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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding herpes simplex virus type I:

      Your Answer: Route of infection is usually through the skin.

      Correct Answer: More than half of the population is infected.

      Explanation:

      HSV-1 is often acquired orally during childhood. It may also be sexually transmitted, including contact with saliva, such as kissing and mouth-to-genital contact (oral sex). HSV-2 is primarily a sexually transmitted infection, but rates of HSV-1 genital infections are increasing. HSVs may persist in a quiescent but persistent form known as latent infection, notably in neural ganglia. HSV-1 tends to reside in the trigeminal ganglia, while HSV-2 tends to reside in the sacral ganglia, but these are tendencies only, not fixed behaviour. The virus can be reactivated by illnesses such as colds and influenza, eczema, emotional and physical stress, gastric upset, fatigue or injury, by menstruation and possibly exposure to bright sunlight. Genital Herpes may be reactivated by friction. Shingles is due to a reactivation of varicella zoster virus (VZV).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      280.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following are Gram-negative cocci: ...

    Correct

    • The following are Gram-negative cocci:

      Your Answer: Neisseria

      Explanation:

      Gram-negative cocci include the four types that cause a sexually transmitted disease (Neisseria gonorrhoeae), a meningitis (Neisseria meningitidis), and respiratory symptoms (Moraxella catarrhalis, Haemophilus influenzae).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The following are Gram positive rods: ...

    Correct

    • The following are Gram positive rods:

      Your Answer: Clostridia

      Explanation:

      Examples of Gram positive bacilli:Bacillus genusClostridium genusCorynebacterium genusListeria genusPropionibacterium genusExamples of Gram negative bacilli:Bacteroides genusCitrobacter genusEnterobacter genusEscherichia genusPseudomonas genusProteus genusSalmonella genusSerratia genusShigella genusYersinia genus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver...

    Correct

    • In the malaria life cycle , parasites which remain dormant in the liver are known as :

      Your Answer: Hypnozoites

      Explanation:

      The life-cycles of Plasmodium species involve several different stages both in the insect and the vertebrate host. These stages include sporozoites, which are injected by the insect vector into the vertebrate host’s blood. Sporozoites infect the host liver, giving rise to merozoites and (in some species) hypnozoites. These move into the blood where they infect red blood cells. In the red blood cells, the parasites can either form more merozoites to infect more red blood cells, or produce gametocytes which are taken up by insects which feed on the vertebrate host. In the insect host, gametocytes merge to sexually reproduce. After sexual reproduction, parasites grow into new sporozoites, which move to the insect’s salivary glands, from which they can infect a vertebrate host bitten by the insect

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point...

    Correct

    • Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time

      Your Answer: Sero-Prevalence

      Explanation:

      n immunology, seroconversion is the time period during which a specific antibody develops and becomes detectable in the blood. After seroconversion has occurred, the disease can be detected in blood tests for the antibody. Sero-prevalence includes Individuals who are antibody positive for a specific infection at a specific point in time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      82.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following best describe Clostridium infection?

      Your Answer: Gram positive bacilli

      Correct Answer: Anaerobe

      Explanation:

      Clostridium is a genus of Gram-positive bacteria, which includes several significant human pathogens, including the causative agent of botulism and an important cause of diarrhoea, Clostridium difficile. They are obligate anaerobes capable of producing endospores. The normal, reproducing cells of Clostridium, called the vegetative form, are rod-shaped, which gives them their name, from the Greek κλωστήρ or spindle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Number of cases that are infected at a specific point in time ...

    Correct

    • Number of cases that are infected at a specific point in time

      Your Answer: Prevalence

      Explanation:

      Prevalence in epidemiology is the proportion of a population found to have a condition (typically a disease or a risk factor such as smoking or seat-belt use). It is arrived at by comparing the number of people found to have the condition with the total number of people studied, and is usually expressed as a fraction, as a percentage or as the number of cases per 10,000 or 100,000 people. Point prevalence is the proportion of a population that has the condition at a specific point in time. Period prevalence is the proportion of a population that has the condition at some time during a given period (e.g., 12 month prevalence), and includes people who already have the condition at the start of the study period as well as those who acquire it during that period. Lifetime prevalence (LTP) is the proportion of a population that at some point in their life (up to the time of assessment) have experienced the condition

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Antibiotic resistance may happen by: ...

    Incorrect

    • Antibiotic resistance may happen by:

      Your Answer: By transformation when resistance is transferred from 1 bacteria to another

      Correct Answer: By enzymes which inactivate the drug

      Explanation:

      The three main mechanisms of antibiotic resistance are, enzymatic degradation of antibacterial drugs, alteration of bacterial proteins that are antimicrobial targets, and changes in membrane permeability to antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      450.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which protein in the HIV genome is responsible for binding to the host...

    Correct

    • Which protein in the HIV genome is responsible for binding to the host CD4 cells?

      Your Answer: gp120

      Explanation:

      HIV can infect a variety of immune cells such as CD4+ T cells, macrophages, and microglial cells. HIV-1 entry to macrophages and CD4+ T cells is mediated through interaction of the virion envelope glycoproteins (gp120) with the CD4 molecule on the target cells and also with chemokine coreceptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      118.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action does Trimethoprim use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit Folic Acid metabolism

      Explanation:

      Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and inhibits the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      491.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following pairing is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following pairing is correct:

      Your Answer: Herpes simplex type I and herpes encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Herpes simplex virus is likely the most common cause of Mollaret’s meningitis, and, in worse case scenarios, can lead to a potentially fatal case of herpes simplex encephalitis. The eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8 causes Kaposi’s sarcoma and Herpes simplex type 2 is responsible for most primary genital herpes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a: ...

    Correct

    • The pathogen in variant Creutzfeldt Jacobs disease is an example of a:

      Your Answer: Prion

      Explanation:

      Types of Creutzfeldt Jacobs Disease (CJD) include:1. variant – This is thought to be caused by the consumption of food contaminated with prions, which also cause BSE.2. sporadic – This accounts for 85% of cases of CJD. 3. familial – This accounts for the majority of the other 15% cases of CJD.4. iatrogenic – This form of CJD arises from contamination with tissue from an infected person, usually as the result of a medical procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Approximately what percentage of the world is infected with tuberculosis: ...

    Correct

    • Approximately what percentage of the world is infected with tuberculosis:

      Your Answer: 0.3

      Explanation:

      One-third of the world’s population is thought to be infected with TB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement describes endogenous transmission the best?

      Your Answer: Commensal flora that gain access to an inappropriate area

      Explanation:

      All answers A, B, C, and D are examples of exogenous infections. Endogenous infection is an infection by organisms that normally reside in the body but have previously been dormant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      126.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group ...

    Incorrect

    • Protozoa is part of which pathogenic group

      Your Answer: Parasites

      Correct Answer: Eukaryotes

      Explanation:

      Protozoa are a diverse group of unicellular eukaryotic organisms. Historically, protozoa were defined as single-celled organisms with animal-like behaviours, such as motility and predation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Live active or attenuated vaccines: ...

    Incorrect

    • Live active or attenuated vaccines:

      Your Answer: Boosting is often required

      Correct Answer: Side effect may be egg hypersensitivity

      Explanation:

      Live attenuated vaccines consist of a weakened form of the virus itself and have both advantages and disadvantages. Although they can exert an excellent immune response, potential risks exist. One such concern is the risk of reversion to a more virulent strain of virus. They are easily damaged or destroyed by heat and light, making it even more important that they be stored and refrigerated with care. Live vaccines are not given to immunocompromised persons. A few live vaccines against viruses include: oral polio, measles, mumps, rubella, rota virus and yellow fever. Eggs are used to produce Measles- mumps- rubella vaccine (MMR) and thus hypersensitivity may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      280.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which statement regarding fever is correct: ...

    Correct

    • Which statement regarding fever is correct:

      Your Answer: Body temperature is regulated is by a centre in the floor of the third ventricle

      Explanation:

      The hypothalamus is located on the floor of the third ventricle and is the centre of regulation of body temperature. It uses a set point to regulate other body systems as well. Diurnal variation of temperature is not seen in humans. the principal mediator of fever is interleukin I, although interferon alfa also plays a role. Fever can cause rhabdomyolysis or muscle breakdown

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      411.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct statement about Aminoglycosides and Chloramphenicol

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol works on Ribosome 50 S peptidyl transferase

      Explanation:

      Aminoglycoside is a category of traditional Gram-negative antibacterial therapeutic agents that inhibit protein synthesis. Aminoglycoside antibiotics display bactericidal activity against gram-negative aerobes and some anaerobic bacilli where resistance has not yet arisen, but generally not against Gram-positive and anaerobic Gram-negative bacteria.Chloramphenicol is a bacteriostatic by inhibiting protein synthesis. It prevents protein chain elongation by inhibiting the peptidyl transferase activity of the bacterial ribosome. It specifically binds to A2451 and A2452 residues in the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit, preventing peptide bond formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      147.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the toxin secretion pathways in the cell membrane of gram– bacteria delivers the toxin extracellular in a 2 stage process to the host?

      Your Answer: III

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Gram negative bacteria contain two membranes and there are about six specialized secretion systems. The secreted proteins play a key role in pathogenesis. Type II secretion systems (T2SS) are conserved in most Gram-negative bacteria, where they transport proteins from the periplasm into the extracellular environment. Because the T2SS channel is only found in the outer membrane, proteins secreted through this apparatus must first be delivered to the periplasm via the Sec or Tat secretion pathways and then to the extracellular environment making it a two-stage process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      350.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding influenza virus is correct?

      Your Answer: New influenza subtypes is generated via antigenic drift

      Correct Answer: Influenza is a RNA virus

      Explanation:

      The Orthomyxoviruses are a family of RNA viruses that includes six genera: Influenza virus A, Influenza virus B, Influenza virus C, Isavirus, Thogotovirus and Quaranjavirus.The mechanism of the evolutionary force of antigenic shift allows influenza viruses to exchange genes with strains that infect different species. Under this mechanism, a human influenza virus could exchange genes with an avian strain, and that is how pandemic strains arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      536.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describe N. Meningitides?

      Your Answer: Gram negative cocci

      Explanation:

      Neisseria meningitidis, often referred to as meningococcus, is a gram negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease such as meningococcaemia, a life-threatening sepsis. The bacterium is referred to as a coccus because it is round, and more specifically, diplococcus because of its tendency to form pairs. About 10% of adults are carriers of the bacteria in their nasopharynx.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      200.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following drugs have the best gram positive cover? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs have the best gram positive cover?

      Your Answer: Cephalosporin

      Correct Answer: Glycopeptides

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporin has a mixed coverage of gram positive and negative organisms. Aminoglycosides are active against gram negative aerobic bacteria. Quinolones mainly cover gram negative bacteria. Monobactams primarily cover infections caused by gram negative bacteria. Glycopeptides are antibiotics effective primarily against gram positive cocci.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      259
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Endotoxin ...

    Correct

    • Endotoxin

      Your Answer: Composed of Lipid A in liposaccharide in cell wall

      Explanation:

      Lipopolysaccharides (LPS), also known as lipoglycans and endotoxins, are large molecules consisting of a lipid (lipid A) and a polysaccharide composed of O-antigen, outer core and inner core joined by a covalent bond; they are found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, and elicit strong immune responses in animals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      58.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following diseases is correctly matched with the animal reservoir:

      Your Answer: Leptospirosis = Rats

      Explanation:

      Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease = consuming beef or beef products.Brucellosis = ingestion of unpasteurized milk or undercooked meat from infected animals.Leptospirosis is transmitted by both wild and domestic animals. The most common animals that spread the disease are rodents.Lyme disease is transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks of the Ixodes genus.Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and spread by the bite of certain types of sandflies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true of the beta- lactams:

      Your Answer: Acts by directly disrupting bacterial cell walls

      Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav is more likely to cause obstructive jaundice than amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      β-lactam antibiotics are a class of broad-spectrum antibiotics, consisting of all antibiotic agents that contain a β-lactam ring in their molecular structures. This includes penicillin derivatives (penams), cephalosporins (cephems), monobactams, and carbapenems. Most β-lactam antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall biosynthesis in the bacterial organism and are the most widely used group of antibiotics. Bacteria often develop resistance to β-lactam antibiotics by synthesizing a β-lactamase, an enzyme that attacks the β-lactam ring. To overcome this resistance, β-lactam antibiotics are often given with β-lactamase inhibitors such as clavulanic acid. Immunologically mediated adverse reactions to any β-lactam antibiotic may occur in up to 10% of patients receiving that agent (a small fraction of which are truly IgE-mediated allergic reactions). Rarely, cholestatic jaundice has been associated with Co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin/clavulanic acid). The reaction may occur up to several weeks after treatment has stopped, and usually takes weeks to resolve. It is more frequent in men, older people, and those who have taken long courses of treatment; the estimated overall incidence is one in 100,000 exposures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      765.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The HIV virus: ...

    Incorrect

    • The HIV virus:

      Your Answer: Glycoprotein p41 binds to the chemokine receptors

      Correct Answer: P24 is a core protein

      Explanation:

      HIV is different in structure from other retroviruses. It is roughly spherical with a diameter of about 120 nm, around 60 times smaller than a red blood cell. It is composed of two copies of positive single-stranded RNA that codes for the virus’s nine genes enclosed by a conical capsid composed of 2,000 copies of the viral protein p24. The single-stranded RNA is tightly bound to nucleocapsid proteins, p7, and enzymes needed for the development of the virion such as reverse transcriptase, proteases, ribonuclease and integrase. A matrix composed of the viral protein p17 surrounds the capsid ensuring the integrity of the virion particle. Reverse transcriptase copies the viral single stranded RNA genome into a double-stranded viral DNA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action does Penicillin use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Bacteria constantly remodel their peptidoglycan cell walls, simultaneously building and breaking down portions of the cell wall as they grow and divide. β-Lactam antibiotics inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall; this is achieved through binding of the four-membered β-lactam ring of penicillin to the enzyme DD-transpeptidase. As a consequence, DD-transpeptidase cannot catalyse formation of these cross-links, and an imbalance between cell wall production and degradation develops, causing the cell to rapidly die.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      347
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which mechanism of action does Quinolones use? ...

    Correct

    • Which mechanism of action does Quinolones use?

      Your Answer: Inhibit DNA gyrase

      Explanation:

      The quinolones are a family of synthetic broad-spectrum antibiotic drugs. Quinolones exert their antibacterial effect by preventing bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      56.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following drugs is NOT bacteriostatic?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria directly whereas bacteriostatic antibiotics slow their growth or reproduction. Tetracycline is a bacteriostatic antibiotic. Erythromycin which is a macrolide is mainly a bacteriostatic antibiotic but can show bactericidal action depending on the dose. Sulphonamides are mainly bacteriostatic. Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis therefore it is considered as bactericidal. Chloramphenicol is primarily a bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis and can exhibit bactericidal action in high concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      99.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements are true regarding human herpesvirus eight

      Your Answer: It is sexually transmitted.

      Explanation:

      Kaposi’s sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV) is the eighth human herpesvirus or HHV-8. This virus causes Kaposi’s sarcoma, a cancer commonly occurring in AIDS patients, as well as primary effusion lymphoma and some types of multicentric Castleman’s disease. It is one of seven currently known human cancer viruses, or oncoviruses. The mechanisms by which the virus is contracted are not well understood. Healthy individuals can be infected with the virus and show no signs or symptoms, due to the immune system’s ability to keep the infection in check. Infection is of particular concern to the immunosuppressed. Cancer patients receiving chemotherapy, AIDS patients and organ transplant patients are all at a high risk of showing signs of infection. The virus is sexually transmitted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      • Medicine
      13.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (20/30) 67%
Medicine (20/30) 67%
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