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  • Question 1 - A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old girl was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection.Which of the following is NOT a requirement to perform imaging studies in this child?

      Your Answer: E.coli UTI

      Explanation:

      E. coli accounts for the majority of UTI’s in children. If this child responds well to treatment and has no recurrence of his symptoms, then no form of imaging is required, as per NICE advice for children aged 6 months to 3 years. Had the child been less than 6 months of age, then a USS at 6 weeks would be necessary.Other options:- Pseudomonas causes atypical UTI. This warrants ultrasonography within the acute illness phase as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Recurrent UTI is defined as two or more episodes of pyelonephritis OR 1 pyelonephritis and one cystitis OR 3 or more cystitis. It requires USS at six weeks and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Septicaemia is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as it may reflect an underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.- Unwell 48hrs post antibiotics is a sign of an atypical UTI. This requires USS within the acute illness as may reflect underlying pathology and DMSA at 4-6 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephro-urology
      154.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old female presented with a bleeding nose. On examination by the ENT surgeon, it was noticed that the bleeding was coming from the anterior part of the nose and the bleeding point was clearly visualised. Which of the following options is the most suitable choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Ice pack on the bridge of nose and pinching of the nose

      Correct Answer: Cautery

      Explanation:

      In the case of anterior nasal bleeds, when the bleeding point is clearly visualised the best management step is cautery, either electrical or chemical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the gestational age by which the lung buds are formed?

      Your Answer: Canalicular: 16-24 weeks gestation

      Correct Answer: Embryonic: 4-5 weeks gestation

      Explanation:

      Lung buds are formed by 4-5 weeks of gestation.Development of the respiratory tract has five stages:- Embryonic (at 4 – 5 weeks of gestation):Formation of lung buds, trachea and mainstem bronchi occur. These structures are formed from a ventral outpouching of foregut pharynx. At this stage, the beginnings of the five lung lobes are present.- Pseudoglandular (at 5 – 16 weeks of gestation):Formation of terminal bronchioles, cartilage and smooth muscles occur in this stage. Adult numbers of airways proximal to acini are in place.- Canalicular (at 16-24 weeks gestation): Differentiation of type I and II epithelial cells can be done in this stage. There is also an increase in the size of proximal airways).- Saccular (at 24 – 40 weeks of gestation): Terminal saccule formation occurs. Production of surfactant takes place at this stage with an increase in the number of goblet cellsUp to half the adult number of alveoli are in place by this stage.- Alveolar (occurs between 32 weeks of gestation till the post-natal age 8): Formation of alveoli and septation occurs with the expansion of air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with a history of recurrent tonsillitis. His mother claims he had three attacks in one year. What is the best management?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT

      Correct Answer: Treat when ill

      Explanation:

      At least seven episodes in the previous year, five episodes in each of the previous two years, or three episodes in each of the previous three years are indications for tonsillectomy. Antibiotics should be administered in the conventional dosage for proved or suspected streptococcal episodes. For now the child should be treated on a case by case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the given bioactive factors is NOT a component of normal human breast milk?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Correct Answer: Basophil

      Explanation:

