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  • Question 1 - Which is a feature of the action of insulin? ...

    Correct

    • Which is a feature of the action of insulin?

      Your Answer: Promotes protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Insulin is produced by the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Its actions include:

      – promoting uptake of glucose into cells

      – glycogen synthesis (glycogenesis)

      – protein synthesis

      – stimulation of lipogenesis (fat formation).

      – driving potassium into cells – used to treat hyperkaelamia.

      Parathyroid hormone and activated vitamin D are the principal hormones involved in calcium/phosphate metabolism, rather than insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine
      • Physiology
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 5 year-old-child with fever complains of sore throat . She was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year-old-child with fever complains of sore throat . She was brought to her paediatrician for consult because she has also developed a rash and has swollen lymph nodes. Upon physical examination she cried when her liver was palpated and the tip of her spleen is slightly palpable. Full blood count shows haemoglobin 13 g/dL, Haematocrit 40%, white blood cell count 13x109/L with a WBC differential count of 45 neutrophils, 4 bands, 26 lymphocytes, 15 atypical lymphocytesm, 10 monocytes and 1 eosinophil. Whick is the most likely infectious agent that is responsible for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Rubella virus

      Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also known as human herpes virus 4,is a member of the herpes virus family. EBV spreads most commonly through bodily fluids, primarily saliva. EBV can cause infectious mononucleosis. Symptoms of EBV can include fatigue, fever, inflamed throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, enlarged spleen, swollen liver and rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes...

    Incorrect

    • Multiple, non-tender lymphadenopathy with biopsy showing several crowded follicles of small, monomorphic lymphocytes and the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells is seen in which of the following?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Poorly differentiated lymphocytic lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Malignant lymphoma usually causes non-tender lymphadenopathy, unlike the tender lymphadenopathy caused by infections (including infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus). Also, the lymphoid hyperplasia seen in infectious mononucleosis is benign and polyclonal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?...

    Incorrect

    • The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?

      Your Answer: Anterior superior iliac crests

      Correct Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Explanation:

      The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Incorrect

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer: Carotid nerve

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?

      Your Answer: COP

      Correct Answer: ABVD

      Explanation:

      ABVD is a chemotherapy regimen used in the first-line treatment of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It consists of concurrent treatment with the chemotherapy drugs, adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine and dacarbazine. It supplanted the older MOPP protocol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Pharmacology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Correct

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for directing the gaze downward when the eye is abducted?

      Your Answer: Inferior oblique muscle

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectus muscle

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectus muscle is a muscle in the orbit. As with most of the muscles of the orbit, it is innervated by the inferior division of oculomotor nerve (Cranial Nerve III). It depresses, adducts, and helps laterally rotate the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which Statement is true of the brachial plexus?

      Your Answer: The nerve to subclavius is a branch of the C8 nerve root

      Correct Answer: The posterior cord continues as the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The lateral cord continues as the musculocutaeous nerve.

      The medial cord continues as the ulnar nerve.

      The posterior cord continues as the radial nerve and the axillary nerve.

      The nerve to subclavius muscle is a branch of the C6 root.

      The suprascapular nerve is a branch from the upper trunk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      124.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which condition presents with a positive urine dipstick test for blood, but no...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition presents with a positive urine dipstick test for blood, but no blood cells on urine microscopy?

      Your Answer: Renal infarction

      Correct Answer: Myoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      Myoglobinuria, or presence of myoglobulin in the urine is seen due to rhabdomyolysis (muscle destruction). Common causes of rhabdomyolysis include trauma, electrical injuries, burns, venom and drugs. Damaged muscle leads to release of myoglobin in the blood. Ideally, the released myoglobin gets filtered and excreted by the kidneys. However, excess myoglobin can occlude the renal filtration system leading to acute tubular necrosis and acute renal dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathology
      • Renal
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A victim of road traffic accident presented to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 120/90 mm Hg, with a drop in systolic pressure to 100 mm Hg on inhalation. This is known as:

      Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Explanation:

      Weakening of pulse with inhalation and strengthening with exhalation is known as pulsus paradoxus. This represents an exaggeration of the normal variation of the pulse in relation to respiration. It indicates conditions such as cardiac tamponade and lung disease. The paradox refers to the auscultation of extra cardiac beats on inspiration, as compared to the pulse. Due to a decrease in blood pressure, the radial pulse becomes impalpable along with an increase in jugular venous pressure height (Kussmaul sign). Normal systolic blood pressure variation (with respiration) is considered to be >10 mmHg. It is >100 mmHg in Pulsus paradoxus. It is also predictive of the severity of cardiac tamponade.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric vein

      Correct Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      57.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 54 year old man fell off his bicycle. He felt a severe...

