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  • Question 1 - A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be...

    Correct

    • A 51-year old woman after undergoing a barium swallowing was discovered to be suffering from an oesophageal hiatal hernia. Which muscle fibres of the diaphragm border this hernia directly if the stomach herniates through an enlarged oesophageal hiatus?

      Your Answer: Right crus

      Explanation:

      The oesophageal hiatus is a natural fissure on the thoracic diaphragm that allows passage of the oesophagus and the vagal nerve. The oesophageal hiatus is located in one of the tendinous structures of the diaphragm that connect it to the spine which is known as the right crus. In case of an hiatal hernia, this diaphragmatic structure would be the one bordering the hernia as it is the structure that encircles the oesophageal hiatus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      191.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The petrous part of the internal carotid artery is located inside of which...

    Correct

    • The petrous part of the internal carotid artery is located inside of which cranial bone?

      Your Answer: Temporal

      Explanation:

      The petrous segment, or C2, of the internal carotid is that which is inside the petrous part of the temporal bone. This segment extends until the foramen lacerum. The petrous portion classically has three sections: an ascending, or vertical portion; the genu, or bend; and the horizontal portion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      192.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old...

    Correct

    • During laparoscopic surgery to repair a direct inguinal hernia in a 68-year old man, the surgeon asked the registrar to look at the medial inguinal fossa to identify the direct inguinal hernia. To do so, she would have to look at the area that is between the:

      Your Answer: Medial umbilical ligament and inferior epigastric artery

      Explanation:

      The medial umbilical fold is made by the medial umbilical ligament-which is the obliterated portion of the umbilical artery, while the lateral umbilical fold is a fold of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric vessels. The median umbilical fold is a midline structure made by the median umbilical ligament i.e. the obliterated urachus. The medial inguinal fossa is the space on the inner abdominal wall between the medial umbilical fold and the lateral umbilical fold. It is place in the abdominal wall where there is an area of weak fascia i.e. the inguinal triangle through which direct inguinal hernias break through. The lateral inguinal fossa on the other hand is a space lateral to the lateral umbilical fold. Indirect inguinal hernias push through this space.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      443.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the...

    Correct

    • One of the following structures is contained in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. Which is it?

      Your Answer: Extensor hallucis muscle

      Explanation:

      The lower leg is made up of four fascial compartments separated from one another by septa that contain the muscles of the lower leg. The four compartments are ; anterior, lateral, deep posterior and superficial posterior compartments.

      These are the compartments and there contents:

      i) Anterior compartment: Tibialis anterior muscle, extensor hallucis longus muscle, extensor digitorum longus muscle, peroneus tertius muscles, deep fibular nerve and anterior tibial blood vessels

      ii) Lateral compartment: Fibularis longus muscle, brevis muscles and superficial fibular nerve

      iii) Deep posterior compartment: Tibialis posterior m., flexor hallucis longus m., flexor digitorum longus m. ,popliteus m. , tibial nerve, posterior tibial artery and posterior tibial vessels such as the fibular artery.

      iv) Superficial posterior compartment: Gastrocnemius m., soleus m., plantaris m., medial sural cutaneous nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      417.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following will be affected by a lesion in the posterior column-medial lemniscus system?

      Your Answer: Fine touch

      Explanation:

      The posterior column–medial lemniscus (PCML) pathway is a sensory pathway that transmits fine touch and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the brain. As the posterior columns are also known as dorsal columns, the pathway is also called the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system or DCML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      172.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - The following branch of the aorta is unpaired: ...

    Correct

    • The following branch of the aorta is unpaired:

      Your Answer: Coeliac artery

      Explanation:

      Branches that stem from the abdominal aorta can be divided into three: the visceral branches, parietal branches and terminal branches. Of the visceral branches, the suprarenal, renal, testicular and ovarian arteries are paired while the coeliac artery and superior and inferior mesenteric arteries are unpaired. Of the parietal branches the inferior phrenic and lumbar arteries are paired while the middle sacral artery is unpaired. The terminal branches i.e. the common iliac arteries are paired.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      204.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A surgical registrar performing an adrenalectomy procedure on the left suprarenal gland of...

    Correct

    • A surgical registrar performing an adrenalectomy procedure on the left suprarenal gland of a 25 - year old male patient, accidentally jabbed and injured a vital structure that lies anterior to the left suprarenal organ. Which of the following was the structure most likely injured?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      The adrenal (suprarenal) glands are organs of the endocrine system located on top of each of the kidneys. The left suprarenal gland, in question, is crescent in shape and slightly larger than the right suprarenal gland. It is posteriorly located to the lateral aspect of the head of the pancreas which is thus the most likely to be injured. The other organs like the duodenum, liver and the inferior vena cava are related to the right suprarenal gland. The spleen and the colon are not in close proximity with the left suprarenal gland and are not likely to be the organs injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      89.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the...

    Incorrect

    • In a splenectomy procedure, special care is emphasized on the preservation of the tail of the pancreas that is closely associated with the spleen to avoid post operative pancreatic fistula. As a general surgeon conducting a splenectomy where are you most likely to find the tail of the pancreas in the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer: Transverse mesocolon

      Correct Answer: Splenorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal part of the pancreas and is found contained in the splenorenal ligament of the peritoneal cavity. The splenorenal ligament is derived from the peritoneum where the wall of the general peritoneal cavity connects to the omental bursa between the spleen and the left kidney. This ligament contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.

      The gastrocolic ligament stretches from the greater curvature of the stomach to the transverse colon, connecting the two.

      The gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the greater omentum and is the structure that connects the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. The gastrosplenic ligament continues from the splenic flexure of the colon to the diaphragm and acts as a support to the spleen.

      The transverse colon is connected to the abdominal wall by the mesocolon ligament.

      The falciform ligament on the other hand, attaches the liver to the ventral wall of the abdomen.

      The hepatoduodenal ligament connects the porta hepatis of the liver to the superior part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the...

    Correct

    • During a laparoscopic surgery, the surgeon visualizes the medical umbilical folds on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall. What causes the medial umbilical folds?

      Your Answer: Obliterated umbilical arteries

      Explanation:

      The medial umbilical ligament is a structure found on the deep surface of the anterior abdominal wall and is covered by the medial umbilical folds. It is a paired structure that represents the remnants of the fetal umbilical artery. They have no role in humans after birth other than to be used as a landmark for exploring the medial inguinal fossa during laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great...

    Correct

    • Which of the following two cerebral veins join up to form the great cerebral vein, otherwise also known as the great vein of Galen?

      Your Answer: Internal cerebral veins

      Explanation:

      The great vein of Galen or great cerebral vein, is formed by the union of the internal cerebral veins and the basal veins of Rosenthal. This vein curves upwards and backwards along the border of the splenium of the corpus callosum and eventually drains into the inferior sagittal sinus and straight sinus at its anterior extremity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      907.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman has been suffering from headaches, fever, vomiting, and confusion for the last 5 days. A CT scan reveals an oedematous mass with ring enhancement in the left temporal region. It is biopsied, revealing glial cells, necrosis, neutrophils and lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. It is most frequent in the third decade of life, and when it occurs in children, it is usually associated with congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      245.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which lymph nodes are most likely to enlarge due to the spread of...

    Correct

    • Which lymph nodes are most likely to enlarge due to the spread of infection through the lymphatic channels in a patient with a boil on his scrotum?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal nodes

      Explanation:

      The superficial inguinal nodes drain the perineum and the external genitalia which include the scrotum and the labia majora. The testes, however, drain to the lumbar nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Incorrect

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer: Oculomotor

      Correct Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:

      Olfactory – Purely sensory

      Optic – Sensory

      Oculomotor – Mainly motor

      Trochlear – Motor

      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor

      Abducens – Mainly motor

      Facial – Both sensory and motor

      vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory

      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor

      Vagus – Both sensory and motor

      Accessory – Mainly motor

      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor...

    Incorrect

    • If a 55-year old gentleman who has suffered a stroke, develops a tremor in his fingers that worsens on reaching for an object, what part of his brain is likely to be involved?

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia

      Correct Answer: Cerebellum

      Explanation:

      The cerebellum plays an important role in the integration of sensory perception and motor output. Multiple neural pathways link the cerebellum with the motor cortex and the spinocerebellar tract. The cerebellum uses the constant feedback on body position to fine-tune the movements and integrates these pathways. The patient described here has a characteristic cerebellar tremor that is a slow, broad tremor of the extremities and occurs at the end of a purposeful movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a...

    Correct

    • A computer tomography guided needle biopsy is done on a patient with a cystic swelling in the left chest. The radiologist inserted the biopsy needle into the 9th intercostal space along the mid axillary line to aspirate the swelling and obtain tissue for histological diagnosis. In which space is the swelling most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes the diaphragmatic pleura. At the midclavicular line, this is found between ribs 6 and 8; at the paravertebral lines, between ribs 10 and 12 and between ribs 8 and 10 at the midaxillary line.

      The cardiac notch: is an indentation of the heart on the left lung, located on the anterior surface of the lung.

      Cupola: part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib.

      Oblique pericardial sinus: part of the pericardial sac located posterior to the heart behind the left atrium.

      Costomediastinal recess: a reflection of the pleura from the costal surface to the mediastinal surface, is on the anterior surface of the chest.

      The inferior mediastinum: is the space in the chest occupied by the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the last 10 days. He undergoes a CT scan which reveals a lesion in his frontal lobe, which, after a biopsy, is found to be formed by granulation tissue with collagenisation, gliosis and oedema. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic brain abscess

      Explanation:

      A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. In a CT scan, an abscess appears as an oedematous mass with ring enhancement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      167.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon ligates the left superior suprarenal artery whilst preforming a left adrenalectomy. Where does the left superior suprarenal artery originate?

      Your Answer: Renal artery

      Correct Answer: Left inferior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      The superior suprarenal arteries arises from the inferior phrenic artery on either side.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have...

    Correct

    • A patient in the recovery ward after cardiac surgery is noticed to have a small effusion in the lowest extent of the pleural cavity, into which no lung tissue extends. What is the name of this part of the pleural cavity?

      Your Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the part of the pleural cavity where the costal pleura is in continuity with the diaphragmatic pleura. It forms the lowest extent of the pleural cavity.

      Costomediastinal recess: a tiny recess that is anteriorly located, where the costal pleura becomes continuous with the mediastinal pleura.

      The cupola is the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib.

      The inferior mediastinum refers to the posterior, middle and anterior mediastinal divisions together.

      The pulmonary ligament on the other hand, is a pleural fold that is situated beneath the root of the lung on the medial aspect of the lung.

      Oblique pericardial sinus is not part of the pleural cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin...

    Correct

    • Which of the cranial nerves is responsible for touch sensation on the skin over the maxilla region and the mandible?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal

      Explanation:

      The sensation of the face is provided by the trigeminal nerve which is cranial nerve V. It is also responsible for other motor functions such as biting and chewing. The trigeminal nerve has three branches; the ophthalmic nerve (V1), the maxillary nerve((V2) and the mandibular nerve (V3). These three branches exit the skull through separate foramina, namely; the superior orbital fissure, the foramen rotundum and the foramen ovale respectively. The mnemonic for this is ‘Standing room only’. The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges. The sensory fibres of the mandibular nerve are distributed to the lower lip, the lower teeth and gums, the floor of the mouth, the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, the chin and jaw (except the angle of the jaw, which is supplied by C2–C3), parts of the external ear, and parts of the meninges. The mandibular nerve carries touch/ position and pain/temperature sensation from the mouth. The sensory fibres of the ophthalmic nerve are distributed to the scalp and forehead, the upper eyelid, the conjunctiva and cornea of the eye, the nose (including the tip of the nose), the nasal mucosa, the frontal sinuses and parts of the meninges (the dura and blood vessels). The sensory fibres of the maxillary nerve are distributed to the lower eyelid and cheek, the nares and upper lip, the upper teeth and gums, the nasal mucosa, the palate and roof of the pharynx, the maxillary, ethmoid and sphenoid sinuses, and parts of the meninges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - The gluteus medius muscle: ...

    Correct

    • The gluteus medius muscle:

      Your Answer: Is supplied by the superior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The gluteus medius is situated on the outer surface of the pelvis. It arises from the outer surface of the ilium between the iliac crest and posterior gluteal line above and the anterior gluteal line below. The gluteus medius is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superior gluteal nerve

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).

      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:

      Lateral circumflex femoral artery

      Medial circumflex femoral artery

      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      63.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to...

    Correct

    • A lesion involving the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus is likely to affect:

      Your Answer: Vision

      Explanation:

      The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is the primary processor of visual information in the central nervous system. The LGN receives information directly from the retina and sends projections directly to the primary visual cortex. The LGN likely helps the visual system focus its attention on the most important information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following muscles is innervated by the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Temporalis

      Correct Answer: Buccinator

      Explanation:

      Buccinator is a muscle of facial expression and is therefore innervated by the facial nerve. The lateral pterygoid, masseter, anterior belly of digastric and temporalis are all muscles of mastication and therefore innervated by the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck; Neurology
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the pancreas was to undergo whipple's operation to have the tumour removed. During the surgery, the surgeon had to ligate the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery to stop blood supply to the head of the pancreas. Which of the following arteries does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery branch from?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or from the first intestinal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. Once given off, it runs to the right between the pancreatic head and the duodenum and then ascends to form an anastomosis with the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each...

    Incorrect

    • The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each side of its lateral ends, the right and left. The left colic flexure found on the side of the descending colon is attached to an organ superiorly by a mesenteric ligament. Which organ is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The left colic flexure is the bend of the transverse colon as it continues to form the descending colon on the left upper quadrant. The spleen is located on the superior aspect of the left colic flexure. It is commonly referred to as the splenic flexure because of its relation o the spleen superiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing...

    Incorrect

    • The parasympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve was impinged due to a growing tumour. The function of which of the following structures will be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciliary muscle

      Explanation:

      The oculomotor nerve is the third cranial nerve (CNIII). It offers motor and parasympathetic innervation to many of the ocular structures. The motor fibres innervate a number of the extraocular muscles. While the parasympathetic fibres supply the sphincter pupillae and the ciliary muscles of the eye, and the sympathetic fibres innervates the superior tarsal muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clinical signs will be demonstrated in a case of Brown-Séquard syndrome due to hemisection of the spinal cord at mid-thoracic level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ipsilateral spastic paralysis, ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense) and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning one or two segments below the lesion

      Explanation:

      Brown–Séquard syndrome results due to lateral hemisection of the spinal cord and results in a loss of motricity (paralysis and ataxia) and sensation. The hemisection of the cord results in a lesion of each of the three main neural systems: the principal upper motor neurone pathway of the corticospinal tract, one or both dorsal columns and the spinothalamic tract. As a result of the injury to these three main brain pathways the patient will present with three lesions. The corticospinal lesion produces spastic paralysis on the same side of the body (the loss of moderation by the upper motor neurons). The lesion to fasciculus gracilis or fasciculus cuneatus results in ipsilateral loss of vibration and proprioception (position sense). The loss of the spinothalamic tract leads to pain and temperature sensation being lost from the contralateral side beginning one or two segments below the lesion. At the lesion site, all sensory modalities are lost on the same side, and an ipsilateral flaccid paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing...

    Incorrect

    • The operating surgeon notices a structure lying alongside a herniated mass whilst repairing an indirect inguinal hernia in a female patient. Which structure could this be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The main structure traversing the inguinal canal in women is the round ligament. In men, it is the spermatic cord.

      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the abdominal wall and runs between the transversus abdominis and internal oblique muscles before piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to run between the internal and external obliques.

      The inferior epigastric artery is between the peritoneum and the transversus abdominis creating the lateral umbilical fold.

      The ovarian artery and the ovarian vein are branches from the descending aorta and inferior vena cava that supply the ovary in the pelvic cavity.

      The pectineal ligament is a thick fascial layer over the pectineal line of the pubis. It doesn’t traverse the canal.

      The broad ligament if found on the lateral sides of the uterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to...

    Incorrect

    • Prostatectomy carries a risk of loss of penile erection due to injury to the prostatic plexus responsible for an erection. From which nerves do these fibres originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic splanchnics

      Explanation:

      Erection is a function of the parasympathetic nerves. Of the nerves listed, only the pelvic splanchnic nerves have parasympathetic fibres that innervate the smooth muscles and glands of the pelvic viscera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the...

    Incorrect

    • During a procedure to treat an ulcer in the first part of the duodenum, the most appropriate site to make the incision on the anterior abdominal wall to approach this ulcer would be the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epigastric region

      Explanation:

      The abdomen is divided into nine regions for descriptive purposes. The epigastric region contains the first part of the duodenum, part of the stomach, part of the liver and pancreas. This would be the region that the surgeon would need to enter to access the ulcer.

      The left inguinal region contains the sigmoid colon.

      The left lumbar region contains the descending colon and kidney.

      The right lumbar region contains the right kidney and descending colon.

      The right hypochondrial region contains part of the liver and gall bladder.

      The hypogastric region contains the urinary bladder and the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long...

    Incorrect

    • A space defined by the teres major muscle, the teres minor muscle, long head of the triceps brachii muscle and surgical neck of the humerus contains the axillary nerve and the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral artery

      Explanation:

      This quadrangular space transmits the posterior circumflex humeral vessels and the axillary nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to...

    Incorrect

    • After a cerebral infarction, which of these histopathogical findings is most likely to be found?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis

      Explanation:

      The brain has a high lipid content and typically undergoes liquefaction with ischaemic injury, because it contains little connective tissue but high amounts of digestive enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of headaches, dizziness, and memory loss. About a month ago, she fell from a staircase but only suffered mild head trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      A quarter to a half of patients with chronic subdural haematoma have no identifiable history of head trauma. If a patient does have a history of head trauma, it usually is mild. The average time between head trauma and chronic subdural haematoma diagnosis is 4–5 weeks. Symptoms include decreased level of consciousness, balance problems, cognitive dysfunction and memory loss, motor deficit (e.g. hemiparesis), headache or aphasia. Some patients present acutely. They usually result from tears in bridging veins which cross the subdural space, and may cause an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve,...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramina provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, passes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The internal auditory meatus is a canal within the petrous part of the temporal bone of the skull between the posterior cranial fossa and the inner ear. It provides a passage through which the vestibulocochlear nerve, the facial nerve, and the labyrinthine artery (an internal auditory branch of the basilar artery) can pass from inside the skull to structures of the inner ear and face.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery...

    Incorrect

    • In the human body, veins often run a course parallel to the artery that has the same name. Which of the following listed veins doesn't run parallel to the artery of the same name?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric vein don’t run in tandem because the vein is part of the portal venous system-draining into the splenic vein which drains into the hepatic portal vein. The inferior mesenteric artery is a branch of the descending aorta at the level of L3. The inferior mesenteric vein and artery, however, drain the same region i.e. the descending and sigmoid colon and rectum.

      Superior epigastric vessels course together and are the continuation of the internal thoracic artery and vein.

      Superficial circumflex iliac vessels course together in the superficial fat of the abdominal wall.

      Superior rectal vessels are the terminal ends of the inferior mesenteric vessels, located on the posterior surface of the rectum.

      The ileocolic artery and vein are branches off the superior mesenteric vessels. Both course in the mesentery, supplying/draining the caecum, appendix, terminal portion of the ileum. The inferior epigastric vessels run together.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which name is given to the inferior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perineal membrane

      Explanation:

      The urogenital fascia is mostly commonly referred to as the perineal membrane. This term refers to an anatomical fibrous membrane in the perineum. It is triangular in shape, and thus at times referred to as the triangular ligament. It is about 4 cm in depth. Its The perineal membrane’s apex is anterior and is separated from the arcuate pubic ligament by an oval opening for the passage of the deep dorsal vein of the penis. The lateral marginas of this triangular ligament are attached on either side to the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium, above the crus penis. Its base faces the rectum, and connects to the central tendinous point of the perineum. The pelvic fascia and Colle’s fascia is fused to the base of this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure...

    Incorrect

    • Atrial septal defect (ASD) is most likely to be due to incomplete closure of which one of the following structures:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      Atrial septal defect is a congenital heart defect that results in a communication between the right and left atria of the heart and may involve the interatrial septum. It results from incomplete closure of the foramen ovale which is normally open during fetal life and closes just after birth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
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  • Question 40 - The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts....

    Incorrect

    • The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:

      – The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.

      – The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.

      – The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.

      – The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.

      – The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical...

    Incorrect

    • During a surgical procedure involving the carotid artery, which nerve in the cervical plexus of nerves that is embedded in the carotid sheath is most susceptible to injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The ansa cervicalis is a loop of nerves that are part of the cervical plexus. They lie superficial to the internal jugular vein in the carotid triangle. Branches from the ansa cervicalis innervate the sternohyoid, sternothyroid and the inferior belly of the omohyoid. The superior root of the ansa cervicalis is formed by a branch of spinal nerve C1. These nerve fibres travel in the hypoglossal nerve before leaving to form the superior root. The superior root goes around the occipital artery and then descends embedded in the carotid sheath. It sends a branch off to the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle and is then joined by the inferior root. The inferior root is formed by fibres from spinal nerves C2 and C3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood...

    Incorrect

    • Injury to which of the following arteries is likely to affect the blood supply to the seminal vesicles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle rectal

      Explanation:

      Ligation of middle rectal artery is most likely to affect the blood supply of seminal vesicles since arteries supplying the seminal vesicles are derived from the middle and inferior vesical and middle rectal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 46 -year old patient diagnosed with chronic rhinosinusitis, was to undergo surgery to improve drainage from his frontal sinus to the nose. Which is a route that one would take to enter into the frontal sinus through the nasal cavity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meatus

      Explanation:

      The middle meatus is a nasal passageway located inferior to the middle concha and superior to the inferior concha. On the superior aspect of this meatus is a bulge produced by the middle ethmoidal cells known as the bulla ethmoidalis. Below this bulge is a curved fissure, the hiatus semilunaris, which is also bordered inferiorly by the edge of the uncinate process of the ethmoid. It is through this curved fissure, hiatus semilunaris, that the middle meatus communicates with the frontal sinus. It first forms a communication with a curved passage way known as the infundibulum. The infundibulum anteriorly communicates with the anterior ethmoidal cells and continues upward as the frontonasal duct into the frontal sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - What is the name of the cutaneous branch of the posterior primary ramus...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the cutaneous branch of the posterior primary ramus of C2?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater occipital nerve

      Explanation:

      The dorsal primary ramus of the spinal nerve C2 is the greater occipital nerve which provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the back of the head. The ventral primary ramus gives off the great auricular nerve, the lesser occipital nerve and the ansa cervicalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the tensor tympani muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The tensor veli palatini is innervated by the medial pterygoid nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve, the third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) – the only muscle of the palate not innervated by the pharyngeal plexus, which is formed by the vagal and glossopharyngeal nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.

      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:

      The motor and pre-motor areas

      The somato-sensory

      Auditory areas

      Motor speech

      Sensory speech

      Pre-frontal area

      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:

      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face

      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the correct order of tendons passing from medial to lateral-posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior tibial, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The correct order of structures is the tendon of tibialis posterior, tendon of flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 48 - The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The LEAST mobile structure in the peritoneal cavity is the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      The presence or absence of the mesentery determines mobility of abdominal contents. Structures like the stomach, transverse colon and appendix have mesenteries and thus are relatively mobile. In contrast, the pancreas is a retroperitoneal (behind the peritoneum) structure and therefore is fixed. The greater omentum is a large mobile fold of omentum that hangs down from the stomach .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
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  • Question 49 - A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is diagnosed with a tumour of the parotid gland. During surgical removal of the gland, which artery is vulnerable to injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is a major artery of the head and neck. It arises from the common carotid artery when it splits into the external and internal carotid artery. It supplies blood to the face and neck. The external carotid artery begins opposite the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and, taking a slightly curved course, passes upward and forward and then inclines backward to the space behind the neck of the mandible, where it divides into the superficial temporal and internal maxillary arteries. It rapidly diminishes in size in its course up the neck, owing to the number and large size of the branches given off from it. At its origin, this artery is more superficial and placed nearer the midline than the internal carotid and is contained within the carotid triangle. The external carotid artery is covered by the skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep fascia and anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid. It is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, by the lingual, ranine, common facial and superior thyroid veins; and by the digastric and stylohyoid; higher up it passes deeply into the substance of the parotid gland, where it lies deep to the facial nerve and the junction of the temporal and internal maxillary veins. It is here that it is in danger during surgery of the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst...

    Incorrect

    • An episiotomy is indicated for a woman during a difficult vaginal delivery. Whilst the registrar was performing this procedure she made a median cut too far through the perineal body cutting the structure immediately posterior. Which structure is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External anal sphincter

      Explanation:

      An episiotomy is an incision that is made whenever there is a risk of a tear during vaginal deliver. A posterolateral incision, as opposed to a median incision is preferred. Of the options given, the external anal sphincter lies right posterior to the perineal body. The sacrospinous and the sacrotuberous ligaments are deep in the perineum that they should not be involved in this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair a hiatal hernia, the coeliac branch of the posterior vagal trunk is injured. This damage would affect muscular movements as well as some secretory activities of the gastrointestinal tract. Which gastrointestinal segment is LEAST likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid colon

      Explanation:

      The vagus nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibres to the abdominal structures that are receive arterial supply from the coeliac trunk or superior mesenteric artery i.e. up to the transverse colon. The end of the transverse colon and the gastrointestinal structures distal to this point receive parasympathetic innervation from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and blood from the inferior mesenteric artery(IMA). The ascending colon, caecum, jejunum and ileum would all, thus, be affected by this damage. Sigmoid colon would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old football player suffers severe head trauma during a game. Physical examination...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old football player suffers severe head trauma during a game. Physical examination reveals a decerebrate posture and bilateral papilledema. A CT scan reveals marked diffuse cerebral oedema. This condition will be most severe in which component of the brain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: White matter

      Explanation:

      The greatest amount of salt and water increase with cerebral oedema occurs within the white matter. Any swelling from oedema, haemorrhage or haematoma increases the intracranial pressure (ICP). As the ICP increases, the cerebral perfusion decreases and brain tissue can become ischaemic, even leading to brain death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where...

    Incorrect

    • A lad involved in a road traffic accident is rushed to casualty where physical examination reveals that he has limited extension of his right humerus. Which of the following nerves is most likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracodorsal nerve

      Explanation:

      Extension of the humerus is a function of the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is supplied by the thoracodorsal nerve which is a branch of the posterior cord of the plexus whose fibres are derived from cranial nerves V, VI and VII.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the...

    Incorrect

    • A drug abuser developed an infection which spread from the dorsum of the hand to the medial side of the arm along the course of the large cutaneous vein. Which vein is involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilic

      Explanation:

      The basilic vein is one of two veins found in the forearm, the other is the cephalic vein. These veins originate from the deep venous arch of the hand. The cephalic vein ascends along the lateral side of the forearm, and the basilic vein runs up the medial side of the forearm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these laboratory findings will indicate a fetal neural tube defect when done between 15 and 20 weeks of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased alpha-fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Maternal serum screening during the second trimester is a non-invasive way of identifying women at increased risk of having children with a neural tube defect and should be offered to all pregnant women. The results are most accurate when the sample is taken between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein suggest open spina bifida, anencephaly, risk of pregnancy complications, or multiple pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the...

    Incorrect

    • The tensor villi palatini muscle is a broad thin, ribbon-like muscle in the head that tenses the soft palate. Which of the following structures is associated with the tensor villi palatini muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate

      Explanation:

      The pterygoid hamulus is a hook-like process at the lower extremity of the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone around which the tendon of the tensor veli palatini passes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that...

    Incorrect

    • The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following arteries would most likely be injured if a surgeon accidentally tore this ligament?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short gastric

      Explanation:

      The short gastric arteries arise from the end of the splenic arteries and form five to seven branches. The short gastric arteries inside the gastrosplenic ligament from the left to the right, supply the greater curvature of the stomach. The hepatic artery proper runs inside the hepatoduodenal ligament. The right gastric artery and the left gastric artery are contained in the hepatogastric ligament. The caudal pancreatic artery branches off from the splenic artery and supplies the tail of the pancreas. The middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. The splenic artery does not travel in the gastrosplenic ligament and so it would not be damaged by a tear to this ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles? ...

    Incorrect

    • The sciatic nerve does NOT supply which of the following muscles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator externus

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve supplies both gemellae, quadratus femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, both heads of the biceps femoris, the hamstring half of abductor magnus and obturator internus. Obturator externus is supplied by the obturator nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One...

    Incorrect

    • A patient underwent surgical excision of mass in the right carotid triangle. One day after the surgery patient complained of numbness of the skin over the right side of the neck. Injury to the cervical plexus of nerves is suspected. What is the possible nerve affected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transverse cervical

      Explanation:

      The transverse cervical nerve (superficial cervical or cutaneous cervical) arises from the second and third spinal nerves, turns around the posterior border of the sternocleidomastoid and, passing obliquely forward beneath the external jugular vein to the anterior border of the muscle, it perforates the deep cervical fascia, and divides beneath the platysma into the ascending and descending branches. It provides cutaneous innervation to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schwannoma

      Explanation:

      Schwannomas are histologically benign neoplasms that arise from nerve sheaths, most commonly from sensory nerve roots. They are generally contained within a capsule, and so can be surgically removed without injuring the associated nerve root. They are histologically benign and less than 1% become malignant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph...

    Incorrect

    • A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in...

    Incorrect

    • When a patient is standing erect, pleural fluid would tend to accumulate in which part of the pleural space?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costodiaphragmatic recess

      Explanation:

      The costo-diaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity or sac. Any fluid in the pleura will by gravity accumulate here when a patient is standing erect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal...

    Incorrect

    • What is the innervation of the laryngeal mucosa inferior to the true vocal cord?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Motor innervation to all other muscles of the larynx and sensory innervation to the subglottis is by the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal...

    Incorrect

    • At which cervical level does the common carotid artery bifurcate into the internal and external carotid arteries?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      The common carotid arteries are present on the left and right sides of the body. These arteries originate from different sources, but follow symmetrical courses. The right common carotid originates in the neck from the brachiocephalic trunk; the left from the aortic arch in the thorax. These split into the external and internal carotid arteries at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage, at around the level of the fourth cervical vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A recognised side-effect of prefrontal leukotomy is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Used previously as a treatment for psychiatric disorders, prefrontal leucotomy severs the connection between the prefrontal cortical association area and the thalamus. This leads to functional isolation of the prefrontal and orbitofrontal association cortex. Thus, along with the desired reduction in anger and frustration, undesirable side effects included changes in mood and affect, as well as confusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal...

    Incorrect

    • During an OSCE exam a medical student is asked to locate the sternal angle. The sternal angle is a land mark for locating the level of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Second costal cartilage

      Explanation:

      The sternal angle, a key landmark used in the clinic for auscultating for heart sounds, is the point of attachment of the costal cartilage of rib 2 to the sternum. It thus corresponds to the location of the second rib. A horizontal plane through the sternal angle traverses the T4/T5 intervertebral disc and marks the inferior boundary of the superior mediastinum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
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  • Question 67 - A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year old patient having a history of cholelithiasis that led to recurrent pain, bloating, nausea and vomiting, was scheduled for surgery to have the gallbladder removed. During the cholecystectomy, the SHO conducting the procedure accidentally punctured a blood vessel that lied immediately posterior to the omental foramen and blood filled the operating field. Which of the following blood vessels was the one likely punctured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The omental foramen is the pathway that connects the greater peritoneal sac and the lesser peritoneal sac. The omental foramen is bordered posteriorly by the inferior vena cava. This is the blood vessel that would most likely be punctured. The aorta and its branch, the renal artery, lie postero-lateral to the omental foramen and are deeper than the inferior vena cava hence making them less likely to be injured. The hepatic portal vein, the hepatic artery and the superior mesenteric vein borders the omental foramen anteriorly and would not be injured by a jab on the posterior border of the omental foramen. Finally, the splenic artery is found in the splenorenal ligament that borders the omental foramen laterally to the left.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • During work up for a 29 year-old lady who complained of chest pain, a computed tomography showed a large mass in the posterior mediastinum. Which among the following structures could be involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lymph glands

      Explanation:

      Boundaries of the posterior mediastinum include:

      Superior: a plane through the sternal angle and T4/5

      Inferior: the diaphragm

      Anterior: the middle mediastinal structures

      Posterior the spinal cord.

      Structures in the posterior mediastinum include the descending thoracic aorta, the azygos system, oesophagus, thoracic duct and lymph nodes. The great vessels and structures at the root of the lung are part of the middle mediastinum. In this case, the lymph nodes is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of...

    Incorrect

    • On exploration of an axillary wound, a branch from the third part of the axillary artery was found to be transected. Which of the following arteries would have been likely injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior humeral circumflex

      Explanation:

      The axillary artery gives off many branches from the first, second, or third parts along its course. The third part of the axillary artery gives off two branches: the anterior humeral circumflex artery and the posterior humeral circumflex artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of...

    Incorrect

    • Mechanical distortion, and not K+ channels are responsible for distortion of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pacinian corpuscle

      Explanation:

      Pacinian corpuscles are a type of mechanoreceptor, sensitive to deep pressure, touch and high-frequency vibration. The Pacinian corpuscles are ovoid and about 1 mm long. In the centre of the corpuscle is the inner bulb, which is a fluid-filled cavity with a single afferent unmyelinated nerve ending. Any deformation in the corpuscle causes the generation of action potentials by opening of pressure-sensitive sodium ion channels in the axon membrane. This allows influx of sodium ions, creating a receptor potential (independent of potassium channels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female had a stroke and was diagnosed with a homonymous hemianopsia. Which of the following structures was likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic radiation

      Explanation:

      Hemianopia or hemianopsia, is the loss of vision of half of the eye or loss of half the visual field. Homonymous hemianopia is the loss of vision or blindness on half of the same side of both eyes (visual field) – either both lefts of the eyes or both rights of the eyes. This condition is mainly caused by cerebrovascular accidents like a stroke that affects the optic radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall...

    Incorrect

    • During an anatomy revision session, medical students are told that the posterior wall of the rectus sheath ends in a thin curved margin whose concavity is directed downwards. What is the name of this inferior border of the rectus sheath?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arcuate line

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is a tendinous sheath that encloses the rectus abdominis muscle. It covers the entire anterior surface however on the posterior surface of the muscle the sheath is incomplete ending inferiorly at the arcuate line. Below the arcuate line, the rectus abdominis is covered by the transversalis fascia. The linea alba is a band of aponeurosis on the midline of the anterior abdominal wall, which extends from the xiphoid process to the pubic symphysis. It is formed by the combined abdominal muscle aponeuroses. This is a useful site for midline incision during abdominal surgery because it does not carry many blood vessels. All of the other answer choices are related to the inguinal canal.

      The falx inguinalis (sometimes called the inguinal falx or conjoint tendon), is the inferomedial attachment of the transversus abdominis with some fibres of the internal abdominal oblique – it contributes to the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.

      The inguinal ligament is the ligament that connects the anterior superior iliac spine with the pubic tubercle – it makes the floor of the inguinal canal.

      The internal (deep) inguinal ring is the entrance to the inguinal canal, where the transversalis fascia pouches out and creates an opening through which structures can leave the abdominal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - The muscle that forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula, subscapularis muscle and teres major muscle is the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi forms the posterior wall of the axilla along with the scapula. It is responsible for extension, adduction, transverse extension also known as horizontal abduction, flexion from an extended position, and (medial) internal rotation of the shoulder joint. It also has a synergistic role in extension and lateral flexion of the lumbar spine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the...

    Incorrect

    • The dura mater is a thick membrane that is the outermost of the three layers of the meninges. Which of the following foramen transmits the dura mater?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen magnum

      Explanation:

      The foramen magnum is found in the most inferior part of the posterior cranial fossa . It is traversed by vital structures including the medulla oblongata . Its contents include the following: medulla oblongata, meninges (arachnoid, dura and pia mater), spinal root of the accessory nerve, vertebral arteries, anterior and posterior spinal arteries, tectorial membrane and alar ligaments .

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be...

    Incorrect

    • Below which level of the spinal cord will the inferior gluteal nerve be unaffected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S3

      Explanation:

      The inferior gluteal nerve arises from the dorsal divisions of the fifth lumbar and first and second sacral nerves. According to this fact any lesion at or below the S3 will not affect the inferior gluteal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of...

    Incorrect

    • During a car accident, the side mirror shattered and a broken piece of glass severed the posterolateral aspect of the driver's neck. A physical examination reveals that the driver is unable to elevate the tip of his shoulder on the side that was injured. Which nerve was injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      The tip of the shoulder is formed by the acromion of the scapula. This part is moved by the trapezius muscle which is innervated by the accessory nerve. Damage to this nerve therefore will prevent the patient from lifting the tip of the shoulder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who has used NSAIDS for many years presents to the A&E with symptoms of acute haemorrhagic shock. An emergency endoscopy is done that shows that a duodenal ulcer has perforated the posterior wall of the first part of the duodenum. Which artery is most likely to be the cause of the haemorrhage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal

      Explanation:

      The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the hepatic artery and descends near the pylorus between the first part of the duodenum and the neck of the pancreas to divide at the lower border of the duodenum into the right gastroepiploic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries. Before it divides, it gives off a few branches to the pyloric end of the stomach and to the pancreas. The artery that is most likely involved in this situation is the gastroduodenal artery since it is posterior to the first part of the duodenum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow...

    Incorrect

    • A young boy fell from a tree, sustaining an injury to the elbow area and damaging the nerve behind the medial epicondyle of the humerus. What is the most likely result from that injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexion in the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

      Explanation:

      The nerve injured in this situation is the ulnar nerve. It passes posterior to the medial epicondyle of the humerus before going between the two heads of the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle. This nerve supplies the muscles and skin of forearm and hand. At the level of medial epicondyle, the injury will led to paralysis in flexor carpi ulnaris and the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus as well as the palmar interossei and hypothenar muscles in the hand. The correct answer will be that the boy will suffer from inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of digit 5

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Incorrect

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:...

    Incorrect

    • The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg insert into the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcaneus

      Explanation:

      The muscles of the superficial posterior compartment of the leg form the characteristic ‘calf’ shape of the posterior leg and include the gastrocnemius, soleus and plantaris. The gastrocnemius and soleus together form a muscular mass which is occasionally described as the triceps surae; its tendon of insertion is the tendo calcaneus. The tendo calcaneus is the thickest and strongest in the body and together with the tendon of the plantaris muscle is inserted into the posterior part of the calcaneus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did...

    Incorrect

    • During an appendicectomy in a 16 year old girl, the registrar initially did not find the appendix on entering the peritoneal cavity. She, however, remained calm as she knew she could find it by:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Looking at the confluence of the taenia coli

      Explanation:

      The vermiform appendix arises from the apex of the caecum. Although it has a constant base, it can pass in one of several directions such as upward behind the caecum, to the left behind the ileum and mesentery or downward into the lesser pelvis. It is retained in place by a peritoneal fold, the mesoenteriole derived from the left leaf of the mesentery. Taenia coli meet at the appendix which is the terminal portion of the caecum. The appendix is below the ileocecal valve, not above. It is not near the right colic artery (which supplies the ascending colon). It would not be found by removing a layer of the jejuno-ileum and is not in the pelvic brim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain....

    Incorrect

    • The dural venous sinuses are venous channels that drain blood from the brain. This sinuses are located between which structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater

      Explanation:

      The dural venous sinuses lies between the periosteal and meningeal layer of the dura mater. Dural venous sinuses is unique because it does not run parallel with arteries and allows bidirectional flow of blood intracranially as it is valve-less.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year old college student was diagnosed with meningitis that had developed due to an acute cavernous sinus thrombosis from an ear infection. Which of the following superficial venous routes is the usual path that an infected blood clot takes to reach the cavernous sinus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      The facial vein is the usual communication between the cavernous sinus and the pterygoid sinus. It is through this vein that an infected clot can travel to the cavernous sinus and cause infection. The pterygoid plexus is a venous plexus that is situated between the temporalis muscle and lateral pterygoid muscle, and partly between the two pterygoid muscles. The pterygoid plexus is connected to the facial vein by the deep facial vein. This connection is what makes this area where this sinus and the facial vein are located a danger zone. The danger zone or triangle of the face is the area from the corners of the mouth to the nose bridge. The sinus connection in this area makes it possible for infection to reach the cavernous sinus and at times cause meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in...

    Incorrect

    • Following a lacerating injury along the anterior border of the trapezius muscle in the neck, a man has the point of his shoulder (scapula) sagging and he has difficulty with full abduction of his arm. Which nerve is most likely injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory (cranial nerve XI)

      Explanation:

      Injury to the accessory nerve denervates the trapezius muscle so that the person will no longer be able to raise the acromion of the shoulder. The dorsal scapular nerve supplies the rhomboids i.e. major and minor and the levator scapulae so that injury to this nerve weakens retraction of the scapula. The greater occipital nerve is responsible for sensation of the posterior scalp. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle which is responsible for abduction of the arm and the suprascapular nerve is responsible for rotating the humerus laterally. Cutaneous nerves supply the skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following veins empties into the left renal vein?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left suprarenal

      Explanation:

      The left suprarenal vein empties into the left renal vein which crosses the vertebral column to reach the inferior vena cava. The left renal vein also receives the left gonadal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to...

    Incorrect

    • In which situation is a stretch reflex such as knee jerk likely to be exaggerated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In upper motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      A stretch reflex is a monosynaptic reflex that causes muscle contraction in response to stretching within that muscle. The sensory apparatus in a muscle that are sensitive to stretch are the muscle spindles. The patellar (knee jerk) reflex is an example. In upper motor neuron lesions, the stretch reflexes tend to be brisk due to loss of inhibitory signals on gamma neurons through the lateral reticulospinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man from Japan was diagnosed with cancer of the oesophagus. He is to undergo esophagectomy. While mobilizing the oesophagus in the neck, for resection and anastomosis with the stomach tube on the left side, the surgeon must be cautious not to injure a vital structure. Which of the following is it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracic duct

      Explanation:

      The oesophagus is divided into 3 portions: cervical (part that is in the neck), thoracic portion and the abdominal portion. The cervical part is bordered by the trachea anteriorly and the prevertebral fascia covering the bodies of the 6,7 and 8th vertebra posteriorly. The thoracic duct lies on the left side at the level of the sixth cervical vertebra. The carotid sheath with its contents and lower poles of the lateral lobes of thyroid gland are lateral. The thoracic duct is the structure most likely to be injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 89 - In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of...

    Incorrect

    • In the case of an injury to the sub sartorial canal, which of the following structures is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nerve to vastus medialis

      Explanation:

      The adductor canal (sub sartorial canal) is situated in the middle third of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the deep fasciae located in the anterolateral abdominal wall form the inguinal ligament?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External abdominal oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The inguinal ligament is the inferior border of the aponeurosis of the external oblique abdominis and extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle from whence it is reflected backward and laterally to attach to the pectineal line and form the lacunar ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a...

    Incorrect

    • A textbook of cardiac surgery explains that while doing a left pneumonectomy, a surgeon must be careful to avoid injury to a vital structure that leaves an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung. Which structure is it referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      Structures that leave an impression on the mediastinal surface of the left lung include: the oesophagus, subclavian artery, brachiocephalic vein, first rib, thymus, the heart, the diaphragm, descending aorta and arch of the aorta. The other structures form an impression on the mediastinal aspect of the right lung.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the derivatives of the first brachial arch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the sphenomandibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The first brachial arch (mandibular) gives rise to the mandibular and maxillary processes. Muscles and bones of this process originate within the arch’s mesoderm. The first arch cartilage (Meckel’s) ossifies to form the incus and malleus of the middle ear. Its perichondrium gives rise to he sphenomandibular ligament and through intermembraneous ossification after the mandible forms, the rest of the cartilage disappears. Muscles of the first arch include: mylohyoid, tensor tympany and palati, temporalis, masseter and lateral pterygoids and the anterior belly of the epigastric. This first arch is supplied by the trigeminal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Embryology
      0
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  • Question 93 - A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to...

    Incorrect

    • A 19 year old male patient exhibiting signs of shock was brought to the casualty after he had fallen from the 3rd floor of a building. An examination carried out revealed tenderness on the left mid-posterior axillary line and low blood pressure. Further palpation revealed a large swelling that protruded downward and medially below the left costal margin. X-rays showed that the 9th and the 10th ribs were fractured near their angles. Considering these results, which abdominal organ was likely injured by the fractured ribs.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spleen

      Explanation:

      The spleen, left kidney, stomach, the splenic flexure of the colon and the suprarenal glands are all in the same quadrant- the left upper quadrant. However, the spleen is the most readily injured organ when there is fracture to the 10th, 11th and the 12th ribs because of its close association with these ribs. This patient exhibits a great indication of a ruptured spleen (tenderness on the left mid and posterior axillary line). The spleen is a thin capsulated organ with a spongy parenchyma, allowing it to bleed profusely in the event of injury. The liver, head of the pancreas and the duodenum are all in the right upper quadrant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the...

    Incorrect

    • The mandibular nerve, which is the largest of the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve, exits the cranial cavity through which foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - The primary motor cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary motor cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Precentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary motor cortex is located in the dorsal part of the precentral gyrus and the anterior bank of the central sulcus. The precentral gyrus lies anterior to the postcentral gyrus and is separated from it by a central sulcus. Its anterior border is the precentral sulcus, while inferiorly it borders to the lateral fissure (Sylvian fissure).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon...

    Incorrect

    • During hysterectomy, the ureter is most likely to be ligated when a surgeon is clamping the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Uterine arteries

      Explanation:

      The ureter forms the posterior boundary of a shallow depression which lodges the ovary and then runs medially and forward on the lateral aspect of the uterine cervix and upper part of the vagina to reach the fundus of the bladder. It is also situated about 2cm from the side of the cervix of the uterus. The relationship of the ureters and uterine arteries is of clinical significance because the arteries are at risk of iatrogenic injury during hysterectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Pelvis
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  • Question 97 - A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of...

    Incorrect

    • A growing tumour is impinging on the lingual artery in the floor of the mouth. Which structure will experience decreased blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The sublingual gland

      Explanation:

      The paired sublingual glands are major salivary glands in the mouth. They are the smallest, most diffuse, and the only unencapsulated major salivary glands. They provide only 3-5% of the total salivary volume. The gland receives its blood supply from the sublingual and submental arteries. The sublingual artery is a branch of the lingual artery, thus damage to the lingual artery will decrease the blood flow to the sublingual gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower subscapular

      Explanation:

      The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his sixties underwent surgery to remove a lump from his axilla. During removal, a nerve originating from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus was damaged. Which nerve is this referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral pectoral

      Explanation:

      The only branch of the lateral cord of brachial plexus in the options given, is the lateral pectoral nerve. It supplies the pectoralis major muscle and sends a branch to join the medial pectoral nerve forming a loop in front of the first part of the axillary artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A nerve is injured during a surgical operation to repair an inguinal hernia. It passes through the superficial inguinal ring. Which nerve is it most likely to be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring but enters the inguinal canal from the side and leaves by passing through the superficial ring thus it is at risk of injury during inguinal hernia repair.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve travels lateral to the superficial inguinal ring.

      The iliohypogastric nerve and the subcostal nerve travel superior to the inguinal canal and superficial inguinal ring.

      The obturator nerve is a branch of the lumbar plexus that innervates the muscles of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the...

    Incorrect

    • During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.

      The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.

      The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 102 - A 45 years old women was diagnosed with breast cancer. After a radical...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 years old women was diagnosed with breast cancer. After a radical mastectomy to remove all axillary lymph nodes from her right breast, it was noticed that she had a winged scapula. Which nerve injury would explain this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle. When this nerve is injured the muscle undergoes paralysis, which is seen clinically as winging of the scapula most apparent when the arm is lifted forward. The long thoracic nerve is greatly susceptible to injury during breast surgery because of its long and superficial course along the thorax from its origin, the brachial plexus, to the lower border of the serratus anterior muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Breast
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When...

    Incorrect

    • The left lateral pterygoid muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible towards which direction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laterally, to the right

      Explanation:

      The lateral pterygoid or external pterygoid is a muscle of mastication with two heads. It lies superiorly to the medial pterygoid. When acting alone, it will shift the mandible laterally and to the right.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 104 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The muscle that depresses the glenoid fossa directly is the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pectoralis minor

      Explanation:

      Situated at the upper part of the thorax beneath the pectoralis major, is a thin pectoralis minor, triangular muscle. It originates from the third, fourth and fifth ribs, near the cartilage and from the aponeurosis which covers the intercostals. These fibres move upwards and laterally to join and form a flat tendon. This is inserted into the medial border and upper surface of the coracoid process of the scapula. Through this medial anterior thoracic nerve, fibres from the pectoralis minor are received from the eighth cervical and first thoracic nerves. This pectoralis minor pushes down on the point of the shoulder (glenoid fossa), drawing the scapula downward and medially towards the thorax which throws the inferior angle backwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 106 - The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in...

    Incorrect

    • The anatomical course of the phrenic nerve passes over the following muscle in the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior scalene

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerve originates in the neck between C3-C5, mostly C4 spinal root. It enters the thoracic cavity past the heart and lungs to the diaphragm. In the neck, this nerve begins at the lateral border of the anterior scalene muscle, its course then continues inferiorly on the anterior aspect of the anterior scalene muscle as it moves towards the diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 107 - A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on...

    Incorrect

    • A lady presents to the out patient clinic with a painful boil on the skin of her mons pubis. Which nerve supplies the skin of the mons pubis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior labial

      Explanation:

      Anterior labial branch is the terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve that innervates the skin of the mons pubis in women and the skin of the anterior scrotum in men.

      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve innervates the upper medial thigh.

      The iliohypogastric innervates muscles of the abdominal wall.

      The subcostal nerve innervates muscles of the abdominal wall and the skin of the lower abdominal wall.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 108 - Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the: ...

    Incorrect

    • Structures passing through the foramen magnum do NOT include the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      Structures passing through the foramen magnum include the medulla, meninges, tectorial membrane, anterior spinal artery, vertebral artery and spinal branches of the accessory nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 109 - During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed...

    Incorrect

    • During an exploratory laparotomy of an acute abdomen, the surgeon identified an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. This is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a site of ectopic pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      Meckel’s diverticulum is an outpouching of the small intestine. It usually occurs about 0.6 m (2 feet) before the junction with the caecum. It can be lined with the mucosa of the stomach and may ulcerate. It may also be lined by ectopic pancreatic tissue. It represents the remains of the vitelline duct in early fetal life.

      An abnormal persistence of the urachus is called a urachal fistula.

      Failure of the midgut loop to return to the abdominal cavity is called an omphalocele.

      Polyhydramnios is often caused by anencephaly or oesophageal fistula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 110 - A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year-old male patient was brought to the hospital due to a vehicular accident. A skull x-ray was done which revealed a fracture along the base of the middle cranial fossa. The patient has no sense of touch over the skin over his cheek and chin. Injury to the maxillary and the mandibular nerves is suspected. In which foramina do these two affected sensory branches leave the cranial cavity.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen rotundum and foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The patient’s clinical manifestations suggests an injury to the maxillary and mandibular nerves. The maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve (CN V) passes through and exits the skull via the pterygopalatine fossa and the foramen rotundum. At the base of the skull the foramen ovale (Latin: oval window) is one of the larger of the several holes (the foramina) that transmit nerves through the skull. The foramen ovale is situated in the posterior part of the sphenoid bone, posterolateral to the foramen rotundum. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery (small meningeal or paradural branch, sometimes derived from the middle meningeal artery), lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve and an emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins. Occasionally it will also carry the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 111 - Muscles and tendons in the planter region of the foot mainly take blood...

    Incorrect

    • Muscles and tendons in the planter region of the foot mainly take blood supply from:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior tibial artery

      Explanation:

      The posterior tibial artery is the main source of blood supply to the posterior compartment of the leg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 112 - Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures does NOT pass posterior to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Saphenous vein

      Explanation:

      The saphenous vein passes anterior to the medial malleolus. The structures passing posterior, from nearest to furthest include: tibial, posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, posterior tibial vein, posterior tibial nerve and the flexor hallucis longus tendon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 113 - Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the correct statement regarding gonadal venous drainage:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein

      Explanation:

      Spermatic or testicular veins arise from the posterior aspect of the testis and receive tributaries from the epididymis. Upon uniting, they form the pampiniform plexus that makes up the greater mass of the spermatic cord. The vessels that make up this plexus rise up the spermatic cord in front of the ductus deferens. They then unite, below the superficial ring, to form three or four veins that traverse the inguinal canal and enter the abdomen through the deep inguinal ring. They further unite to form 2 veins that ascend up the psoas major muscle behind the peritoneum each lying on either side of the testicular artery. These further unite to form one vein that empties on the right side of the inferior vena cava at an acute angle and on the left side into the renal vein, at a right angle. The left testicular vein courses behind the iliac colon and is thus exposed to pressure from the contents of this part of the bowel. The ovarian vein is the equivalent of the testicular vein in women. They form a plexus in the broad ligament near the ovary and uterine tube and communicate with the uterine plexus. They drain into similar vessels as in a man.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen
      • Anatomy
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  • Question 114 - During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long...

    Incorrect

    • During a radical mastectomy for advanced breast cancer, the surgeon injured the long thoracic nerve. Which among the following muscles is likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle which holds the scapula forward and balances the rhomboids and the trapezius muscles which retract the scapula. Injury to this nerve results in a ‘winged scapula’ with a posterior protrusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
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  • Question 115 - A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left...

    Incorrect

    • A victim of assault in a domestic violence is stabbed in the left chest. The tip of the pen knife entered the pleural space just above the cardiac notch. Luckily the lung was spared as it would only occupy this space during deep inspiration. Which of these structures was pierced by the knife?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Costomediastinal recess

      Explanation:

      The costomediastinal recess is located immediately next to the cardiac notch. The medial aspect of the superior lobe of the left lung, when fully inflated expands to this place. The lung wouldn’t enter the anterior or the posterior mediastinum which are found between the two pleural cavities.

      The costodiaphragmatic recess is the lowest extent of the pleural cavity where the inferior lobes of the lungs would expand into in deep inhalation.

      The cupola, is the part of the pleural cavity that extends above the first rib into the root of the neck. The superior most part of the superior lobe of the lung might extend into this part.

      Pulmonary ligament: pleural fold that is located below the root of the lung where the visceral pleura and the mediastinal pleura are in continuity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
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  • Question 116 - Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are attached to the tibial tuberosity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vastus intermedius

      Explanation:

      The tuberosity of the tibia is the site of attachment to the ligamentum patella (the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle which include four heads: rectus femoris, vastus medialis, intermedius and lateralis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 117 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      • Pathology
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  • Question 118 - The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal...

    Incorrect

    • The inferior palpebral nerve ascends behind the orbicularis oculi. What is the terminal branch of the inferior palpebral nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infraorbital nerve

      Explanation:

      The inferior palpebral nerve is a branch of the maxillary nerve. It supplies the skin and conjunctiva of the lower eyelid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 119 - Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Inside the palatoglossal arch is a muscle. Which nerve innervates this muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X

      Explanation:

      The palatoglossal arch contains the palatoglossal muscle which is innervated by the vagus nerve which is the tenth cranial nerve. So the correct answer is X

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 120 - Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints? ...

    Incorrect

    • Identify which of the following muscles acts on two joints?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle, the longest muscle in the body, is one of the two jointed or biarticular muscles. It originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and part of the notch between the anterior superior iliac spine and anterior inferior iliac spine and crosses both the hip joint and the knee joint. At the hip joint the sartorius flexes and rotates the thigh at the hip joint and flexes the leg at the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
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  • Question 121 - This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the...

    Incorrect

    • This structure divides the space between the lens and the cornea into the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The iris

      Explanation:

      The iris divides the space between the lens and the cornea into an anterior and a posterior chamber. The anterior cavity is filled with watery aqueous fluid, and the posterior cavity with a gel-like vitreous fluid. The anterior chamber of the eye is bounded in front by the posterior surface of the cornea; behind by the front of the iris and the central part of the lens. The posterior chamber is a narrow gap behind the peripheral part of the iris and in front of the suspensory ligament of the lens and the ciliary processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head & Neck
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  • Question 122 - A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the...

    Incorrect

    • A urologist makes a transverse suprapubic incision to retrieve a stone from the urinary bladder. Which of the following abdominal wall layers will the surgeon NOT traverse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior rectus sheath

      Explanation:

      Pfannenstiel incision (a transverse suprapubic incision) is made below the arcuate line. Thus, there is no posterior layer of the rectus sheath here, only the transversalis fascia lines the inner layer of the rectus abdominis. The layers traversed include: skin, superficial fascia (fatty and membranous), deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue and peritoneum.