      Human breast milk composition is best suited to meet all the growth and development requirements of a baby. It contains numerous biochemicals ranging from macronutrients, micronutrients, minerals, immunoglobulins, inflammatory markers, and growth factors. The major bioactive factors found in human breast milk are: immunoglobulins (IgA, IgG, and IgM), cells (macrophages and stem cells), growth factors (epidermal growth factor, tumour necrosis factor-alpha, transforming growth factor-beta, and vascular endothelial growth factor), cytokines, chemokines, hormones, metabolic hormones, glycans, and mucins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nutrition
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother with a...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the hospital by her mother with a 24-hour history of coryza and irritability. On examination, she was found to have a temperature of 37.7 C, a harsh cough, stridor at rest, and moderate respiratory distress.Which of the following treatments is indicated in this child?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone 1-2mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Among the treatment options provided, the most appropriate would be prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg.Other options:- Dexamethasone 0.15 mg per kg is the correct dose based on new trials and BNF guidance.- Inhaled budesonide 2mg would be a more appropriate dose.- Nebulised adrenaline may also be used.Croup:Laryngotracheobronchitis caused most commonly by parainfluenza virus. It most commonly affects children between 6 months to 3 years.Seasonal peaks: Most prevalent in autumn and spring.It starts as viral URTI then progresses to barking cough and a hoarse cry. Stridor and respiratory distress may occur. The illness can last from two days to 2 weeks.Relevant differential diagnoses include epiglottitis (the child will be septic with high temp and drooling) and inhaled foreign body.All children with moderate/severe croup should be given one dose of oral dexamethasone.Further doses may be needed if children have rebound symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      83.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be...

    Correct

    • Which of the following actions will an 8-week-old infant born at full-term be able to do, considering normal development?

      Your Answer: Smile

      Explanation:

      Among the options provided, an 8-week-old full-term infant with normal developmental milestones will smile in response to appropriate stimuli.Rationale:Smiles in response to appropriate stimuli are seen from around 6 weeks of age. A social smile, where the infant has an awareness that a smile attracts attention, is not observed until around 3 months of age.Other options:- At 6 weeks an infant is able to follow objects in the horizontal plane through 90 deg| fixing and following an object through 180 deg in the horizontal plane is a milestone achieved at 3 months, as is pushing up onto forearms. – Pushing up onto hands occurs by around 5 months.- Infants of 3 months should startle to a 60 dB sound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child Development
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability? ...

    Incorrect

    • What IQ is the cut off for profound learning disability?

      Your Answer: <15

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Mild learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 50-70, or mental age of 9-12 years
      Moderate learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 35-49, or mental age of 6-9 years
      Severe learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20-34, or mental age of 3-6 years
      Profound learning disabilities indicates an IQ = 20, or mental age of less than 3 years
      Average IQ is 100. The arbitrary cut-off to indicate learning disabilities is 70.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most accurate statement regarding scabies?

      Your Answer: Because the mite can jump, infection rates are high in households and nurseries

      Correct Answer: Positive mineral oil mount is diagnostic

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of scabies can often be made clinically in patients with a pruritic rash and characteristic linear burrows. Definitive testing relies on the identification of mites or their eggs, eggshell fragments, or scybala. This is best undertaken by placing a drop of mineral oil directly over the burrow on the skin and then superficially scraping longitudinally and laterally across the skin with a scalpel blade. (Avoid causing bleeding.) Scraping 15 or more burrows often produces only 1 or 2 eggs or mites, except in a case of crusted scabies, in which many mites will be present. The sample is placed on a microscope slide and examined under low and high power. Potassium hydroxide should not be used, since it can dissolve mite pellets. Failure to find mites is common and does not rule out the diagnosis of scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following epilepsy syndromes is NOT benign? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following epilepsy syndromes is NOT benign?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic photosensitive occipital lobe epilepsy

      Correct Answer: Infantile spasms

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy is a common paediatric neurologic disorder characterized by seizures of varying frequency and intensity. There are many childhood or infantile epilepsy syndromes that can be categorized as benign epilepsy syndromes as the child suffering from these usually outgrows them after reaching a certain age, and they do not lead to significant cognitive or physical impairment. Some of these may not need any treatment. Such benign epilepsy syndromes include benign rolandic epilepsy, Panayiotopoulos syndrome, Gastaut type-idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy, and idiopathic photosensitive occipital lobe epilepsy. West syndrome, also called infantile spasms, is a serious infantile epileptic encephalopathy, characterized by multiple clusters of myoclonic spasms, and regression of the previous normally attained milestones. It is associated with severe cognitive and physical impairment, often leading to life long disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology And Neurodisability
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the imaging modality of choice to assess for the presence of developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) in a baby born breech?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: USS

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a spectrum of anatomical abnormalities of the hip joint in which the femoral head has an abnormal relationship with the acetabulum.Plain radiographs are of limited value for diagnosis in the new-born child because the femoral head and acetabulum are largely cartilaginous. Ultrasound scanning is the investigation of choice to evaluate DDH in infants younger than six months of age and is useful to diagnose more subtle forms of the disorder when a clinical exam is equivocal. It is also the only imaging modality that enables a three-dimensional real-time image of a neonate’s hip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 7 year old boy who never had a history of incontinence presented with bed-wetting. Which of the following is the best approach?

      Your Answer: Behavioural changes

      Correct Answer: Sleep alarms

      Explanation:

      As this boy didn’t have a previous history, a structural abnormality is unlikely. Parents should be asked to take the child to the bathroom to void before bedtime. Either alarm therapy or pharmacologic therapy should be considered if the above method doesn’t work after 3 months. From the above 2 therapies, neither one is superior than the other, so alarm therapy should be tried first.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Costocervical recess

      Correct Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old pregnant female had a pre pregnancy BMI of 33 kg/m2. She is found to have gestational diabetes and ultrasonography estimates a fetal macrosomia. BP is 127/72 mmHg. This primigravida is at greatest risk for which of the following obstetric emergency?

      Your Answer: Shoulder dystocia

      Explanation:

      Shoulder dystocia occurs when the fetal anterior shoulder impacts against the maternal symphysis following delivery of the vertex. Less commonly, shoulder dystocia results from impaction of the posterior shoulder on the sacral promontory. Risk Factors for Shoulder DystociaMaternalAbnormal pelvic anatomyGestational diabetesPost-dates pregnancyPrevious shoulder dystociaShort statureFetalSuspected macrosomiaLabour relatedAssisted vaginal delivery (forceps or vacuum)Protracted active phase of first-stage labourProtracted second-stage labour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 10 year old child presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old child presents with enlarged tonsils that meet in the midline. Oropharyngeal examination confirms this finding and you also notice petechial haemorrhages affecting the oropharynx. On systemic examination he is noted to have splenomegaly. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infection

      Explanation:

      Answer: Acute Epstein Barr virus infectionThe Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:fever,fatigue,swollen tonsils,headache, andsweats,sore throat,swollen lymph nodes in the neck, andsometimes an enlarged spleen.Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer: Gives rise to the adrenal medulla

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      64.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 2-year-old boy's illness started with a 4-day history of fever and cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy's illness started with a 4-day history of fever and cough. Crepitations are noted upon auscultation. Other examination results are temperature 38.9C, O2 sats 94% on air, respiratory rate is 45/min, and capillary refill time 1 sec. Urine is also negative on dipstick. What is the single investigation most likely to lead to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chest X Ray

      Correct Answer: Blood for culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Blood culture and sensitivity will distinguish the bacteria that is responsible for the infection and the effective antibiotic treatment to which the bacteria is sensitive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      39.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In a trial for a new treatment of lung disease, a traditional regime...

    Correct

    • In a trial for a new treatment of lung disease, a traditional regime was given to 130 patients, 30 of whom died, while the new treatment was given to 125 patients, 20 of whom died. 

Which of the following tools will be useful in calculating whether the above results are due to chance?

      Your Answer: Chi-squared analysis

      Explanation:

      The Chi squared test is used to find the relationship between two variables, determining whether they are not independent of each other. This test of statistical significance allows you to determine the degree of confidence with which you can accept or reject the null hypothesis. The student t test compares the significant differences in data means, while rank correlation, linear regression and the correlation coefficient all help to measure the linear relationship between variables.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is true of mother to child transmission in the case of a mother with HIV infection?

      Your Answer: The risk of HIV vertical transmission is increased by concurrent maternal Hepatitis C infection

      Explanation:

      To prevent mother to child transmission in the case of an HIV infected mother, guidelines have been put in place in the that guide practices. During pregnancy the risk of intrauterine transmission is quite low, as is the risk of transmission during vaginal delivery. As a result the number of women that choose to have caesarean sections have fallen, with vaginal births increasing by 40%. One factor that can however increase the risk of mother to child HIV transmission is concurrent Hepatitis C infection which double the risk of vertical transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • HIV
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy with faecal soiling secondary to constipation and overflow incontinence has not responded to over a year of medical management.A colonoscopy-guided biopsy has ruled out Hirschsprung's disease.Which of the following procedures would be appropriate in the surgical management of this child?

      Your Answer: Left hemi-colectomy to increase transit time

      Correct Answer: Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate procedure in the surgical management of this child would be to perform an appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas (Malone procedure).Idiopathic constipation leading to faecal incontinence is managed in a stepwise progression, first with laxatives such as movicol, enemas and stronger laxatives and in younger children inter-sphincteric injection of botox may be performed. Following this either anal irrigation or antegrade continence enemas are performed. Appendicostomy for anterior continence enemas allow colonic washouts and thereby rapid achievement of continence.Other options:- Defunctioning Ileostomy: Although an option in extreme cases, an ACE stoma would be more appropriate in this child.- Laparotomy for resection of the megarectum is performed if ACE stoma fails due to megarectum.- Left hemicolectomy is a procedure reserved for slow-transit colons to increase transit time.- Bishop-Koop stoma: It is a procedure of historical significance. It is a way of washing out and managing meconium ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Surgery
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following features is not associated with Marfan's syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is not associated with Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      Marfan syndrome is a disorder that affects the connective tissue in many parts of the body. Connective tissue provides strength and flexibility to structures such as bones, ligaments, muscles, blood vessels, and heart valves. The signs and symptoms of Marfan syndrome vary widely in severity, timing of onset, and rate of progression.This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to cause the disorder.At least 25 percent of Marfan syndrome cases result from a new mutation in the FBN1 gene. These cases occur in people with no history of the disorder in their family.The two primary features of Marfan syndrome are vision problems caused by a dislocated lens (ectopia lentis) in one or both eyes and defects in the large blood vessel that distributes blood from the heart to the rest of the body (the aorta).Associations include:Tall statureLearning disability (50%)Lens subluxation (usually upwards)Femoral herniaHemivertebraeCardiac problems (Aortic/mitral regurgitation, aneurysms)Joint hypermobilityArachnodactyly

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics And Dysmorphology
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding the umbilical cord?

      Your Answer: Is covered by a layer of endoderm

      Correct Answer: Is filled with jelly of Wharton

      Explanation:

      The umbilical cord that connects the fetus to the placenta is about 50cm long. This tissue consists of the body stalk and vitelline duct. The former containing the allantoic diverticulum and the umbilical vessels. The latter contains the connection linking the digestive tube and the yolk sac. This cord is wrapped by stratum of ectoderm and gelatinous tissue or jelly of Wharton. The right umbilical vein plus the vitelline vessels and ducts disappear and this at birth the cord has three vessels which are the umbilical vein and two umbilical arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He...

    Correct

    • A young boy presents with signs and symptoms consistent with infective endocarditis. He has a history of neglect and poor dental hygiene.Which organism is likely to have caused his endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Streptococci viridans

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis occurs when microorganisms enter the bloodstream and infect damaged endocardium or endothelial tissue. It most commonly involves the heart valves (either native or prosthetic), but it may also occur at the site of a septal defect, on the chordae tendineae, or on the mural endocardium. The prototypic lesion is at the site of the infection| the vegetation is a mass of platelets, fibrin, microcolonies of microorganisms, and scant inflammatory cells. Endocarditis is classified as acute or subacute, which applies to the features and the progression of infection until diagnosis.The oral cavity, the skin, and the upper respiratory tract are the primary portals for Streptococcus viridans| Staphylococcus species| and Haemophilus aphrophilus, Aggregatibacter (formerly Actinobacillus) actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, and Kingella kingae (HACEK) organisms. Streptococcal and staphylococcal organisms are responsible for more than 80% of cases of bacterial IE.Streptococcus viridans accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease.While S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including Prosthetic valve endocarditis, acute IE, and IV Drug Abusers IE

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a...

    Correct

    • A 12 month old baby boy is taken to the office with a history of failure to thrive. He is observed to have a large head and to be small for his age. A cupped appearance of the epiphysis of the wrist is seen on the x-ray. Which condition is this linked to?

      Your Answer: Rickets

      Explanation:

      Answer: RicketsRickets is a disease of growing bone that is unique to children and adolescents. It is caused by a failure of osteoid to calcify in a growing person. The signs and symptoms of rickets can include:pain – the bones affected by rickets can be sore and painful, so the child may be reluctant to walk or may tire easily| the child’s walk may look different (waddling)skeletal deformities – thickening of the ankles, wrists and knees, bowed legs, soft skull bones and, rarely, bending of the spinedental problems – including weak tooth enamel, delay in teeth coming through and increased risk of cavitiespoor growth and development – if the skeleton doesn’t grow and develop properly, the child will be shorter than averagefragile bones – in severe cases, the bones become weaker and more prone to fractures.Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue. The degree to which people are affected varies. People with Marfan tend to be tall and thin, with long arms, legs, fingers and toes. They also typically have flexible joints and scoliosis. The most serious complications involve the heart and aorta, with an increased risk of mitral valve prolapse and aortic aneurysm. Other commonly affected areas include the lungs, eyes, bones and the covering of the spinal cord.Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a group of inherited disorders that affect your connective tissues — primarily your skin, joints and blood vessel walls. People who have Ehlers-Danlos syndrome usually have overly flexible joints and stretchy, fragile skin. This can become a problem if you have a wound that requires stitches, because the skin often isn’t strong enough to hold them.A more severe form of the disorder, called Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, vascular type, can cause the walls of your blood vessels, intestines or uterus to rupture. Osteoporosis is a disease in which bone weakening increases the risk of a broken bone. It is the most common reason for a broken bone among the elderly. Bones that commonly break include the vertebrae in the spine, the bones of the forearm, and the hip. Until a broken bone occurs there are typically no symptoms. Bones may weaken to such a degree that a break may occur with minor stress or spontaneously. Chronic pain and a decreased ability to carry out normal activities may occur following a broken bone.Osteoporosis may be due to lower-than-normal maximum bone mass and greater-than-normal bone loss. Bone loss increases after menopause due to lower levels of oestrogen. Osteoporosis may also occur due to a number of diseases or treatments, including alcoholism, anorexia, hyperthyroidism, kidney disease, and surgical removal of the ovaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding erythema nodosum?

      Your Answer: The eruption is non-tender

      Correct Answer: It is associated with streptococcal infections

      Explanation:

      Erythema nodosum (EN) is an acute, nodular, erythematous eruption that usually is limited to the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Chronic or recurrent erythema nodosum is rare but may occur.Currently, the most common cause of erythema nodosum is streptococcal infection in children and streptococcal infection and sarcoidosis in adults.The eruptive phase of erythema nodosum begins with flulike symptoms of fever and generalized aching. Arthralgia may occur and precedes the eruption or appears during the eruptive phase. Most lesions in infection-induced erythema nodosum heal within 7 weeks, but active disease may last up to 18 weeks. In contrast, 30% of idiopathic erythema nodosum cases may last more than 6 months. Febrile illness with dermatologic findings includes abrupt onset of illness with initial fever, followed by a painful rash within 1-2 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly...

    Correct

    • An 8 month old baby boy presents with a fine, white and scaly rash that is more profound on the extensor surfaces of his arms and legs. It is also found on his trunk. However, the flexor surfaces, face and neck are spared. It has been present for 4 months. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ichthyosis vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Ichthyosis vulgaris presents clinically with xerosis, hyperkeratosis, excess scaling, keratosis pilaris, and palmar and plantar hyperlinearity. It most commonly affects the extensor surfaces of the limbs and spares flexor surfaces, the face, and the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old boy is brought to the emergency by his parents with worsening ataxia. They also mention that the boy's urine has a distinct sweet odour. Further investigations reveal the presence of leucine, isoleucine and valine in the urine. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Correct Answer: Maple Syrup Urine Disease

      Explanation:

      Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder affecting branched-chain amino acids. It is one type of organic academia. The condition gets its name from the distinctive sweet odour of affected infants’ urine, particularly prior to diagnosis, and during times of acute illness. MSUD, also known as branched-chain ketoaciduria, is an aminoacidopathy due to an enzyme defect in the catabolic pathway of the branched-chain amino acids leucine, isoleucine, and valine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old child with learning difficulties is referred to the endocrine clinic for review. His lab results show hypocalcaemia and increased serum concentration of parathyroid hormone. On examination, there is subcutaneous calcification and a short fifth metacarpal in each hand.What is the treatment of choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Calcium and vitamin D supplementation

      Explanation:

      This child has pseudo hypoparathyroidism. It is a heterogeneous group of rare endocrine disorders characterized by normal renal function and resistance to the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH), manifesting with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and increased serum concentration of PTH.Patients with pseudo hypoparathyroidism type 1a present with a characteristic phenotype collectively called Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (AHO). The constellation of findings includes the following:Short statureStocky habitusObesityDevelopmental delayRound faceDental hypoplasiaBrachymetacarpalsBrachymetatarsalsSoft tissue calcification/ossificationThe goals of therapy are to maintain serum total and ionized calcium levels within the reference range to avoid hypercalcaemia and to suppress PTH levels to normal. This is important because elevated PTH levels in patients with PHP can cause increased bone remodelling and lead to hyper-parathyroid bone disease.The goals of pharmacotherapy are to correct calcium deficiency, to prevent complications, and to reduce morbidity. Intravenous calcium is the initial treatment for all patients with severe symptomatic hypocalcaemia. Administration of oral calcium and 1alpha-hydroxylated vitamin D metabolites, such as calcitriol, remains the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated in every patient with a diagnosis of pseudo hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is true of randomisation in a clinical trial? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of randomisation in a clinical trial?

      Your Answer: Is more important in multicentre trials

      Correct Answer: Aims to remove confounding

      Explanation:

      The main aim of randomisation in a clinical trial is to remove the bias and avoid any potential confounding variables. While in double blind studies both the investigators and the patients are not aware of which group they belong in, being blind is not essential in carrying out a randomized study, nor is it essential that the randomisation be done away from the study centre. A placebo also does not facilitate randomisation, which can be done in single centre and multi-centre trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology And Statistics
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • During the excision of the submandibular salivary gland, which one of the following nerves is at risk of injury as the duct is mobilised?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      The lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct, and thus, is at risk of injury as the submandibular gland is mobilised. The lingual nerve provides sensory supply to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue.Note:- Submandibular duct (Wharton’s duct): It opens lateral to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth. It is around 5 cm in length.- Lingual nerve wraps around Wharton’s duct. As the duct passes forwards, it crosses medial to the nerve, above it and then crosses back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Nephro-urology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/5) 20%
Nutrition (0/1) 0%
Child Development (1/1) 100%
Neurology And Neurodisability (0/2) 0%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Neonatology (1/2) 50%
Behavioural Medicine And Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Anatomy (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (1/2) 50%
Embryology (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Epidemiology And Statistics (1/2) 50%
HIV (1/1) 100%
Genetics And Dysmorphology (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
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