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  • Question 1 - What is a true statement about Broca's aphasia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about Broca's aphasia?

      Your Answer: Main areas affected are Brodmann areas 44 and 45

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What gene is linked to frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism? ...

    Incorrect

    • What gene is linked to frontotemporal dementia with parkinsonism?

      Your Answer: NOTCH-3

      Correct Answer: MAPT

      Explanation:

      FTDP-17 is a type of frontotemporal dementia that results from a mutation in the MAPT gene found on chromosome 17. The MAPT gene is responsible for producing Tau protein.

      Genes Associated with Dementia

      Dementia is a complex disorder that can be caused by various genetic and environmental factors. Several genes have been implicated in different forms of dementia. For instance, familial Alzheimer’s disease, which represents less than 1-6% of all Alzheimer’s cases, is associated with mutations in PSEN1, PSEN2, APP, and ApoE genes. These mutations are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. On the other hand, late-onset Alzheimer’s disease is a genetic risk factor associated with the ApoE gene, particularly the APOE4 allele. However, inheriting this allele does not necessarily mean that a person will develop Alzheimer’s.

      Other forms of dementia, such as familial frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, CADASIL, and dementia with Lewy bodies, are also associated with specific genes. For example, C9orf72 is the most common mutation associated with familial frontotemporal dementia, while Huntington’s disease is caused by mutations in the HTT gene. CADASIL is associated with mutations in the Notch3 gene, while dementia with Lewy bodies is associated with the APOE, GBA, and SNCA genes.

      In summary, understanding the genetic basis of dementia is crucial for developing effective treatments and preventive measures. However, it is important to note that genetics is only one of the many factors that contribute to the development of dementia. Environmental factors, lifestyle choices, and other health conditions also play a significant role.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about interactions involving lithium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about interactions involving lithium?

      Your Answer: Loop diuretics usually increase lithium levels

      Correct Answer: NSAIDS can increase lithium levels

      Explanation:

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      79.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the term used to describe a scenario where a study participant...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe a scenario where a study participant alters their behavior due to the awareness of being observed?

      Your Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Simpson’s Paradox is a real phenomenon where the comparison of association between variables can change direction when data from multiple groups are merged into one. The other three options are not valid terms.

      Types of Bias in Statistics

      Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.

      There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      94
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Before being utilized for mood disorders, what medical conditions was lithium employed to...

    Correct

    • Before being utilized for mood disorders, what medical conditions was lithium employed to treat?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      During the latter half of the 19th century, the concept of uric acid imbalances causing various diseases extended beyond bladder stones and gout to encompass a wide range of ailments, such as depression and mania. This expansion was fueled by the discovery of lithium’s ability to dissolve uric acid deposits in vitro by Alexander Ure in 1843 and Sir Alfred Garrod’s subsequent finding that lithium solutions could dissolve gout uric acid deposits in finger joints in the early 1860s.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are requested to assess a young patient on the gastroenterology ward who...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a young patient on the gastroenterology ward who has recently developed auditory hallucinations. The patient has abnormal liver function tests and a past medical history of excessive alcohol consumption. Which antipsychotic medication would you recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs

      Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:

      Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride

      Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)

      Mood stabilizers: Lithium

      Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      80.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of brain lesion is typically associated with Alexia without agraphia?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      Aphasia is a language impairment that affects the production of comprehension of speech, as well as the ability to read of write. The areas involved in language are situated around the Sylvian fissure, referred to as the ‘perisylvian language area’. For repetition, the primary auditory cortex, Wernicke, Broca via the Arcuate fasciculus (AF), Broca recodes into articulatory plan, primary motor cortex, and pyramidal system to cranial nerves are involved. For oral reading, the visual cortex to Wernicke and the same processes as for repetition follows. For writing, Wernicke via AF to premotor cortex for arm and hand, movement planned, sent to motor cortex. The classification of aphasia is complex and imprecise, with the Boston Group classification and Luria’s aphasia interpretation being the most influential. The important subtypes of aphasia include global aphasia, Broca’s aphasia, Wernicke’s aphasia, conduction aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical motor aphasia, and transcortical sensory aphasia. Additional syndromes include alexia without agraphia, alexia with agraphia, and pure word deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the occurrence rate of a particular illness? ...