    Correct

    • A 54 year old man fell off his bicycle. He felt a severe pain in his hand and wasn't able to move it. It was found that a carpal bone in the distal row was fractured. Which is the most likely bone?

      Your Answer: Trapezium

      Explanation:

      There are eight carpal bones which are arranged in two rows, proximal and distal; scaphoid, lunate, triquetral and pisiform are of proximal row. Trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and hamate are of the distal row.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Scarpa’s fascia

      Correct Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his left middle and ring fingers, which he can't extend fully. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Granulomatous inflammation

      Correct Answer: Fibromatosis

      Explanation:

      This case is suggestive of Dupuytren’s contracture due to palmar fibromatosis. Its incidence is higher in men over the age of 45 years, and it increases in patients with diabetes, alcoholism, or epilepsy. These nodules are benign, usually appearing as a tender nodule in the palm which becomes painless. The disease has an aggressive clinical behaviour and recurs frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      • Pathology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain? ...

    Correct

    • Into which vein does the left and right inferior thyroid veins drain?

      Your Answer: Brachiocephalic vein

      Explanation:

      The brachiocephalic vein is formed by the confluence of the subclavian and internal jugular veins. In addition it receives drainage from: the left and right internal thoracic veins (also called internal mammary veins), left and right inferior thyroid veins and the left superior intercostal vein.
      The superior thyroid veins and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein. The right and left inferior thyroid veins to drain into their respective brachiocephalic veins (right and left).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42 year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) underwent an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) underwent an abdominal aortic angiography which revealed that his inferior mesenteric artery was occluded. If this patient showed no symptoms, the most likely reason is that the area the inferior mesenteric artery supplies, must be supplied by collateral blood flow from which arteries?

      Your Answer: Right and middle colic

      Correct Answer: Left and middle colic

      Explanation:

      The arterial branches that form an anastomosis between the superior mesenteric artery and the inferior mesenteric artery are the left colic artery and the middle colic artery. The middle colic artery is the most distal branch of the superior mesenteric artery while the left colic forms the most proximal branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. These two arteries will give collateral blood flow in the case that the inferior mesenteric artery gets occluded. The superior mesenteric artery gives off the following branches; ileocolic, appendicular, ileal artery, right colic and middle colic arteries. The left colic, sigmoid and superior rectal arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery. The marginal artery branches off directly from the abdominal aorta.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is given cephalexin to treat an infection and develops hives, with localised facial oedema. Which of the following conditions will cause localised oedema?

      Your Answer: Hypoproteinaemia

      Correct Answer: Angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      Angio-oedema, is the rapid swelling of the skin, mucosa and submucosal tissues. The underlying mechanism typically involves histamine or bradykinin. The version related to histamine is to due an allergic reaction to agents such as insect bites, food, or medications. The version related to bradykinin may occur due to an inherited C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, medications e.g. angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, or a lymphoproliferative disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      53.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What forms the pelvic diaphragm? ...

    Incorrect

    • What forms the pelvic diaphragm?

      Your Answer: Levator ani and obturator internus muscles

      Correct Answer: Levator ani and coccygeus muscles

      Explanation:

      The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the levator ani and the coccygeus muscles. The levator ani forms the greater part of the pelvic floor supporting the viscera in the pelvic cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm,...

    Correct

    • The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?

      Your Answer: Marginal

      Explanation:

      The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.

      The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.

      Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.

      The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.

      The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the motor innervation of this muscle?

      Your Answer: A branch of the same nerve that innervates the orbicularis oris muscle

      Correct Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen

      Explanation:

      The orbicularis oculi is a muscle in the face that closes the eyelids. It is supplied by zygomatic branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which exits through the stylomastoid foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - The specimen sent to the pathologist for examination was found to be benign....

    Incorrect

    • The specimen sent to the pathologist for examination was found to be benign. Which one of the following is most likely a benign tumour?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Warthin’s tumour

      Explanation:

      Warthin’s tumour is also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. It is a benign cystic tumour of the salivary glands containing abundant lymphocytes and germinal centres. It has a slightly higher incidence in males and most likely occur in older adults aged between 60 to 70 years. This tumour is also associated with smoking. Smokers have an eight-fold greater risk in developing the tumour compared to non-smokers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      133.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year old gentleman presented with acute pancreatitis to the emergency department. On enquiry, there was found to be a history of recurrent pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas and raised plasma triglyceride levels associated with chylomicrons. Which of the following will be found deficient in this patient?

      Your Answer: Apo-B-48

      Correct Answer: Lipoprotein lipase

      Explanation:

      The clinical features mentioned here suggest the diagnosis of hypertriglyceridemia due to lipoprotein lipase (LPL) deficiency. LPL aids in hydrolysing the lipids in lipoproteins into free fatty acids and glycerol. Apo-CII acts as a co-factor. Deficiency of this enzyme leads to hypertriglyceridemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      • Physiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the tissues with elevated arterial CO2 content?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is the result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations. Normally, arterial pa(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mEq/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that is very quick. If the change in pa(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids & Electrolytes
      • Physiology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 24 year old mother is breastfeeding her first child. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old mother is breastfeeding her first child. Which of the following cellular adaptations occurred in her breast tissue to allow her to do this?

      Your Answer: Lobular atrophy

      Correct Answer: Lobular hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Under the influence of oestrogen in pregnancy, there is an increase in the number of lobules which will facilitate lactation.

      Steatocytes occur due to loss of weight and nutritional deficit.

      Metaplasia is a normal physiological process which is due to a change in normal epithelium with another type.

      Lobular atrophy will result in a decreased capacity to provide milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Female Health
      • Pathology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep...

    Correct

    • An experiment is carried out to observe engulfment and phagocytosis of microbes. Strep pneumoniae are added to a solution of leukocytes with a substance added to enhance the process of phagocytosis. What is this substance?

      Your Answer: Complement C3b

      Explanation:

      C3b is cleaved from C3 complement with the help of the enzyme C3- convertase. It binds to the cell surface of the offending substance and opsonizes it. This makes it easy for the phagocytes to detect and eliminate them.

      IgM does not act as an opsonin but igG does.

      Selectins aid leukocytes to bind to the endothelial surfaces.

      C5a is a chemo-attractant and histamine a vasodilator.

      NADPH oxidises offending substance after phagocytosis within the macrophage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A patient is diagnosed with Brucellosis. What is the mode of transmission of...

    Correct

    • A patient is diagnosed with Brucellosis. What is the mode of transmission of this disease?

      Your Answer: Unpasteurised milk

      Explanation:

      Brucellosis is a highly contagious zoonosis caused by ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals, or close contact with their secretions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is...

    Correct

    • A syndrome responsible for failure to absorb vitamin B12 from the GIT is called?

      Your Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a type of autoimmune disease in which antibodies form against the parietal cells or intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of vitamin B12. Blood testing typically shows a macrocytic, normochromic anaemia and low levels of serum vitamin B12. A Schilling test can then be used to distinguish between pernicious anaemia, vitamin B12 malabsorption and vitamin B12 deficiency. Symptoms include shortness of breath, pallor and diarrhoea etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General
      • Physiology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Perforin are present in the granules of which cell? ...

    Incorrect

    • Perforin are present in the granules of which cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Natural killer cell

      Explanation:

      Perforins are characteristically found In the granules of CD8+ T cells and natural killer cells. They are cytolytic proteins that insert into the target plasma membrane forming a hole and resulting in lysis. They along with granzyme B induce apoptosis in the target cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Inflammation & Immunology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant...

    Incorrect

    • In a study, breast lumps were analysed to determine the characteristic of malignant neoplasm on biopsy. What microscopic findings are suggestive of malignancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Invasion

      Explanation:

      Invasion is suggestive of malignancy and an even better option would have been metastasis. Pleomorphism is found in both benign and malignant neoplasms along with atypia and anaplasia. A height nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is suggestive of malignancy but not the best indicator. Malignant tumours are aggressive and growth rapidly. Necrosis can be seen in benign tumours if they deplete their blood supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neoplasia
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrine (1/1) 100%
Physiology (4/5) 80%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (4/11) 36%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (4/12) 33%
Pelvis (1/4) 25%
Head & Neck (2/5) 40%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Upper Limb (1/2) 50%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Neoplasia (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Fluids & Electrolytes (1/1) 100%
Cell Injury & Wound Healing; Female Health (1/1) 100%
Inflammation & Immunology (1/2) 50%
General (1/1) 100%
Passmed