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  • Question 1 - A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man with a history of diabetes and hypertension presented with a stroke a few months ago severely affecting his speech and movement in the right arm and leg. A cerebral angiogram revealed a middle cerebral artery occlusion. A recent CT scan was done which revealed a 5 cm cystic space in his left parietal lobe. This lesion is a result of which of the following forms of resolution?

      Your Answer: Apoptosis

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      Characteristically, the brain will undergo liquefactive necrosis following ischaemic injury. This leaves a cystic space in that region which would show up on a CT scan. Atrophy would result in a generalized decrease in the brain size. Coagulative necrosis typically occurs in parenchymal organs e.g. the spleen or kidney which have a lower lipid content. Caseous necrosis is typical in granulomatous tuberculosis infection. Apoptosis will not form a cystic area as it is programmed cell death involving a individual cells. Gangrenous necrosis is characteristic of ischaemic injury of the lower limb and GI tract. Fibrinous necrosis results from necrotic damage to the blood vessels with the leaking of proteins into the vessel, appearing bright pink on H & E staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology
      • Pathology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for...

    Correct

    • A 24-year old patient diagnosed with a direct inguinal hernia was scheduled for surgery to have the hernia repaired. The hernia was discovered to be protruding through the Hesselbach's triangle (inguinal triangle). Which of the following blood vessels that is a branch of the external iliac artery forms the lateral border of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inguinal triangle is formed by the following structures; inguinal ligament at the base; inferior epigastric vessels laterally and the lateral border of the rectus sheath medially. This triangle (also known as Hesselebach’s triangle) is where direct inguinal hernias protrude. The inferior epigastric artery is this the branch of the external iliac artery being referred to. All the other blood vessels are branches of the internal iliac artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      18.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Linezolid is an antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by bacteria that are resistant to other antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be effectively treated by linezolid?

      Your Answer: Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Linezolid is a synthetic antibiotic used for the treatment of infections caused by multiresistant bacteria, including streptococci and methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Linezolid is effective against Gram-positive pathogens, notably Enterococcus faecium, S. aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Streptococcus pyogenes. It has almost no effect on Gram-negative bacteria and is only bacteriostatic against most enterococci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A patients sciatic nerve has been severed following a stab injury. What would...

    Incorrect

    • A patients sciatic nerve has been severed following a stab injury. What would be affected?

      Your Answer: Extension of the knee would be eliminated

      Correct Answer: There would still be cutaneous sensation over the anteromedial surface of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies nearly all of the sensation of the skin of the leg and the muscles of the back of the thigh, leg and foot. A transection of the sciatic nerve at its exit from the pelvis will affect all the above-mentioned functions except cutaneous sensation over the anteromedial surface of the thigh, which comes from the femoral nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts....

    Incorrect

    • The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?

      Your Answer: Splenic

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:

      – The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.

      – The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.

      – The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.

      – The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.

      – The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male presents with dysuria and chronic haematuria. He was diagnosed with bladder cancer and tumour invasion of the perivesical fat. What is the stage of the patient's bladder cancer?

      Your Answer: T3

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer is the growth of abnormal or cancerous cells on the inner lining of the bladder wall. The staging is as follows; stage 0is (Tis, N0, M0): Cancerous cells in the inner lining tissue of the bladder only, stage I (T1, N0, M0): tumour has spread onto the bladder wall, stage II (T2, N0, M0): tumour has penetrated the inner wall and is present in muscle of the bladder wall, stage III (T3, N0, M0): tumour has spread through the bladder to fat around the bladder and stage IV: (T4, N0, M0): tumour has grown through the bladder wall and into the pelvic or abdominal wall. The stage of cancer in the case presented is T3 because of the invasion of perivesical fat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-day old male baby was brought to the emergency department with sweating and his lips turning blue while feeding. He was born full term. On examination, his temperature was 37.9°C, blood pressure 75/45 mmHg, pulse was 175/min, and respiratory rate was 42/min. A harsh systolic ejection murmur could be heard at the left upper sternal border. X-ray chest showed small, boot-shaped heart with decreased pulmonary vascular markings. He most likely has:

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      The most common congenital cyanotic heart disease and the most common cause of blue baby syndrome, Tetralogy of Fallot shows four cardiac malformations occurring together. These are ventricular septal defect (VSD), pulmonary stenosis (right ventricular outflow obstruction), overriding aorta (degree of which is variable), and right ventricular hypertrophy. The primary determinant of severity of disease is the degree of pulmonary stenosis. Tetralogy of Fallot is seen in 3-6 per 10,000 births and is responsible for 5-7% congenital heart defects, with slightly higher incidence in males. It has also been associated with chromosome 22 deletions and DiGeorge syndrome. It gives rise to right-to-left shunt leading to poor oxygenation of blood. Primary symptom is low oxygen saturation in the blood with or without cyanosis at birth of within first year of life. Affected children ay develop acute severe cyanosis or ‘tet spells’ (sudden, marked increase in cyanosis, with syncope, and may result in hypoxic brain injury and death). Other symptoms include heart murmur, failure to gain weight, poor development, clubbing, dyspnoea on exertion and polycythaemia. Chest X-ray reveals characteristic coeur-en-sabot (boot-shaped) appearance of the heart. Treatment consists of immediate care for cyanotic spells and Blalock–Taussig shunt (BT shunt) followed by corrective surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the...

    Correct

    • A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the back had an x-ray done which confirmed a hernia passing posterolaterally, just superior to the iliac crest. Where is this hernia passing through?

      Your Answer: Lumbar triangle

      Explanation:

      The lumber triangle is bound medially by the border of the latissimus dorsi, laterally by the external abdominal oblique and by the iliac crest inferiorly. This is exactly where the hernia that is described is located.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was...

    Correct

    • After a total colectomy and ileotomy, a 50-year old diabetic man who was a known case of diabetic nephropathy had persistent metabolic acidosis. The patient appeared well perfused, with normal vital signs and normal fluid balance. Investigations revealed:

      Sodium = 132 mmol/l

      Potassium = 6.6 mmol/l

      Creatinine = 185 μmol/l (2.16 mg/dl)

      Chloride = 109 μmol/l

      8am cortisol = 500 nmol/l (18 μg/dl)

      pH = 7.29, p(CO2) = 27 mmHg

      p(O2) = 107 mmHg

      standard bicarbonate = 12 mmol/l.

      What is the likely causes of his acidosis?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acidosis here is due to low bicarbonate. The low p(CO2) is seen in compensation. The anion gap is normal, ruling out intra-abdominal ischaemia (which leads to metabolic acidosis). If it was a gastrointestinal aetiology, low potassium would be seen. The history of diabetic nephropathy predisposes to renal tubular acidosis. Type 4 (hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism) is associated with high potassium and is found in diabetic and hypertensive renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      75.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man with short bowel syndrome requires parenteral nutrition. The solution of choice for parenteral nutrition is:

      Your Answer: Plasma albumin

      Correct Answer: Crystalline amino acids

      Explanation:

      Total parenteral nutrition (TPN), is the practice of feeding a person intravenously, circumventing the gut. It is normally used in the following situations: surgery, when feeding by mouth is not possible, when a person’s digestive system cannot absorb nutrients due to chronic disease or if a person’s nutrient requirement cannot be met by enteral feeding and supplementation. A sterile bag of nutrient solution, between 500 ml and 4L, is provided. The pump infuses a small amount (0.1–10 ml/h) continuously to keep the vein open. The nutrient solution consists of water, glucose, salts, amino acids, vitamins and sometimes emulsified fats. Ideally each patient is assessed individually before commencing on parenteral nutrition, and a team consisting of doctors, nurses, clinical pharmacists and dietitians evaluate the patient’s individual data and decide what formula to use and at what rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the...

    Incorrect

    • The dilator pupillae muscle is innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibres. Where do the postganglionic sympathetic fibres originate?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal ganglion

      Correct Answer: Superior cervical ganglion

      Explanation:

      The postganglionic sympathetic axons are derived from the superior cervical ganglion and innervate the eye and lacrimal gland allowing for vasoconstriction of the iris and sclera, pupillary dilation, widening of the palpebral fissure, and a reduction in tear production.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following muscles may be affected by a fracture to the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles may be affected by a fracture to the tuberosity on the medial surface of the right navicular bone?

