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  • Question 1 - A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where? ...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with Conn’s syndrome. Aldosterone is secreted from where?

      Your Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      The adrenal gland comprises an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which represent two developmentally and functionally independent endocrine glands.

      The adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline (70%) and noradrenaline (30%)

      The adrenal cortex consists of three layers (remembered by the mnemonic GFR):

      G = zona glomerulosa – secretes aldosterone

      F = zona fasciculata – secretes cortisol and sex steroids

      R = zona reticularis – secretes cortisol and sex steroids.

      Aldosterone facilitates the reabsorption of sodium and water and the excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Conn’s syndrome is characterized by increased aldosterone secretion from the adrenal glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over a period of 24 hours were:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 1.0 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.01 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 260 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 7 mmol/l

      What is the glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 100 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 200 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. GFR is equal to the inulin clearance because inulin is freely filtered into Bowman’s capsule but is not reabsorbed or secreted. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. Thus, glomerular filtration rate = (1.0 × 2. 0)/0.01 = 200 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      127.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old pregnant woman develops high blood pressure at 20 weeks. She complains...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old pregnant woman develops high blood pressure at 20 weeks. She complains of headaches and swollen feet, and a test reveals proteinuria (350 mg/day). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia (PE) is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by the onset of high blood pressure (two separate readings taken at least 6 h apart of 140/90 or more) and often a significant amount of protein in the urine (>300 mg of protein in a 24-h urine sample). While blood pressure elevation is the most visible sign of the disease, it involves generalised damage to the maternal endothelium of the kidneys and liver, with the release of vasopressive factors only secondary to the original damage. Pre-eclampsia may develop at varying times within pregnancy and its progress differs among patients; most cases present pre-term. It has no known cure apart from ending the pregnancy (induction of labour or abortion). It may also present up to 6 weeks post partum. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include obesity, prior hypertension, older age, and diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose?

      Your Answer: Collecting duct

      Correct Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      In relation to the morphology of the kidney as a whole, the convoluted segments of the proximal tubules are confined entirely to the renal cortex. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate and some other solutes are reabsorbed via secondary active transport in the proximal renal tubule through co-transport channels driven by the sodium gradient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old woman is Rh -ve and she delivered a baby with a Rh+ blood group. What measure can be performed to prevent Rh incompatibility in the next pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin D

      Explanation:

      Rh disease is also known as erythroblastosis fetalis and is a disease of the new-born. In mild states it can cause anaemia with reticulocytosis and in severe forms causes severe anaemia, morbus hemolytcus new-born and hydrops fetalis. RBCs of the Rh+ baby can cross the placenta and enter into the maternal blood. As she is Rh- her body will form antibodies against the D antigen which will pass through the placenta in subsequent pregnancies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial...

    Incorrect

    • Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial oxygen [pa(O2)] than the alveolar oxygen [pA(O2)]. This difference is:

      Your Answer: Is due to significant diffusion gradients

      Correct Answer: Is normal and due to shunted blood

      Explanation:

      Blood that bypasses the ventilated parts of lung and enters the arterial circulation directly is known as shunted blood. It happens in normal people due to mixing of arterial blood with bronchial and some myocardial venous blood (which drains into the left heart). Diffusion limitation and reaction velocity with haemoglobin are immeasurably small. CO2 unloading will not affect the difference between alveolar and arterial p(O2). A large VSD will result in much lower arterial O2 as compared to alveolar O2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles aid in inspiration?

      Your Answer: Diaphragm, internal and external intercostals

      Correct Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostals

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm and external intercostals are muscles of inspiration as they increase the volume of thoracic cavity and reduce the intrathoracic pressure. Muscles of expiration include abdominal muscles and internal intercostals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      43.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40...