    Correct

    • What is the occurrence rate of a particular illness?

      Your Answer: Number of new cases arising in a population in a year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Disease Incidence and Prevalence

      Disease incidence refers to the occurrence of new cases of a particular disease within a population over a specific period, usually a year. This is expressed as the number of cases per unit of population per year. On the other hand, disease prevalence refers to the total number of cases of a disease present in a defined population at a given time.

      Both incidence and prevalence are important measures in understanding the burden of a disease in a population. Incidence helps to identify the risk of developing a disease, while prevalence provides an estimate of the overall disease burden. These measures are crucial in public health planning and resource allocation for disease prevention and control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      73.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the term used to describe a condition where a person hears...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a condition where a person hears their thoughts spoken out loud?

      Your Answer: Anwesenheit

      Correct Answer: Gedankenlautwerden

      Explanation:

      First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia

      First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.

      A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.

      The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      34.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which phenothiazine contains an aliphatic side chain? ...

    Correct

    • Which phenothiazine contains an aliphatic side chain?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A parent is worried about their 30-month-old toddler's language skills. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A parent is worried about their 30-month-old toddler's language skills. What is the expected minimum number of words at this age?

      Your Answer: 120

      Correct Answer: 240

      Explanation:

      Delayed language development is often linked to various factors, such as being male, belonging to a larger family, coming from a lower social class (IV and V), and experiencing neglect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Choose the correct answer: fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle: ...

    Correct

    • Choose the correct answer: fibers in the superior cerebellar peduncle:

      Your Answer: Are mainly ventral spinocerebellar tracts from the cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus

      Explanation:

      There are three cerebellar peduncles with different connections and functions. The three are mainly, superior, middle and inferior. The superior cerebellar peduncle is also known as the “Brachium conjunctivum”. It predominantly contains efferent fibers from the cerebellar nuclei, as well as some afferents from the spinocerebellar tract. The efferent pathways include cerebellorubral, dentatothalamic, and fastigioreticular fibers. These are tracts projecting from the deep cerebellar nuclei to the thalamus and red nucleus. The middle cerebellar peduncle connects to the pontine nucleus and the dorsal spinocerebellar tracts run through the superior cerebellar peduncle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      148.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of developing SIADH?

      Your Answer: Summer season

      Correct Answer: Male gender

      Explanation:

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      48.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What substances are found at higher levels in individuals with depression and bipolar...

    Correct

    • What substances are found at higher levels in individuals with depression and bipolar affective disorder?

      Your Answer: Cortisol

      Explanation:

      HPA Axis Dysfunction in Mood Disorders

      The HPA axis, which includes regulatory neural inputs and a feedback loop involving the hypothalamus, pituitary, and adrenal glands, plays a central role in the stress response. Excessive secretion of cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone, can lead to disruptions in cellular functioning and widespread physiologic dysfunction. Dysregulation of the HPA axis is implicated in mood disorders such as depression and bipolar affective disorder.

      In depressed patients, cortisol levels often do not decrease as expected in response to the administration of dexamethasone, a synthetic corticosteroid. This abnormality in the dexamethasone suppression test is thought to be linked to genetic of acquired defects of glucocorticoid receptors. Tricyclic antidepressants have been shown to increase expression of glucocorticoid receptors, whereas this is not the case for SSRIs.

      Early adverse experiences can produce long standing changes in HPA axis regulation, indicating a possible neurobiological mechanism whereby childhood trauma could be translated into increased vulnerability to mood disorder. In major depression, there is hypersecretion of cortisol, corticotropin-releasing factor (CRF), and ACTH, and associated adrenocortical enlargement. HPA abnormalities have also been found in other psychiatric disorders including Alzheimer’s and PTSD.

      In bipolar disorder, dysregulation of ACTH and cortisol response after CRH stimulation have been reported. Abnormal DST results are found more often during depressive episodes in the course of bipolar disorder than in unipolar disorder. Reduced pituitary volume secondary to LHPA stimulation, resulting in pituitary hypoactivity, has been observed in bipolar patients.