      Your Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The navicular bone is situated at the medial side of the tarsus, between the talus and the cuneiform bones. Its medial surface presents a rounded tuberosity, the lower part of which gives attachment to part of the tendon of the tibialis posterior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries? ...

    Correct

    • The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries?

      Your Answer: Vertebral

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is part of the vertebrobasilar system. It is formed by the confluence of the two vertebral arteries which arise from the subclavian arteries. These two vertebral arteries merge at the level of cranial nerve VI at the junction between the pons and the medulla oblangata to form what is know as the basilar artery. This vertebrobasilar system supplies the upper spinal cord, brainstem, cerebellum, and posterior part of brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct?

      Your Answer: The coronary sinus drains into the left atrium

      Correct Answer: The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus and this vein starts at the apex of the heart and ascends with the anterior ventricular branch of the left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Most of the veins of the heart open into the coronary sinus. This is a wide venous channel, about 2.25 cm in length, situated in the posterior part of the coronary sulcus and covered by muscular fibres from the left atrium. Its tributaries are the great, small and middle cardiac veins, the posterior vein of the left ventricle and the oblique vein of the left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port...

    Correct

    • The wound healing process is documented in patients undergoing laparoscopic procedures. The port incisions are sutured closed and the wounds observed every few weeks for re-epithelialisation and tensile strength. Which substance is mostly likely to be found at a cellular level involved in wound healing?

      Your Answer: Tyrosine kinase

      Explanation:

      Cell surface growth factor receptors require intercellular proteins such as tyrosine kinase which are necessary to initiate a series of events that eventually lead to cell division and growth. Tyrosine kinase is an enzyme that transfers a phosphate group to the tyrosine residue in a protein. This phosphorylation will lead to an up regulation of the enzyme activity.

      Fibronectin acts in the extracellular matrix to bind macromolecules (such as proteoglycans) via integrin receptors to aid attachment and migration of cells.

      Laminin is an extracellular matrix component that is abundant in basement membranes.

      Hyaluronic acid is one of the proteoglycans in the extracellular matrix.

      Collagen fibres are part of the extracellular matrix that gives strength and stability to connective tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old farmer was referred to the surgical clinic with complaints of pain in his right hypochondrium. Investigations confirmed the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma with malignant ascites. According to you, what is the most likely cause of HCC in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aflatoxin

      Explanation:

      Aflatoxins are naturally occurring toxins produced by the Aspergillus fungus (most often, A. flavus and A. parasiticus). These organisms are common and their native habitat is soil, decaying vegetation and grains. They can contaminate the grain before harvest or after storage, more likely in high-humidity (at least 7%) or high temperature environment of after stressful conditions like drought. Aflatoxins are mycotoxins and also carcinogenic. They get metabolized in the liver to an epoxide, aflatoxin M1. High exposure can lead to acute necrosis, cirrhosis or liver carcinoma. These substances can cause haemorrhage, acute liver damage, oedema, and alteration in digestion, absorption and/or metabolism of nutrients. Although humans are susceptible to these toxins like all other animals, they have a high tolerance level and hence, rarely develop acute aflatoxicosis. However, children are particularly susceptible to exposure leading to growth impairment and delayed development. Chronic exposure carries a high risk of hepatic cancer, due to intercalation of its metabolite aflatoxin M1 into the DNA and alkylation of the bases because of its epoxide moiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary
      • Pathology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle: ...

