, there is increase in the level of LH while FSH is normal or low.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the hospital with complaints of fever, painful joints, and a rash. Her parents insist that she was otherwise well except for a history of sore throat 2 weeks before.On examination, she appears quite unwell with a temperature reading of 38.5°C. She was found to be tachycardic, hypertensive and with an erythematous rash with raised edges noted on the anterior aspect of her abdomen. Her left ankle and right elbow joints are swollen, and she has multiple painless subcutaneous nodules under her skin. Auscultation revealed an apical mid-diastolic murmur. Blood investigations reveal leucocytosis and raised C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) was also above normal limits for her gender and age. An ECG confirms the presence of a tachycardia, a prolonged PR interval, and flat inverted T waves.What is the most probable diagnosis for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this child would be rheumatic fever due to a previous history of rheumatic fever, evidence of streptococcal disease from a throat swab, a raised ASO titre and a positive streptococcal antigen test or a leukocytosis.Acute Rheumatic Fever:ARF occurs because of an abnormal immune response to a streptococcal antigenic component. It has a latent period of 1–3 weeks and is more common in the lower socio-economic classes. It peaks at around 5–15 years of age and affects the blood vessels, joints, nervous system and subcutaneous tissues. It is characterised as an autoimmune disease, and there is a risk of rheumatic fever occurring after infection in 3% of the population. The recurrence is greater in younger children and increases with each attack. Duckett-Jones criteria:The diagnostic criteria for acute rheumatic fever.Major: – Pancarditis- Chorea (Sydenham’s) – Polyarthritis (flitting)- Erythema marginatum- Subcutaneous nodulesMinor criteria include the presence of arthralgia, fever, prolonged PR interval, raised ESR, raised CRP.Note that:To make the diagnosis of rheumatic fever: Two major and/or one major with two minor criteria are required. Evidence of a recent streptococcal infection with a raised ASO titre or an antiribonuclease B level is sufficient. Exceptions to this rule are mentioned below:- Chorea alone is diagnostic.- Insidious or late-onset carditis with no other explanation.- Rheumatic recurrence: The presence of one major and one minor criterion with a prior streptococcal disease that is recurring.Consequences of pericarditis include heart block, pericardial effusion, tachycardia, cardiomegaly, pericardial friction rub, congestive cardiac failure, valvular disease and a Carey–Coombes apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.New heart murmurs are often audible, including those of mitral regurgitation and aortic regurgitation. Skin nodules affect the perivascular tissues and are non-specific lesions resulting from fibroid degeneration.Management:Medication includes aspirin for the acute phase, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for arthritis, prednisolone for severe carditis, and high-dose penicillin for immediate management with antibiotic prophylaxis in the long term. Antibiotics may include penicillin V, erythromycin or benzylpenicillin. Diazepam and haloperidol may be required to control the chorea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl was brought to the OPD with a history of a large swelling on the side of her neck with associated lymph node swellings in her neck and axilla. Which if the following investigations will you order next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymph node biopsy
Explanation:As there is lymphadenopathy already present in this patient, doing a biopsy of the lymph nodes will rule out metastasis of any underlying tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 2-week-old infant is suffering from hydrocephalus that has developed secondary to congenital spina bifida. Where in the brain is the CSF formed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Choroid plexuses
Explanation:CSF is produced mainly by a structure called the choroid plexus in the lateral, third and fourth ventricles. CSF flows from the lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the interventricular foramen (also called the foramen of Monro). The third ventricle and fourth ventricle are connected to each other by the cerebral aqueduct (also called the Aqueduct of Sylvius). CSF then flows into the subarachnoid space through the foramina of Luschka (there are two of these) and the foramen of Magendie (only one of these).Absorption of the CSF into the blood stream takes place in the superior sagittal sinus through structures called arachnoid villi . When the CSF pressure is greater than the venous pressure, CSF will flow into the blood stream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
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Question 73
Incorrect
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Which of the following conditions is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial adenomatous polyposis
Explanation:Familial adenomatous polyposis can have different inheritance patterns.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the APC gene, it is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder. In most cases, an affected person has one parent with the condition.When familial adenomatous polyposis results from mutations in the MUTYH gene, it is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, which means both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Most often, the parents of an individual with an autosomal recessive condition each carry one copy of the mutated gene, but do not show signs and symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 6 week old female patient was brought by her mother to the emergency department with icterus. Although she's had a good appetite, and breast-feeding well, she hasn't gained any weight. Her mother noticed that her stools are pale while her urine is noticeably dark. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:Biliary atresia is a rare condition that usually becomes symptomatic 2 to 8 weeks after birth. It can be congenital or acquired. Typical symptoms include jaundice, weight loss, dark urine and pale stools.