    Correct

    • What is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding time in a 40 year old women admitted for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

      Your Answer: Thrombocytopaenia

      Explanation:

      Bleeding time is related to platelet function, thus a decrease in platelet function, as seen in thrombocytopenia, DIC and von Willebrand disease in which platelet aggregation is defective, leads to an increase in bleeding time. It is not affected by a decrease or deficiency of any other clotting factors. Aspirin and other COX inhibitors prolong bleeding time along with warfarin and heparin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman complains of generalised swelling and particularly puffiness around the eyes which is worst in the morning. Laboratory studies showed:

      Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) = 30 mg/dl

      Creatinine = 2. 8 mg/dl

      Albumin = 2. 0 mg/dl

      Alanine transaminase (ALT) = 25 U/l

      Bilirubin = 1 mg/dl

      Urine analysis shows 3+ albumin and no cells.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome is a disorder in which the glomeruli have been damaged, characterized by:

      – Proteinuria (>3.5 g per 1.73 m2 body surface area per day, or > 40 mg per square meter body surface area per hour in children)

      – Hypoalbuminemia (< 2,5 g/dl) – Hyperlipidaemia, and oedema (generalized anasarca).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      275.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is...

    Incorrect

    • A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is that it:

      Your Answer: Will mainly affect enzymatic secretion

      Correct Answer: Will result after vagotomy

      Explanation:

      Recognition and integration of the sight, smell and taste of food triggers the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion, causing an increase in pancreatic HCO3- and enzyme secretion. The degree of enzyme secretion in this phase is about 50% of the maximal response seen with exogenous CCK and secretin. The vagus nerve regulates the secretion through the cholinergic fibres innervating the acinar cells of the pancreas, and through peptidergic nerve fibres, which innervate ductal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Atractyloside is an inhibitor of electron transport chain. It is expected to have...

    Correct

    • Atractyloside is an inhibitor of electron transport chain. It is expected to have little or no effect on the functioning of which of the following cell types?

      Your Answer: Red blood cells

      Explanation:

      Electron transport chain is a series of electron carriers that are embedded in the mitochondrial membrane. It is the place where ATP is made. Inhibiting the electron transport chain will stop production of ATP. Red blood cells are the only cell in the given option which do not contain ATP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy complains of urinary incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman in her 37th week of pregnancy complains of urinary incontinence. She is most likely to have:

      Your Answer: Functional incontinence

      Correct Answer: Stress incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is the involuntary excretion of urine from one’s body. It is often temporary and it almost always results from an underlying medical condition. Several types include:

      – Stress incontinence is the voiding of urine following increased abdominal pressure e.g. laughing, coughing, pregnancy etc. It is the most common form of incontinence in women, most commonly due to pelvic floor muscle weakness, physical changes from pregnancy, childbirth and menopause. In men it is a common problem following a prostatectomy. Most lab results such as urine analysis, cystometry and postvoid residual volume are normal.

      – Urge incontinence is involuntary loss of urine occurring for no apparent reason while suddenly feeling the need or urge to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence are involuntary and inappropriate detrusor muscle contractions.

      – Functional incontinence – occurs when a person does not recognise the need to go to the toilet, recognise where the toilet is or get to the toilet in time. The urine loss may be large. Causes of functional incontinence include confusion, dementia, poor eyesight, poor mobility, poor dexterity or unwillingness. t

      – Overflow incontinence – sometimes people find that they cannot stop their bladders from constantly dribbling or continuing to dribble for some time after they have passed urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Production of pain is most likely associated with: ...

    Correct

    • Production of pain is most likely associated with:

      Your Answer: Substance P

      Explanation:

      Substance P is a short-chain polypeptide that functions as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator, and is thus, a neuropeptide. It has been linked with pain regulation, mood disorders, stress, reinforcement, neurogenesis, respiratory rhythm, neurotoxicity, nausea and emesis. It is also a potent vasodilator as it brings about release of nitric oxide from the endothelium. Its release can also cause hypotension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer: 30 mmHg × min/l

      Correct Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all...

    Incorrect

    • Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all his life and is suspected to have pulmonary fibrosis reveals the following: normal FEV1, arterial oxygen saturation 92%, alveolar ventilation 6000 ml/min at a tidal volume of 600 ml and a breathing rate of 12 breaths/min. There are also pathological changes in lung compliance and residual volume. Which of the following is most accurate about his residual volume?

