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  • Question 1 - After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to...

    Incorrect

    • After having donated a unit of blood. The blood bank will prefer to use which of the following anticoagulants to store the blood?

      Your Answer: Heparin

      Correct Answer: Citrate

      Explanation:

      Calcium is necessary for coagulation to occur. Citrate being a chelator and combining with calcium ions to form un-ionised compound will prevent coagulation. Following transfusion the citrate is removed by the liver with in a few minutes. Oxalate also works on the same principle but it is toxic to the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • What is the 5 year survival rate of a patient who is diagnosed with stage III colon cancer, who underwent successful resection and completed the prescribed session of adjuvant chemotherapy?

      Your Answer: 70%–85%

      Correct Answer: 30%–60%

      Explanation:

      In this patient who has stage III colon cancer, the survival rate is 30-60%. For stage I or Dukes’ stage A disease, the 5-year survival rate after surgical resection exceeds 90%. For stage II or Dukes’ stage B disease, the 5-year survival rate is 70%–85% after resection, with or without adjuvant therapy. For stage III or Dukes’ stage C disease, the 5-year survival rate is 30%– 60% after resection and adjuvant chemotherapy and for stage IV or Dukes’ stage D disease, the 5-year survival rate is poor (approximately 5%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male is suspected to have pancreatic cancer. What particular tumour marker should be requested to aid in the confirmation of the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer?

      Your Answer: CA-125

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is used as a tumour marker. CEA test measures the amount of this protein that may appear in the blood of some people who have certain types of cancers especially cancer of the colon and rectal cancer. It may also be present in the pancreas, breast, ovary or lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above...

    Correct

    • Following a posterolateral thoracotomy, a surgeon may wish to infiltrate local anaesthetic above and below the incision to block the nerves supplying the thoracic wall. This wall is innervated by?

      Your Answer: Intercostal nerves

      Explanation:

      Intercostal nerves are the ventral primary rami of spinal nerves T1–T11. They give branches which supply the thoracic wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 78-year-old diabetic man undergoes renal function tests. Which of the following substances...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old diabetic man undergoes renal function tests. Which of the following substances will be the most accurate for measuring glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?

      Your Answer: Creatinine

      Correct Answer: Inulin

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. Clinically, this is often measured to determine renal function. Inulin was originally used as it is not reabsorbed by the kidney after glomerular filtration, therefore its rate of excretion is directly proportional to the rate of filtration of water and solutes across the glomerular filter. However, in clinical practice, creatinine clearance is used to measure GFR. Creatinine is an endogenous molecule, synthesised in the body, that is freely filtered by the glomerulus (but also secreted by the renal tubules in very small amounts). Creatinine clearance exceeds GFR due to creatinine secretion, and is therefore a close approximation of the GFR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of...

    Correct

    • On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?

      Your Answer: Anterior humeral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off two branches: the anterior humeral circumflex artery and the posterior humeral circumflex artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year old man, who was euthyroid underwent thyroidectomy following neoplastic cells found on fine-needle aspiration. Frozen section of multiple thyroid masses showed malignant neoplasm of polygonal cells in nests. The neoplasm also showed presence of amyloid which was positive with Congo-red staining. Immunoperoxidase staining for calcitonin was also positive. Chest X-ray revealed no abnormality. However, his blood pressure was found to be raised, and his serum ionised calcium was high. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIA

      Explanation:

      MEN (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia) syndromes are a group of three separate familial disease which consists of adenomatous hyperplasia and neoplasia in several endocrine glands. All three conditions are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait, with a single gene producing multiple effects. MEN IIA is characterized by medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, pheochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism. It should be suspected in patients with bilateral pheochromocytoma, a familial history of MEN, or at least two characteristic endocrine manifestations. Genetic testing is used to confirm the diagnosis. Early diagnosis is crucial to aid in complete excision of the localized tumour. Pheochromocytomas can be detected by plasma free metanephrines and fractionated urinary catecholamines, particularly adrenaline (epinephrine).

      Imaging studies such as computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging might also prove useful. Hyperparathyroidism is diagnosed by the standard finding of hypercalcaemia, hypophosphatemia and an increased parathyroid hormone level. Once MEN IIA syndrome is identified in any patient, it is recommended that his or her first-degree relatives and any other symptomatic also undergo genetic testing. Relatives should be subjected to annual screening for hyperparathyroidism and pheochromocytoma beginning in early childhood and continue indefinitely. Serum calcium levels help in screening for hyperparathyroidism. Similarly, screening for pheochromocytoma is by history, measurement of the blood pressure and laboratory testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Pathology
      70.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all...