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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In term babies with persistent jaundice, what is the time period over which one must consider biliary atresia as the probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:After a period of 14 days, if jaundice persists in a term new-born, having ruled out the other possibilities, biliary atresia should be considered as a possible diagnosis.Biliary atresia is a rare but serious condition. Symptoms include obstructive jaundice (dark urine and pale stool). Management:Surgery within 8 weeks is recommended. Survival is around 90% using current treatment regimes. Without treatment, children will survive to around 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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Absence of which of the following milestones warrants further assessment in a 15-month-old child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stand holding onto furniture
Explanation:By 15 months, it’s common for many toddlers to:- say three to five words.- understand and follow simple commands.- point to one body part.- walk alone and begin to run.- climb on furniture.- make marks with a crayon.- imitate activities, such as housework.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
Which of following not seen in niacin deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Pellagra occurs as a result of niacin (vitamin B-3) deficiency. Niacin is required for most cellular processes. Since tryptophan in the diet can be converted to niacin in the body, both of these need to be deficient for pellagra to develop.The classical triad of symptoms is diarrhoea, dermatitis and dementia.The first sign is reddened skin with superficial scaling in areas exposed to sunlight, heat and friction. This may resemble severe sunburn then gradually subsides leaving a dusky brown-red colouration. The rash is usually symmetrical with a clear edge between affected and unaffected skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
A thin 16-year-old girl has bilateral parotid swelling with thickened calluses on the dorsum of her hand. What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Bulimia nervosa is a condition in which a person is involved in binge eating and then purging. This patient has swollen parotid glands. The glands swell in order to increase saliva production so that the saliva lost in the vomiting is compensated. This patient also has thickened calluses on the back of her hand. This is known as Russell’s sign. This occurs because of putting fingers in the mouth again and again to induce the gag reflex and vomit. The knuckles get inflamed in the process after coming in contact with the teeth multiple times.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old girl presents to the OBGYN after having unprotected. She is found to be 5 days pregnant. The fertilized tissue is at which stage of development?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:Time- EventWeek 1: ImplantationWeek 2: Formation of bilaminar diskWeek 3: Formation of primitive streakFormation of notochordGastrulationWeek 4: Limb buds begin to formNeural tube closesHeart begins to beatWeek 10: Genitals are differentiated
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 80
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 81
Incorrect
-
A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococci viridans
Explanation:Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy presented in the emergency department with a cough and knee swelling after falling on the road. He had a non-blanching rash on his buttocks and investigations revealed: PT=13, APTT=71, Hgb=11, WBC=8, Plt=200. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemophilia
Explanation:From the options mentioned here, the closest diagnosis is haemophilia. This is a mixed picture, as a purpuric rash on the buttocks does not correlate with this diagnosis. However, the most appropriate diagnosis is haemophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old girl presents with multiple non-healing ulcers, poor dentition, bleeding gums and pale conjunctivae. She also complains of easy fatiguability.What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:The clinical scenario presented is highly suggestive of vitamin C deficiency (Scurvy).Vitamin C is found in citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, Brussel sprouts, cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage and spinach. Deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue. Scurvy is associated with severe malnutrition as well as drug and alcohol abuse, and those living in poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.Symptoms and signs include:- Follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage- Ecchymosis- Gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums- Sjogren’s syndrome- Arthralgia- Oedema- Impaired wound healing- Generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia and depression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
A baby is born with complications including microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly and elevated total bilirubin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation:CMV infection is usually asymptomatic in adults. However, if the mother is infected for the first time during pregnancy then there is high chances of this infection passing on to the foetus. CMV infection can cause blindness, deafness, learning difficulties, restricted growth etc. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex, syphilis and HIV do not present with these classical signs of CMV infection in new-borns. It is estimated that 10 stillbirths occur in England and Wales every year due to CMV infection. The foetus is most at risk in early pregnancy. There is no effective prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 85
Incorrect
-
A child is admitted with a febrile illness. Which of the following is of concern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 6 month old with a systolic blood pressure of 60
Explanation:Age (years) Respiratory rate (per minute) Heart rate (per minute) Systolic blood pressure<1 30-40 110-160 70-901-2 25-35 100-150 80-952-5 25-30 95-140 80-1005-12 20-25 80-120 90-110>12 15-20 60-100 100-120Adapted from Advanced Paediatric Life Support Manual
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
An 8-year-old girl presented to the outpatient clinic with fever, pain and discharge from her left ear. Which of the following antibiotics should be used first?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Amoxicillin has high efficacy against haemophilus influenza and streptococcus pneumonia, the most common organisms of otitis media. It is an oral drug with high bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle
Explanation:Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
Which of the following does not cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meckel's diverticulum
Explanation:Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum and is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract, occurring in about 2% of people. It is caused by incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct and consists of a congenital sacculation of the antimesenteric border of the ileum. Symptoms are uncommon but include lower GI bleeding, bowel obstruction, and inflammation (diverticulitis). Causes of upper GI bleeding in neonates:Swallowed maternal bloodCoagulopathies including haemorrhagic disease of the new-bornStress gastritis & stress ulcersDrugs (NSAIDs, heparin, indomethacin used for patent duct closure, dexamethasone)Causes of upper GI bleeding in children 1 month to 1 year:GORDGastritis (with or without Helicobacter pylori infection)Crohn diseaseDrugs (NSAIDs)Zollinger-Ellison syndromeCauses of upper GI bleeding in children 1 -2 years:Peptic ulcer diseaseZollinger-Ellison syndromeBurns (Curling ulcer)Head trauma (Cushing ulcer)SepsisCauses of upper GI bleeding in older than 2 years:Oesophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension (most commonly portal vein thrombosis and biliary atresia)Duodenal ulcersOesophagitisGastritisMallory-Weiss tears
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
A woman gives birth to a baby at 40 weeks of gestation via Caesarean section because of pathological cardiotocography. The baby looks healthy and she has an Apgar score of 9, however, her RR is increased. The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN)
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the new-born (TTN) is the commonest cause of respiratory distress in new-borns and self-limiting. It can affect any new-born shortly after birth. Its most prominent feature is tachypnoea. Nasal flaring, grunting, or intercostal retractions may also be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 10-month-old boy is brought to clinic. His parents are concerned because two days ago, he met another child with mumps. Which is the most appropriate strategy for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do nothing now but give MMR at the appropriate age
Explanation:Immunity against mumps develops over a long time. There is nothing to be done except to proceed with the usual vaccination schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old visibly anxious female, known to have HIV, presents to the clinic with blurring of vision and blind spots in her field of vision. Her last CD4 count was reported to be 45 cells/mL. Which of the following complications of HIV has most likely occurred that has resulted in her ocular damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:The most common etiological agent for retinitis in HIV infected patients is cytomegalovirus (88.63% of retinitis in HIV/AIDS patients). Most patients have a CD4 lymphocyte count less than 50/μL, which can represent the susceptibility to this type of retinitis when lymphocyte count falls below this threshold. The treatment consists of systemic intravenous administration of Ganciclovir or Foscarnet at a first stage of induction, followed by the maintenance treatment with oral administration of Ganciclovir.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- HIV
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Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 12 year old girl presented with pallor and a rash over her lower limbs after 4 days of bloody diarrhoea. Lab investigations showed proteinuria and deranged renal function. The most likely diagnosis will be?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)
Explanation:Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome affects children and is characterised by abdominal pain, a purpuric rash over the body, generalized pallor, haematuria and bloody diarrhoea. There is always a history of preceding diarrhoea caused usually by E.coli and it affects the renal system causing haematuria and deranged renal function tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of metformin used in Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases insulin production
Explanation:Metformin works by improving the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin, which results in a reduction of circulating insulin levels. Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis and it also increases the glucose uptake by peripheral tissues and reduces fatty acid oxidation. Metformin has a positive effect on the endothelium and adipose tissue independent of its action on insulin and glucose levels.Metformin was the first insulin sensitising drug (ISD) to be used in PCOS to investigate the role of insulin resistance in the pathogenesis of the syndrome Several effects have been reported as related to metformin in PCOS patients including restoring ovulation, reducing weight, reducing circulating androgen levels, reducing the risk of miscarriage and reducing the risk of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). Other studies have reported that the addition of metformin to the ovarian stimulation regime in invitro fertilization (IVF) improves the pregnancy outcome. These effects will be addressed individually.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about Kwashiorkor Protein Energy Malnutrition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Children affected have generalised oedema
Explanation:Protein energy malnutrition often presents in two common forms, Kwashiorkor and Marasmus. Kwashiorkor is characterised by a protein deficiency with an additional inadequate calorie intake. As a result, affected children present with oedema, muscular atrophy, and their weight for age is 60-80% of the expected weight. Their cutaneous tissue is however preserved. Marasmus on the other hand is characterised by a severe calorie deficiency leading to atrophy of the muscles and adipose tissue, with weight loss being less than 60% of the normal. In both cases, if the child is not promptly rehabilitated, the malnutrition could cause irreversible damage, such as hepatic, cardiac and renal impairments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nutrition
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
Which of the following features is least likely to be present in a 14-year-old girl with Down's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infertility
Explanation:A patient with Down’s syndrome is likely to be subfertile rather than infertile.Down’s syndrome:The clinical features of Down’s syndrome include:- Face: upslanting palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in iris, protruding tongue, small ears, and round/flat face- Flat occiput- Single palmar crease, pronounced ‘sandal gap’ in the first interdigital space of the feet.- Hypotonia- Congenital heart defects (40-50%)- Duodenal atresia- Hirschsprung’s diseaseThe cardiac complications in these patients include:- Endocardial cushion defect (40%)- Ventricular septal defect (30%)- Secundum atrial septal defect (10%)- Tetralogy of Fallot (5%)- Isolated patent ductus arteriosus (5%)The complications that occur later in the life of the patient include:- Subfertility: Males are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis. Females, however, are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.- Learning difficulties- Short stature- Repeated respiratory infections (+hearing impairment from glue ear)- Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia- Hypothyroidism- Alzheimer’s disease- Atlantoaxial instability
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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Which of the following skills would a 1-year-old girl be able to demonstrate, assuming that her developmental growth is normal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Understanding of object permanence
Explanation:Among the options provided, a 1-year-old child will be able to understand object permanence e.g. understands that objects continue to exist even when they can’t be seen, e.g. looking for a fallen toy.At the age of 1 year, children should have developed an accurate pincer grip and be able to see and co-ordinate and manipulate fairly small objects such as a raisin.Gross motor development varies, but the average 1-year-old should be able to stand and cruise around furniture or walk with their hands held but not necessarily walk unaided.Drinking from a cup will become established at around 15 months and scribbling at 18 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old unimmunized child presents to paediatric emergency with sudden onset fever, drooling and soft stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epiglottitis
Explanation:Epiglottitis is characterized by the abrupt onset of severe symptoms. Without airway control and medical management, symptoms may rapidly progress to respiratory obstruction and death in a matter of hours.Usually, no prodromal symptoms occur in children. Fever is usually the first symptom, and temperatures often reach 40°C. Acute epiglottitis may result in sudden, complete upper airway obstruction. Classic signs in children are four D’s: drooling, dyspnoea, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What are the chances of offspring developing cystic fibrosis if one of the parents, more specifically the mother, is suffering from the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depends on genetic makeup of partner
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis has an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that a person might be a carrier of the disease without developing it. If the unaffected partner is a carrier, then there is a 50% chance of inheritance and another 50% chance of having a child who is a carrier. However, if the partner is not a carrier, the offspring will not develop the disease but the possibility of being a carrier raises up to 100%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A new-born child is not moving his left arm properly. He had shoulder dystocia during childbirth. His arm is hanging down with the shoulder internally rotated, elbow extended, forearm pronated and wrist flexed. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erb palsy
Explanation:Erb’s palsy is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically the severing of the upper trunk C5–C6 nerves.The infant with an upper plexus palsy (C5-C7) keeps the arm adducted and internally rotated, with the elbow extended, the forearm pronated, the wrist flexed, and the hand in a fist. In the first hours of life, the hand also may appear flaccid, but strength returns over days to months.The right side is injured in 51% of cases. Left side occurs in 45% of patients and bilateral injuries, in 4%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old asthmatic boy is brought to the emergency department with severe stridor, wheeze, and lip swelling following the ingestion of a cashew nut at a birthday party.Which of the following can be considered an acceptable treatment option for this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000
Explanation:The patient is suffering from an anaphylactic reaction to the cashew nut he consumed.Anaphylaxis:Anaphylaxis is an acute, rapidly progressing, potentially life-threatening IgE mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction.It involves the release of mediators from mast cells, basophils and inflammatory cells. It is characterised by oedematous swelling of the airway mucosa giving rise to dyspnoea and respiratory distress.The most common cause of anaphylaxis in children is a food allergy.Risk factors for death in patients with anaphylaxis include asthma, age 11+, peanut allergy, and delay in adrenaline administration.Management of anaphylaxis includes:- Resuscitation – ABCD- Remove the allergen- IM adrenaline is given at ten microgram/kg or Nebulised adrenaline 5ml 1:1,000- IV Hydrocortisone is given at 4mg/kg- pro re nata IV fluid support. – Followed by observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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