      Your Answer: Is the volume at which the lungs tend to recoil outward

      Correct Answer: Cannot be measured directly with a spirometer

      Explanation:

      Residual volume is the air left in the lungs after maximal expiration is done. Thus, this is not a part of vital capacity and cannot be measured with a spirometer directly. It can be measured by the methods such as body plethysmography or inert gas dilution. Expiratory reserve volume is vital capacity minus inspiratory capacity. Resting volume of lungs is he sum of residual volume and expiratory reserve volume. Lungs recoil inward until the recoil pressure becomes zero, which corresponds to a volume significantly lower than residual volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      73.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct regarding secretions from the adrenal glands?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone is producd by the zona glomerulosa

      Explanation:

      The secretions of the adrenal glands by zone are:

      Zona glomerulosa – aldosterone

      Zona fasciculata – cortisol and testosterone

      Zona reticularis – oestradiol and progesterone

      Adrenal medulia – adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year old gentleman, known with past peptic ulcer disease, was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman, known with past peptic ulcer disease, was brought to the clinic in a dehydrated state with persistent vomiting. His blood investigations revealed sodium = 142 mmol/l, potassium = 2.6 mmol/l, chloride = 85 mmol/l, pH = 7.55, p(CO2) = 50 mmHg, p(O2) = 107 mmHg and standard bicarbonate = 40 mmol/l. This patient had:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      High pH with high standard bicarbonate indicates metabolic alkalosis. The pa(CO2) was appropriately low in compensation. This is hypokalaemia hypochloraemic metabolic acidosis due to prolonged vomiting. Treatment includes treating the cause and intravenous sodium chloride with potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old woman's renal function is tested. The following results were obtained during a 24-h period:

      Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min

      Urine inulin: 0.5 mg/ml

      Plasma inulin: 0.02 mg/ml

      Urine urea: 220 mmol/l

      Plasma urea: 5 mmol/l.

      What is the urea clearance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 88 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Urea is reabsorbed in the inner medullary collecting ducts of the nephrons. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. So, glomerular filtration rate = (0.220 × 2. 0)/0.005 = 88 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following compensatory parameters is responsible for causing an increase in the blood pressure in a 30 year old patient with a BP of 40 mmHg?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Baroreceptor reflex

      Explanation:

      The baroreflex or baroreceptor reflex is one of the body’s homeostatic mechanisms for regulating blood pressure. It provides a negative feedback response in which an elevated blood pressure will causes blood pressure to decrease; similarly, decreased blood pressure depresses the baroreflex, causing blood pressure to rise. The system relies on specialised neurones (baroreceptors) in the aortic arch, carotid sinuses and elsewhere to monitor changes in blood pressure and relay them to the brainstem. Subsequent changes in blood pressure are mediated by the autonomic nervous system. Baroreceptors include those in the auricles of the heart and vena cava, but the most sensitive baroreceptors are in the carotid sinuses and aortic arch. The carotid sinus baroreceptors are innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX); the aortic arch baroreceptors are innervated by the vagus nerve (CN X).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves...

    Incorrect

    • In a cardiac cycle, what event does the closing of atrioventricular (AV) valves coincide with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second heart sound

      Explanation:

      The beginning of ventricular systole corresponds to the beginning of the QRS complex in the ECG. The beginning of the ventricular systole also corresponds to the closure of the atrioventricular valves, causing the first heart sound (S1). S2, the second heart sound is due to closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves at the end of ventricular systole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Selective destruction of which of the following cells will affect antibody synthesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      Plasma cell are memory cells. After the antigen Is engulfed by the B cells it is presented to the CD4+ helper cells via the MCH II receptor and this leads to their activation which in turn stimulates the B cells to form antibodies against that specific antigen. Some B cells differentiate into plasma cells also called memory cells that get activated after subsequent infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include: ...