    Incorrect

    • Evaluation of a 60-year old gentleman, who has been a coal miner all his life and is suspected to have pulmonary fibrosis reveals the following: normal FEV1, arterial oxygen saturation 92%, alveolar ventilation 6000 ml/min at a tidal volume of 600 ml and a breathing rate of 12 breaths/min. There are also pathological changes in lung compliance and residual volume. Which of the following is most accurate about his residual volume?

      Your Answer: Is part of the expiratory reserve volume

      Correct Answer: Cannot be measured directly with a spirometer

      Explanation:

      Residual volume is the air left in the lungs after maximal expiration is done. Thus, this is not a part of vital capacity and cannot be measured with a spirometer directly. It can be measured by the methods such as body plethysmography or inert gas dilution. Expiratory reserve volume is vital capacity minus inspiratory capacity. Resting volume of lungs is he sum of residual volume and expiratory reserve volume. Lungs recoil inward until the recoil pressure becomes zero, which corresponds to a volume significantly lower than residual volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      73.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?

      Your Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it

      Explanation:

      The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a...

    Correct

    • What is the normal duration of PR interval on an electrocardiogram of a healthy individual?

      Your Answer: 0.12–0.20 s

      Explanation:

      PR interval extends from the beginning of the P-wave until the beginning of the QRS complex. The normal duration of the PR interval is 0.12-0.20 s. It can be prolonged in first degree heart block, and reduced in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed numerous bacilli under the microscope. The organism was non-pathogenic. What is the most likely organism:

      Your Answer: Lactobacillus species

      Explanation:

      Lactobacillus is a Gram-positive facultative bacteria. It is commonly present in the vagina and the gastrointestinal tract. Colonization of Lactobacillus is usually benign and it makes up a small portion of the gastrointestinal flora.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      52.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy...

    Correct

    • A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?

      Your Answer: Central artery of the retina

      Explanation:

      The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:

      Your Answer: Ciclosporin toxicity

      Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pathology
      123
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is...

    Correct

    • A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On...

    Correct

    • A young girl injured her arm following a fall down the steps On examination, it was found that her left proximal radioulnar joint had dislocated and the annular ligament was stretched. This will make which movement extremely painful?

      Your Answer: Supination

      Explanation:

      Supination is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces anteriorly. This is performed by the biceps brachii and supinator of the extensor muscles of the thumb. The opposite action of moving the palm from an anterior-facing position to a posterior-facing position is called pronation. Pronation is performed by the pronator teres and pronator quadratus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old lady has been diagnosed with Friedreich's ataxia that has affected her medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord. Which of the following structures will have their muscles affected?

      Your Answer: Axial muscles

      Explanation:

      The cells in the anterior horn can be arranged in the following three main groups: medial, lateral and central. The medial group of nuclei in the anterior horn of the spinal cord are located along the entire length of the spinal cord and are responsible for the innervation of the axial muscles of the body ( muscles of the head and neck region). Thus this disease will most likely affect the functioning of the muscles of the head and neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Neurology
      71.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a nutritional factor involved in wound healing:

      Your Answer: Copper

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B3

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B6 is required for collagen cross-links.

      Vitamin A is required for epithelial cell proliferation.

      Zinc is required for RNA and DNA synthesis.

      Copper is required for cross-linking of collagen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing
      • Physiology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases affects young adults, causing pain in any bone -particularly long bones- which worsens at night, and is typically relieved by common analgesics, such as aspirin?

      Your Answer: Ewing’s sarcoma

      Correct Answer: Osteoid osteoma

      Explanation:

      Osteoid osteoma, which tends to affect young adults, can occur in any bone but is most common in long bones. It can cause pain (usually worse at night) that is typically relieved by mild analgesics, such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. X-ray findings include a small radiolucent zone surrounded by a larger sclerotic zone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female is taking different medications for various medical conditions. Which medication would most likely predispose the patient to develop hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The most important potential side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalaemia (high potassium levels), which, in severe cases, can be life-threatening. Hyperkalaemia in these patients can present as a non anion-gap metabolic acidosis. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions can generate a metabolic alkalosis. In which of the following conditions is metabolic alkalosis caused by this mechanism ?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in the concentration of serum bicarbonate ions. This may occur as a consequence of a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain in bicarbonate. Hydrogen ions may be lost through the kidneys or the GI tract, as for example during vomiting, nasogastric suction or use of diuretics. Intracellular shifting of hydrogen ions develops mainly during hypokalaemia to maintain neutrality. Gain in bicarbonate ions may develop during administration of sodium bicarbonate in high amounts or in amounts that exceed the capacity of excretion of the kidneys, as seen in renal failure. Fluid losses may be another cause of metabolic alkalosis, causing the reduction of extracellular fluid volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Pathology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is correct regarding the obturator artery? ...