      Overall, HPA axis dysfunction is implicated in mood disorders, and understanding the underlying mechanisms may lead to new opportunities for treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which cognitive function is thought to be essential for the ventromedial prefrontal cortex?...

    Incorrect

    • Which cognitive function is thought to be essential for the ventromedial prefrontal cortex?

      Your Answer: Working memory

      Correct Answer: Moral judgement

      Explanation:

      The Neuroscience of Morality

      Morality is a process that involves both instinctive feelings and rational judgement. The ventromedial prefrontal cortex (PFC) is responsible for the emotional baseline, while the dorsolateral PFC is involved in cognitive control and problem solving. Studies have shown that the ventromedial PFC is activated during the solving of moral problems, particularly when responding to emotionally charged scenarios. On the other hand, the dorsolateral PFC is involved in tamping down our innate, reactionary moral system. These findings suggest that morality is a dual process event that involves both emotional and cognitive systems in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      70
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old patient with first onset psychosis is prescribed olanzapine and shows a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with first onset psychosis is prescribed olanzapine and shows a good response. After twelve months of therapy, their BMI has increased from 25 to 35. An attempt to reduce the dose precipitates a relapse in their illness, lifestyle interventions are also unsuccessful. A trial of a switch to which of the following antipsychotics would be indicated in order to attempt to reduce their weight whilst also addressing the psychosis?

      Your Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      108.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - What value of NNT indicates the most positive result for an intervention? ...

    Correct

    • What value of NNT indicates the most positive result for an intervention?

      Your Answer: NNT = 1

      Explanation:

      An NNT of 1 indicates that every patient who receives the treatment experiences a positive outcome, while no patient in the control group experiences the same outcome. This represents an ideal outcome.

      Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies

      When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.

      To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.

      The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In which region of the brain is Broca's area located? ...

    Correct

    • In which region of the brain is Broca's area located?

      Your Answer: Brodmann areas 44 and 45

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      7.8
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  • Question 19 - From which structure are the cerebral peduncles derived? ...

    Correct

    • From which structure are the cerebral peduncles derived?

      Your Answer: Mesencephalon

      Explanation:

      Neurodevelopment: Understanding Brain Development

      The development of the central nervous system begins with the neuroectoderm, a specialized region of ectoderm. The embryonic brain is divided into three areas: the forebrain (prosencephalon), midbrain (mesencephalon), and hindbrain (rhombencephalon). The prosencephalon further divides into the telencephalon and diencephalon, while the hindbrain subdivides into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

      The telencephalon, of cerebrum, consists of the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal ganglia. The diencephalon includes the prethalamus, thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, epithalamus, and pretectum. The mesencephalon comprises the tectum, tegmentum, ventricular mesocoelia, cerebral peduncles, and several nuclei and fasciculi.

      The rhombencephalon includes the medulla, pons, and cerebellum, which can be subdivided into a variable number of transversal swellings called rhombomeres. In humans, eight rhombomeres can be distinguished, from caudal to rostral: Rh7-Rh1 and the isthmus. Rhombomeres Rh7-Rh4 form the myelencephalon, while Rh3-Rh1 form the metencephalon.

      Understanding neurodevelopment is crucial in comprehending brain development and its complexities. By studying the different areas of the embryonic brain, we can gain insight into the formation of the central nervous system and its functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      78.6
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  • Question 20 - What is one of the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder according to DSM-5?...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder according to DSM-5?

      Your Answer: Often argues with authority figures

      Correct Answer: Often bullies, threatens, of intimidates others

      Explanation:

      Individuals diagnosed with conduct disorder typically engage in bullying, intimidation, and threats towards others, with a primary emphasis on their behavior. In contrast, oppositional defiant disorder can be viewed as a milder form of conduct disorder, as it encompasses both behavior and emotions.

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      27.7
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  • Question 21 - What is the estimated percentage of Caucasians who have the homozygous isoform of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the estimated percentage of Caucasians who have the homozygous isoform of alcohol dehydrogenase ADH1B*1?

      Your Answer: 1-5%

      Correct Answer: 85-95%

      Explanation:

      This question is challenging as it requires an estimation of the percentage of Caucasians who possess two copies of the gene responsible for the slow-acting form of alcohol dehydrogenase.