    Incorrect

    • To reach the oral vestibule, the parotid duct must pierce this muscle:

      Your Answer: Masseter muscle

      Correct Answer: Buccinator muscle

      Explanation:

      The parotid duct or Stensen duct is a duct and the route that saliva takes from the major salivary gland, the parotid gland into the mouth. The parotid duct is formed when several interlobular ducts—the largest ducts inside the parotid gland join. It emerges from the gland and runs forward along the lateral side of the masseter muscle. In this course, the duct is surrounded by the buccal fat pad. It takes a steep turn at the border of the masseter and passes through the buccinator muscle, opening into the vestibule of the mouth, between the cheek and the gums, at the parotid papilla, which lies across the second superior molar tooth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man who is suspected to have a perforated colonic diverticulum is explored in theatre through a midline incision. This incision will be through the:

      Your Answer: Linea alba

      Explanation:

      The linea alba is the point where this incision was made. It is a tendinous raphe in the midline of the abdomen extending between the xiphoid process and the symphysis pubis. It is placed between the medial borders of the recti and is formed by the blending of the aponeuroses of the external and internal obliques and transversi.

      The linea aspera is a vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femur.

      The arcuate line is the inferior border of the posterior rectus sheath behind the rectus abdominis muscle.

      The semilunar line is the lateral margin of the rectus abdominis.

      The iliopectineal line is a line on the pelvic bones formed by the arcuate line of the ilium and the pectineal line of the pubis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is...

    Incorrect

    • A TRUE statement regarding abolition of the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is that it:

      Your Answer: Will result in 10% reduction in maximal pancreatic secretion

      Correct Answer: Will result after vagotomy

      Explanation:

      Recognition and integration of the sight, smell and taste of food triggers the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion, causing an increase in pancreatic HCO3- and enzyme secretion. The degree of enzyme secretion in this phase is about 50% of the maximal response seen with exogenous CCK and secretin. The vagus nerve regulates the secretion through the cholinergic fibres innervating the acinar cells of the pancreas, and through peptidergic nerve fibres, which innervate ductal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is likely to be affected by a lesion in the:

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Correct Answer: Pons

      Explanation:

      Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep, as the summed activity of the brain’s neurons is quite similar to that during waking hours. Characterised by rapid movements of the eyes, most of the vividly recalled dreams occur during this stage of sleep. The total time of REM sleep for an adult is about 90–120 min per night.

      Certain neurones in the brainstem, known as REM sleep-on cells, which are located in the pontine tegmentum, are particularly active during REM sleep and are probably responsible for its occurrence. The eye movements associated with REM are generated by the pontine nucleus with projections to the superior colliculus and are associated with PGO (pons, geniculate, occipital) waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly...

    Correct

    • A cyclist fell and sustained a laceration to his elbow which was shortly sutured in the emergency department. Which of the following factors will aid in the wound healing process?

      Your Answer: Presence of sutures

      Explanation:

      Foreign bodies including sutures will delay wound healing, however due to the net affect being helpful they are used. Secondary wound infection will delay healing and is a potential post op complication. Corticosteroids depresses the wound healing ability of the body. Poor nutrition will also delay healing leading to decreased albumin, vit D and vit C. Diabetic patients with atherosclerosis with poor perfusion of tissues have notoriously delayed/poor healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Pathology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man with a urinary tract obstruction due to prostatic hyperplasia develops acute renal failure. Which of the following physiological abnormalities of acute renal failure will be most life threatening for this patient?

      Your Answer: Raised serum creatinine level

      Correct Answer: Acidosis

      Explanation:

      Acute renal failure (ARF) is a rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys, resulting in retention of nitrogenous (urea and creatinine) and non-nitrogenous waste products that are normally excreted by the kidney. This accumulation may be accompanied by metabolic disturbances, such as metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia, changes in body fluid balance and effects on many other organ systems. Metabolic acidosis and hyperkalaemia are the two most serious biochemical manifestations of acute renal failure and may require medical treatment with sodium bicarbonate administration and antihyperkalaemic measures. If not appropriately treated these can be life-threatening. ARF is diagnosed on the basis of characteristic laboratory findings, such as elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, or inability of the kidneys to produce sufficient amounts of urine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the...