    Correct

    • What is correct regarding the obturator artery?

      Your Answer: It is found in the medial compartment of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The obturator artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery, which passes antero-inferiorly on the lateral wall of the pelvis, to the upper part of the obturator foramen. The posterior branch follows the posterior margin of the foramen and turns forward on the inferior ramus of the ischium. It also supplies an articular branch, which enters the hip joint through the acetabular notch, sending a branch along the ligamentum teres to the head of the femur. It is the main source of arterial supply to the medial compartment of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal...

    Incorrect

    • At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid arteries?

      Your Answer: C2

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      The common carotid arteries are present on the left and right sides of the body. These arteries originate from different sources, but follow symmetrical courses. The right common carotid originates in the neck from the brachiocephalic trunk; the left from the aortic arch in the thorax. These split into the external and internal carotid arteries at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, at around the level of the fourth cervical vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the SHO conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lied immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was the one likely punctured?

      Your Answer: Portal vein

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured. The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured. The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen. Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      76.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was...

    Correct

    • upon stroking the plantar surface of a patient's foot, extension of toes was noted. This is likely to be accompanied with:

      Your Answer: Spasticity

      Explanation:

      An upper motor neuron lesion affects the neural pathway above the anterior horn cell or motor nuclei of the cranial nerves, whereas a lower motor neurone lesion affects nerve fibres travelling from the anterior horn of the spinal cord to the relevant muscles. An upper motor neurone lesions results in the following:

      – Spasticity in the extensor muscles (lower limbs) or flexor muscles (upper limbs).

      – ‘clasp-knife’ response where initial resistance to movement is followed by relaxation

      – Weakness in the flexors (lower limbs) or extensors (upper limbs) with no muscle wasting

      – Brisk tendon jerk reflexes

      – Positive Babinski sign (on stimulation of the sole of the foot, the big toe is raised rather than curled downwards)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the role of factor VII in coagulation? ...

    Correct

    • What is the role of factor VII in coagulation?

      Your Answer: Initiates the process of coagulation in conjunction with tissue factor

      Explanation:

      The main role of factor VII is to initiate the process of coagulation along with tissue factor (TF). TF is found in the blood vessels and is not normally exposed to the bloodstream. When a vessel is injured tissue factor is exposed to blood and circulating factor VII. Factor VII is converted to VIIa by TF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      68.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of: ...

    Correct

    • The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of:

      Your Answer: Cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Bile salts are formed out of cholesterol in the liver cells. Occasionally, precipitation of cholesterol occurs resulting into cholesterol stones developing in the gall bladder.

      These cholesterol gallstones are the most common type and account for 80% of all gallstones. Another type, accounting for 20% gallstones is pigment stones which are composed of bilirubin and calcium salts. Occasionally, stones of mixed origin are also seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old man sustained a deep laceration to the sole of his left foot. It was found that the belly of extensor digitorum muscle was lacerated and the lateral tarsal artery was severed. The lateral tarsal artery is a branch of the:

      Your Answer: Posterior tibial artery

      Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The lateral tarsal artery arises from the dorsalis pedis, as the vessel crosses the navicular bone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - From which fascia of the pelvic wall muscle does the levator ani muscle...

    Incorrect

    • From which fascia of the pelvic wall muscle does the levator ani muscle arise?

      Your Answer: Iliacus

      Correct Answer: Obturator internus

      Explanation:

      The levator ani muscle arises from the posterior surface of the superior ramus of the pubis lateral to the symphysis, behind the inner surface of the spine of the ischium and between these points from the obturator internus fascia. It is attached to the inner surface of the side of the lesser pelvic cavity, supports the viscera in the cavity and surrounds the various structures that pass through it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the total peripheral resistance for a patient with a blood pressure of 130/70 mm HG and cardiac output of 5 litres / min?

      Your Answer: 20 mmHg × min/l

      Correct Answer: 18 mmHg × min/l

      Explanation:

      Total peripheral resistance = Mean arterial pressure/Cardiac output. And the mean arterial pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3 (Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure), i.e., 70 + 1/3 (130-70) = 90 mmHg. Therefore, total peripheral resistance = 90 mmHg/5 l per min = 18 mmHg × min/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      161.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:

      Your Answer: The right testicular vein drains into the right renal vein

      Correct Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein

      Explanation:

      Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      132.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General (2/3) 67%
Physiology (5/10) 50%
Neoplasia (0/2) 0%
Pathology (2/8) 25%
Anatomy (7/12) 58%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (2/2) 100%
Endocrine (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Lower Limb (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (1/3) 33%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Head & Neck (1/2) 50%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/2) 50%
Abdomen (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Pelvis (0/1) 0%
Passmed