      Genetics and Alcoholism

      Alcoholism tends to run in families, and several studies confirm that biological children of alcoholics are more likely to develop alcoholism even when adopted by parents without the condition. Monozygotic twins have a greater concordance rate for alcoholism than dizygotic twins. Heritability estimates range from 45 to 65 percent for both men and women. While genetic differences affect risk, there is no “gene for alcoholism,” and both environmental and social factors weigh heavily on the outcome.

      The genes with the clearest contribution to the risk for alcoholism and alcohol consumption are alcohol dehydrogenase 1B (ADH1B) and aldehyde dehydrogenase 2 (ALDH2). The first step in ethanol metabolism is oxidation to acetaldehyde, by ADHs. The second step is metabolism of the acetaldehyde to acetate by ALDHs. Individuals carrying even a single copy of the ALDH2*504K display the “Asian flushing reaction” when they consume even small amounts of alcohol. There is one significant genetic polymorphism of the ALDH2 gene, resulting in allelic variants ALDH2*1 and ALDH2*2, which is virtually inactive. ALDH2*2 is present in about 50 percent of the Taiwanese, Han Chinese, and Japanese populations. It is extremely rare outside Asia. Nearly no individuals of European of African descent carry this allele. ALDH2*504K has repeatedly been demonstrated to have a protective effect against alcohol use disorders.

      The three different class I gene loci, ADH1A (alpha), ADH1B (beta), and ADH1C (gamma) are situated close to each other in the region 4q2123. The alleles ADH1C*1 and ADH1B*2 code for fast metabolism of alcohol. The ADH1B*1 slow allele is very common among Caucasians, with approximately 95 percent having the homozygous ADH1B*1/1 genotype and 5 percent having the heterozygous ADH1B*1/2 genotype. The ADH1B*2 allele is the most common allele in Asian populations. In African populations, the ADH1B*1 allele is the most common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following signs of symptoms would indicate hypoactive delirium? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following signs of symptoms would indicate hypoactive delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The only symptom that indicates hypoactive delirium is facial inexpression, while the rest of the symptoms suggest hyperactive delirium.

      Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax...

    Incorrect

    • Which cranial nerve is responsible for the parasympathetic nerve supply of the thorax and upper abdomen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN X

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve X supplies the structures of the thorax and abdomen. All the rest of the cranial nerves supply the structures in the head and neck

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes and was prescribed medication. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes and was prescribed medication. He now presents with weight loss and increased thirst.
      Which investigation is most likely to help make the correct diagnosis of this weight loss and increased thirst?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting glucose

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is important to note that the patient is experiencing weight loss, which is more commonly associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus of new onset type 2 diabetes mellitus. A fasting glucose test can aid in making a diagnosis and provide insight into the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      While abnormalities related to dehydration may be observed in U&Es, this investigation alone would not be sufficient for a diagnosis. LFTs and FBC may be useful as routine blood tests, but they would not provide an explanation for the patient’s clinical presentation.

      If the patient is taking lithium, measuring lithium levels could be helpful in identifying potential side effects such as increased thirst. However, lithium is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, so it may not be relevant in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
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  • Question 25 - What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma? ...

    Incorrect

    • What was the most significant contribution to the field of stigma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goffman

      Explanation:

      Goffman’s work focused extensively on stigma, while Cerletti is known for his contributions to the development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and Moniz is associated with the development of frontal lobotomy.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 26 - Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?...

    Incorrect

    • Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2D6

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 27 - What is the correct diagnosis for autism spectrum disorder in the most recent...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct diagnosis for autism spectrum disorder in the most recent edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There are no subtypes in schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The fifth edition of the DSM-5 no longer includes subtypes of schizophrenia due to their lack of usefulness to clinicians. The previous subtypes were based on the predominant symptom at the time of evaluation, but patients often exhibited overlapping symptoms that made it difficult to distinguish between subtypes. The DSM-5 now requires individuals to exhibit at least two specified symptoms, compared to the previous threshold of one, and symptoms must have been present for six months with at least one month of active symptoms for a diagnosis to be made.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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  • Question 28 - In which phase does the process of genetic recombination occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which phase does the process of genetic recombination occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prophase I

      Explanation:

      Cytokinesis: The Final Stage of Cell Division

      Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cell splits into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus. This process is essential for the growth and repair of tissues in multicellular organisms. In mitosis, cytokinesis occurs after telophase, while in meiosis, it occurs after telophase I and telophase II.

      During cytokinesis, a contractile ring made of actin and myosin filaments forms around the cell’s equator, constricting it like a belt. This ring gradually tightens, pulling the cell membrane inward and creating a furrow that deepens until it reaches the center of the cell. Eventually, the furrow meets in the middle, dividing the cell into two daughter cells.

      In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the formation of a cleavage furrow, while in plant cells, a cell plate forms between the two daughter nuclei, which eventually develops into a new cell wall. The timing and mechanism of cytokinesis are tightly regulated by a complex network of proteins and signaling pathways, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the correct amount of cytoplasm and organelles.

      Overall, cytokinesis is a crucial step in the cell cycle, ensuring that genetic material is equally distributed between daughter cells and allowing for the growth and development of multicellular organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 29 - Which food should be consumed with caution by patients taking tranylcypromine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which food should be consumed with caution by patients taking tranylcypromine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cheese

      Explanation:

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 30 - What does the following describe: A clinical manifestation that quickly appears and indicates...

    Incorrect

    • What does the following describe: A clinical manifestation that quickly appears and indicates a localized disruption in brain function, believed to be caused by a vascular issue and lasting for more than 24 hours.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Cerebrovascular accidents (CVA), also known as strokes, are defined by the World Health Organization as a sudden onset of focal neurological symptoms lasting more than 24 hours and presumed to be of vascular origin. Strokes can be caused by either infarction of hemorrhage, with infarction being more common. Hemorrhagic strokes tend to be more severe. Intracranial hemorrhage can be primary, caused mainly by hypertension, of subarachnoid, caused by the rupture of an aneurysm of angioma. Primary intracranial hemorrhage is most common in individuals aged 60-80 and often occurs during exertion. Infarction can be caused by thrombosis of embolism, with thrombosis being more common. Atherosclerosis, often caused by hypertension, is the main cause of infarction. CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool during the first 48 hours after a stroke as it can distinguish between infarcts and hemorrhages. Recovery from embolism is generally quicker and more complete than from thrombosis due to the availability of collateral channels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 31 - What psychological process is referred to by the term 'cocktail party effect'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What psychological process is referred to by the term 'cocktail party effect'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Focussed attention in presence of multiple stimuli

      Explanation:

      The term phatic communication is used to describe casual conversation. The ‘cocktail party effect’ is the ability to concentrate on one person’s voice in any setting, such as a classroom, sports game, of coffee shop, even if there is a lot of background noise.

      The Cocktail Party Effect: Selective Attention in Noisy Environments

      The cocktail party effect is a phenomenon that allows individuals to selectively focus on a single conversation in a noisy environment, while ignoring other competing conversations. This feature of selective attention is particularly useful in social situations, such as parties, where multiple conversations are taking place simultaneously. For instance, if you are conversing with a friend at a noisy party, you can effectively tune out the surrounding noise and concentrate on your friend’s conversation. This ability to filter out irrelevant information and focus on relevant information is a crucial aspect of human cognition. It enables us to navigate complex social environments and engage in meaningful interactions with others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 32 - Which of the following antidepressant medications is recognized for having a comparatively elevated...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following antidepressant medications is recognized for having a comparatively elevated level of toxicity in case of an overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      Toxicity in Overdose: Comparing MAOIs, SSRIs, Tricyclics, and Mirtazapine

      When it comes to the risk of overdose, not all antidepressants are created equal. MAOIs (except for moclobemide) have a high toxicity level, with as little as 400 mg of phenelzine being potentially fatal. On the other hand, SSRIs are considered relatively safe in overdose. Tricyclics, except for lofepramine, have a higher risk of toxicity in overdose. However, lofepramine is relatively safe in overdose. Mirtazapine, while sedative, has a low risk of toxicity even in large doses, and may not produce any symptoms. It’s important to note that regardless of the perceived safety of a medication, any overdose should be taken seriously and medical attention should be sought immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
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  • Question 33 - How can the inheritance pattern be described as horizontal? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the inheritance pattern be described as horizontal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      On a genogram, autosomal recessive conditions are represented by a horizontal inheritance pattern.