    Incorrect

    • Causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap include:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Excess acid intake and excess bicarbonate loss as in diarrhoea, are causes of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. The other conditions all result in an increased anion gap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man suffered severe trauma following a MVA. His BP is 72/30 mmhg, heart rate of 142 beats/mins and very feeble pulse. He was transfused 3 units of blood and his BP returned to 100/70 and his heart rate slowed to 90 beats/min. What decreased after transfusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total peripheral resistance

      Explanation:

      The patient is in hypovolemic shock, he is transfused with blood, this fluid resuscitation will result in a decreased sympathetic discharge and adequate ventricular filling which will result in the decreases TPR with an increased CO and cardiac filling pressures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The most important difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The most important difference between interstitial fluid and plasma is the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein concentration

      Explanation:

      Interstitial fluid (or tissue fluid or intercellular fluid) is a solution that surrounds the cells of multicellular animals. It is the main component of the extracellular fluid, which also includes plasma, lymph and transcellular fluid. Plasma, the major component in blood, communicates freely with interstitial fluid through pores and intercellular clefts in capillary endothelium. Interstitial fluid consists of a water solvent containing amino acids, sugars, fatty acids, coenzymes, hormones, neurotransmitters, salts, as well as waste products from the cells. Red blood cells, platelets and plasma proteins cannot pass through the walls of the capillaries. The resulting mixture that does pass through is essentially blood plasma without the plasma proteins. Tissue fluid also contains certain types of white blood cells. Once the extracellular fluid collects into small vessels it is considered to be lymph, and the vessels that carry it back to the blood are called the lymphatic vessels. The lymphatic system returns protein and excess interstitial fluid to the circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A neonate with failure to pass meconium is being evaluated. His abdomen is...

    Incorrect

    • A neonate with failure to pass meconium is being evaluated. His abdomen is distended and X-ray films of the abdomen show markedly dilated small bowel and colon loops. The likely diagnosis is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aganglionosis in the rectum

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s disease (also known as aganglionic megacolon) leads to colon enlargement due to bowel obstruction by an aganglionic section of bowel that starts at the anus. A blockage is created by a lack of ganglion cells needed for peristalsis that move the stool. 1 in 5000 children suffer from this disease, with boys affected four times more commonly than girls. It develops in the fetus in early stages of pregnancy. Symptoms include not having a first bowel movement (meconium) within 48 hours of birth, repeated vomiting and a swollen abdomen. Two-third of cases are diagnosed within 3 months of birth. Some children may present with delayed toilet training and some might not show symptoms till early childhood. Diagnosis is by barium enema and rectal biopsy (showing lack of ganglion cells).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is diagnosed with metabolic acidosis as a result of severe dehydration. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause severe dehydration and metabolic acidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Diarrhoea is defined as having three or more loose or liquid stools per day, or as having more stools than is normal for that person. Severe diarrhoea, causing fluid loss and loss of bicarbonate, will result in marked dehydration and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which statement is correct regarding coagulation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is correct regarding coagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

      Explanation:

      Coagulation of blood is a complex process and an important part of haemostasis. There are two main pathways related to coagulation: the contact activation pathway/intrinsic pathway and tissue factor/extrinsic pathway. The extrinsic pathway is activated by external trauma that causes blood to escape from the vascular system. This pathway is quicker than the intrinsic pathway and involves factor VII. The intrinsic pathway is activated by trauma inside the vascular system, and initiated by platelets, exposed endothelium, chemicals, or collagen. This pathway is slower than the extrinsic pathway, but more important. It involves factors XII, XI, IX, VIII. Both pathways meet to finish the formation of a clot in what is known as the common pathway. The common pathway involves factors I, II, V, and X. They converge on the common pathway in which activation of prothrombin to thrombin leads to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and clot formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In what form are fats primarily transported in the body? ...

    Incorrect

    • In what form are fats primarily transported in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Fat is mainly transported in the body as free fatty acids. Once out of the adipose cell, the free fatty acids get ionized and combine with albumin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following can lead to haemolytic anaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following can lead to haemolytic anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presence of haemoglobin S

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin S is an abnormal type of haemoglobin seen in sickle cell anaemia. This allows for the haemoglobin to crystalize within the RBC upon exposure to low partial pressures of oxygen. This results in rupture of the RBCs as they pass through microcirculation, especially in the spleen. This can cause blockage of the vessel down stream and ischaemic death of tissues, accompanied by severe pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of...

    Incorrect

    • A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High platelet count

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to a myeloproliferative syndrome, chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/ polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increased RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Physiology (7/16) 44%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Renal (3/5) 60%
General (3/3) 100%
Respiratory (0/3) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Passmed