    Correct

    • The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the left and the right posterior communicating artery. Which of the following arteries in the brain is connected to the posterior cerebral artery by these posterior communicating arteries?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis of cerebral arteries that are located at the base of the brain. The Circle of Willis is one of the important safeguards that ensure back up of blood supply to parts of the brain in case of any cerebrovascular accident. The Circle of Willis is made up of an anterior portion of arteries including; the anterior cerebral arteries. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected to the posterior portion of the circle of Willis by the anterior communicating artery. The posterior portion is made up of the posterior cerebral artery which branch off from the basilar artery. The posterior cerebral artery are connected to the anterior portion of the circle of Willis by the posterior communicating artery. The posterior communicating artery connects the posterior cerebral artery to the internal carotid artery. The circle of Willis receives blood supply from the left and right internal carotid arteries that continues as the middle cerebral artery and posteriorly from the two vertebral arteries that join to form the basilar artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does...

    Correct

    • Medulloblastoma usually occurs in children between 5 to 9 years old. Where does medulloblastoma commonly originate from?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar vermis

      Explanation:

      Medulloblastoma is the most common malignant brain tumour in children, accounting for 10-20% of primary CNS neoplasms. Most of the tumours originate in the cerebellar vermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - When a patient that is less than 21 years of age develops a...

    Correct

    • When a patient that is less than 21 years of age develops a bone tumour. What is the most common benign bone tumour that would be considered in individuals below 21 years?

      Your Answer: Osteochondroma

      Explanation:

      Osteochondroma is a benign new bone growth that protrudes from the outer contour of bones and is capped by growing cartilage. Nearly 80% of these lesions are noted before the age of 21 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Which of the following muscles are involved in abduction of the wrist? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles are involved in abduction of the wrist?

      Your Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis and flexor carpi radialis

      Explanation:

      The muscle of the wrist that cause abduction of the wrist otherwise also know as radial flexion of the wrist are the following:

      -Abductor Pollicis Longus

      -Flexor Carpi Radialis

      -Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus

      -Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the...

    Correct

    • Following nerve injury, paralysis of the quadriceps femoris muscle occurs. Which of the following movements will be affected?

      Your Answer: Extension of the leg

      Explanation:

      The quadriceps muscle is a great extensor of the thigh. Therefore, following nerve injury or cutting nerve supply to the quadriceps will affect extension of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes and the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells is seen in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin’s disease, lymphocyte predominance type

      Correct Answer: Poorly differentiated lymphocytic lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Malignant lymphoma usually causes non-tender lymphadenopathy, unlike the tender lymphadenopathy caused by infections (including infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus). Also, the lymphoid hyperplasia seen in infectious mononucleosis is benign and polyclonal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 76 year old man who presented with lower back pain is diagnosed with prostatic carcinoma that has metastasized to his lumber spine. Which of the following markers is characteristically elevated?

      Your Answer: PSA

      Explanation:

      Spread of prostatic carcinoma is common to the lumbar spine and pelvis. This results in osteoblastic metastases that will present as lower back pain with increased alkaline phosphatase, prostatic acid phosphates and PSA. PSA is more specific and a PSA > 10 ng/ml for any age is worrisome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia; Urology
      • Pathology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that...

    Correct

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, it is noticed that the hernial sac is protruding out of the superficial inguinal ring. The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in which structure?

      Your Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal ring is an opening in the aponeurosis of the external oblique just above and lateral to the pubic crest. The opening is oblique and corresponds to the fibres of the aponeurosis. It is bound inferiorly by the pubic crest, on either side by the margins of the opening in the aponeurosis and superiorly by the curved intercrural fibres.

      The inferior crus is formed by the portion of the inguinal ligament that is inserted into the pubic tubercle.

      The falx inguinalis is made of arching fibres of the transversalis fascia and the internal abdominal oblique muscle. It forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The internal abdominal oblique forms the root of the inguinal canal.

      Scarpa’s and Camper’s fascia are the membranous and fatty layers, respectively of subcutaneous fascia.

      Transversalis fascia covers the posterior surface of the rectus abdominis muscle inferior to the arcuate line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      15.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Neurology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (8/10) 80%
Anatomy (9/14) 64%
Pelvis (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Lower Limb (3/4) 75%
Abdomen (2/3) 67%
Neoplasia (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Physiology (1/6) 17%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Fluids & Electrolytes (0/1) 0%
Head & Neck (2/4) 50%
Thorax (0/1) 0%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (2/2) 100%
Gastrointestinal; Hepatobiliary (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (1/1) 100%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia; Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed