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Question 1
Incorrect
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When looking at the JVP what does the c wave signify:
Your Answer: Ventricular diastole
Correct Answer: Isovolumetric ventricular contraction
Explanation:The C wave signifies a rise in the atrial pressure during isovolumetric contraction due to the tricuspid valve bulging into the atria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 2
Correct
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The immunoglobulin found in the highest concentration in humans is
Your Answer: IgG
Explanation:Representing approximately 75% of serum antibodies in humans, IgG is the most common type of antibody found in the circulation. IgG molecules are created and released by plasma B cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
- Physiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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The branche(s) of the left coronary artery are
Your Answer: Posterior descending artery: no comes from right coronary artery
Correct Answer: A and b
Explanation:Posterior descending artery comes from Right coronary artery. The anterior interventricular artery is otherwise known as the anterior descending branch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following acts on the pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice that is rich in enzymes?
Your Answer: Gastrin
Correct Answer: CCK
Explanation:CCK has a primary action of increasing the motility of the gallbladder by contracting the muscles in the mucosa of the gall bladder. Apart from this, it augments the action of secretin resulting in the production of an alkaline pancreatic juice. It increases the synthesis of enterokinase, inhibits gastric emptying and may also enhance the motility of the small intestine and colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT associated with the development of aortic regurgitation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Aortic insufficiency, is often due to the aortic root dilation, which is idiopathic in over 80% of cases, but otherwise may result from aging, syphilitic aortitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, aortic dissection, Bechet’s disease, reactive arthritis and systemic hypertension. Additionally, aortic insufficiency has been linked to the use of some medications and other potential causes that affect the valve directly including Marfan’s syndrome, Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, ankylosing spondylitis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. In acute cases of aortic insufficiency, the main causes are infective endocarditis, aortic dissection or trauma. Dilated cardiomyopathy is associated with the development of mitral regurgitation, not aortic regurgitation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department with decreased consciousness, weakness and dehydration. Which serum electrolyte would most likely be low in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Na+
Explanation:Hyponatremia is a sodium level below 135 mEq/L. Signs and symptoms may include: nausea with vomiting, fatigue, headache or confusion, cramps or spasm, irritability and restlessness and severe cases may lead to seizures and comma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluids & Electrolytes
- Pathology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Afferent A δ fibers from nociceptors terminate primarily on neurons in which lamina:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: I and V
Explanation:Nociceptors are receptors of pain sensation. There are 2 primary afferent/sensory pain fibers which transmit impulses from the receptor to the CNS, specifically to the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. The two fibers are A δ and C fibers. The dorsal horn of the spinal cord is the relay centre for sensory information converging from the periphery. Grey matter of the dorsal horn is subdivided in to laminae based on cytoarchitecture. C fibers terminate in lamina II the substantia gelatinosa. A δ fibers terminate primarily in lamina I but some project more deeply to terminate in lamina V.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Peristalsis is an example of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enteric nervous system
Explanation:Peristalsis is a type of contraction where radial symmetrical contraction and relaxation of muscles propagates food in a downward wave through the gut. The enteric nervous system is one of the main divisions of the nervous system and consists of a mesh-like system of neurons that controls the function of the gastrointestinal tract. It has an independent reflex activity. The neurons of this system re collected into two types of ganglia: myenteric (or Auerbach’s) and submucosal (or Meissner’s plexuses). Myenteric plexuses are located between the inner and outer layers of the muscularis externa, while submucosal plexuses are located in the submucosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Explanation:The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 11
Incorrect
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“Ploidy” is a term used to refer to the number of chromosomes in cells. Cancer cells are commonly:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aneuploidy
Explanation:Cancer cells most commonly undergo disordered cell growth and cell division. This results in an additional number of chromosomes called aneuploidy. This is a characteristic of cancer cells along with variation in differentiation of the cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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In ventricular fibrillation (VF), the first defibrillation attempt (with a biphasic defibrillator) should be made at:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 200 J
Explanation:Defibrillation is a common treatment for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and ventricular fibrillation. If the patient is in Ventricular tachycardia (VT) or ventricular fibrillation (VF) on the monitor, immediately apply the pads and shock the patient with 120-200 Joules on a biphasic defibrillator or 360 Joules on a monophasic defibrillator.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Why is the sub-endocardial portion of the left ventricle the most common site for ischaemic damage and myocardial infarction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No blood flow occurs during systole
Explanation:The subendocardium receives the least amount of blood from the coronary arteries. During systole the coronary arteries collapse as a result of the pressure due to contraction that is exerted on them. During diastole the heart muscle relaxes and the pressure on the coronary vessels is relieved allowing blood to flow through them to the subendocardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following morphological features is most characteristic of hyaline degeneration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Homogeneous, ground-glass, pink-staining appearance of cells
Explanation:The characteristic morphological features of hyaline degeneration is ground-glass, pinking staining cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane. The accumulation of lipids, calcium salts, lipofuscin and an amorphous cytoplasm with an intact cell membrane are all characteristically found in different situations. Pyknotic nucleus and orphan Annie eye nucleus are not seen in hyaline degeneration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Injury & Wound Healing
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The movement of molecules across the cell membrane relies greatly on active transport. Which of the following statements about active transport is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Active transport occurs in glucose absorption from the gut
Explanation:The movement of a material against a concentration gradient, i.e. from a low to a high concentration, is known as active transport. Primary active transport is defined as active transport that involves the use of chemical energy, such as adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Secondary active transport occurs when an electrochemical gradient is used. The sodium-potassium pump, calcium ATPase pump, and proton pump are all key active transport systems that use ATP. An electrochemical gradient is used by the sodium-calcium co-transporter, which is an example of secondary active transport. The sodium-dependent hexose transporter SGLUT-1 transports glucose and galactose into enterocytes. Secondary active transport is exemplified here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess
Explanation:The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Thorax
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man goes to the emergency department with a fever, headache, and swollen parotid glands that are excruciating. You have a suspicion that it is mumps. Which of the following nerves is causing the discomfort the patient is experiencing:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auriculotemporal nerve
Explanation:The auriculotemporal nerve is irritated by mumps, which results in significant discomfort due to inflammation and swelling of the parotid gland, as well as the stretching of its capsule. Compression caused by swallowing or chewing exacerbates pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 19
Incorrect
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This anatomic part lies at the heart of the tooth.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The pulp cavity
Explanation:Within the central portion of the tooth lies the dental pulp. The pulp chamber provides mechanical support and functions as a barrier from external stimuli and the oral microbiome. The dental pulp is a unique tissue that is richly innervated and has an extensive microvascular network. Maintaining its vitality increases both the mechanical resistance of the tooth and the long-term survival. The junctional epithelium forms a band around the tooth at the base of the gingival sulcus, sealing off the periodontal tissues from the oral cavity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following foramen provides passage of the facial nerve?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus
Explanation:The internal auditory meatus provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head & Neck
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5α-reductase
Explanation:The enzyme 5α-reductase synthesizes DHT from testosterone in the prostate, testes, hair follicles, and adrenal glands. This enzyme reduces the 4,5 double-bond of the testosterone. Relative to testosterone, DHT is much more potent as an agonist of the androgen receptor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is least commonly seen in Gitelman’s syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Gitelman syndrome is an autosomal recessive kidney disorder characterized by hypokalaemia metabolic alkalosis with hypocalciuria, and hypomagnesemia. In contrast to patients with Gordon’s syndrome, those suffering from Gitelman’s syndrome are generally normotensive or hypotensive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following does not contribute to increased stroke volume during exercise?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased length of filling time during diastole
Explanation:Prolonged aerobic exercise training may also increase stroke volume, which frequently results in a lower (resting) heart rate. Reduced heart rate prolongs ventricular diastole (filling), increasing end-diastolic volume, and ultimately allowing more blood to be ejected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Vitamin B12 is transported from the enterocytes to the bone marrow by which factor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transcobalamin II (TC IIi)
Explanation:B12 must be attached to IF for it to be efficiently absorbed, as receptors on the enterocytes in the terminal ileum of the small bowel only recognize the B12-IF complex. Once the IF/B12 complex is recognized by specialized ileal receptors, it is transported into the portal circulation. The vitamin is then transferred to transcobalamin II (TC-II/B12), which serves as the plasma transporter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Southern Blotting and DNA probes
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: RNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis and transferred onto membrane sheets in southern blotting
Explanation:Restriction enzymes always cut at different positions. There are different restriction endonucleases for different nucleotide sequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which structure is the primary mechanism for shunting blood away from the fetal pulmonary circulation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Foramen Ovale
Explanation:Oxygenation of fetal blood occurs in the placenta before it returns in the umbilical vein which joins the left branch of the portal vein. It bypasses the capillaries of the liver by going through the ductus venosus, which is obliterated after birth and becomes the ligamentum venosum. The oxygenated blood enters the inferior vena cava and is transported to the right atrium andthen through the patent foramen ovale to the left atrium and on to the left ventricle. From the left ventricle, the blood flows into the aorta and through the fetal vascular network. Blood returning from the head of the foetus passes through the superior vena cava to the right atrium and straight on to the right ventricle and pulmonary artery. However, it does not enter the pulmonarycirculation, being short-circuited by the ductus arteriosus to the aorta. Aortic blood is carried via the umbilical arteries back to the placenta for reoxygenation. At birth, the three short circuits, the ductus venosus, foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus, close.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Embryology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which neurotransmitter is released from the postganglionic fibers in the sympathetic division?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Noradrenalin
Explanation:Noradrenalin Is the neurotransmitter that is released from the postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division. It is stored in granules at the sympathetic knobs. It Is a methyl derivative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28 year old man presents to his doctor with a painful mass underneath his left mandible. The mass has appeared over the previous week with the pain worsening as the lump has increased in size. On examination, a 3 cm mass underneath his mandible is seen but there is no associated lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Submandibular gland calculus
Explanation:Sialolithiasis (also termed salivary calculi, or salivary stones), is a condition where a calcified mass or sialolith forms within a salivary gland, usually in the duct of the submandibular gland (also termed Wharton’s duct). Signs and symptoms are variable and depend largely upon whether the obstruction of the duct is complete or partial, and how much resultant pressure is created within the gland. The development of infection in the gland also influences the signs and symptoms:- Pain, which is intermittent, and may suddenly get worse before mealtimes, and then slowly get better (partial obstruction).- Swelling of the gland, also usually intermittent, often suddenly appearing or increasing before mealtimes, and then slowly going down (partial obstruction).- Tenderness of the involved gland.- Palpable hard lump, if the stone is located near the end of the duct. If the stone is near the submandibular duct orifice, the lump may be felt under the tongue.- Lack of saliva coming from the duct (total obstruction).- Erythema (redness) of the floor of the mouth (infection).- Pus discharging from the duct (infection).- Cervical lymphadenitis (infection).- Bad Breath.- Rarely, when stones form in the minor salivary glands, there is usually only slight local swelling in the form of a small nodule and tenderness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Head & Neck
- Pathology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A lesion that interrupts one optic nerve causes blindness:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In the eye on the same side as the optic nerve
Explanation:The optic nerve on each side contains medial and lateral fibers originating from the retina. Medial fibers cross at the optic chiasm and become the optic tract ending in the visual cortex of the occipital lobe. If there is a lesion interrupting the “optic nerve” on one side, the same side eye will be completely blind.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