      Modes of Inheritance

      Genetic disorders can be passed down from one generation to the next in various ways. There are four main modes of inheritance: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked (sex-linked), and multifactorial.

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance

      Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one. This type of inheritance shows vertical transmission, meaning it is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy, where a single gene influences several characteristics.

      Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

      In autosomal recessive conditions, a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and is labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.

      X-linked (Sex-linked) Inheritance

      In X-linked conditions, the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions, they can be dominant of recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons. In X-linked recessive conditions, the inheritance pattern is characterised by transmission from affected males to male grandchildren via affected carrier daughters.

      Multifactorial Inheritance

      Multifactorial conditions result from the interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 34 - What is located within Brodmann area 22? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is located within Brodmann area 22?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke's area

      Explanation:

      Broca’s and Wernicke’s are two types of expressive dysphasia, which is characterized by difficulty producing speech despite intact comprehension. Dysarthria is a type of expressive dysphasia caused by damage to the speech production apparatus, while Broca’s aphasia is caused by damage to the area of the brain responsible for speech production, specifically Broca’s area located in Brodmann areas 44 and 45. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is a type of receptive of fluent aphasia caused by damage to the comprehension of speech, while the actual production of speech remains normal. Wernicke’s area is located in the posterior part of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere, within Brodmann area 22.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 35 - Who received the Nobel prize for their discovery of dopamine's function as a...

    Incorrect

    • Who received the Nobel prize for their discovery of dopamine's function as a neurotransmitter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carlsson

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 36 - A GP contacts you with concerns about a patient who was prescribed phenelzine...

    Incorrect

    • A GP contacts you with concerns about a patient who was prescribed phenelzine during their hospital stay and has now been hospitalized due to significant hypertension. Which medication taken by the patient is the most probable cause of this interaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dextromethorphan

      Explanation:

      Dextromethorphan is a medication used to suppress coughing and is commonly found in various cold and cough remedies available without a prescription. It is important to note that it can interact with MAOIs, which are a type of medication used to treat depression and other mental health conditions.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 37 - A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old, overweight woman presents with recurring episodes of one-sided vision loss accompanied by pain over the last 24 months. She is curious if her use of fluoxetine, which you prescribed for her depression, could be a contributing factor. What is your primary suspicion regarding her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The symptoms experienced by the woman are most indicative of optic neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve where it connects to the eye. This typically results in temporary loss of vision in one eye, accompanied by pain during eye movement. Optic neuritis is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. It is unlikely that the woman is experiencing an arterial occlusion, as this would cause permanent and painless vision loss. A pituitary adenoma would affect both eyes and result in permanent vision loss. The possibility of a somatoform disorder is unlikely, as the women’s symptoms align with a recognized medical diagnosis. Endophthalmitis is a serious condition that can cause permanent vision loss and requires immediate medical attention.

      Multiple Sclerosis: An Overview

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder that is classified into three categories: primary progressive, relapsing-remitting, and secondary progressive. Primary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 5-10% of patients and is characterized by a steady progression with no remissions. Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis affects 20-30% of patients and presents with a relapsing-remitting course but does not lead to serious disability. Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis affects 60% of patients and initially presents with a relapsing-remitting course but is then followed by a phase of progressive deterioration.

      The disorder typically begins between the ages of 20 and 40 and is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions that have a preference for the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. Patients with multiple sclerosis present with a variety of neurological signs that reflect the presence and distribution of plaques. Ocular features of multiple sclerosis include optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women than in men and is seen with increasing frequency as the distance from the equator increases. It is believed to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, with monozygotic concordance at 25%. Overall, multiple sclerosis is a predominantly white matter disease that can have a significant impact on a patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 38 - Which of these is not a typical symptom of epilepsy in the temporal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these is not a typical symptom of epilepsy in the temporal lobe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual aura

      Explanation:

      – Visual aura is not expected in temporal lobe epilepsy
      – Visual aura may occur in occipital seizures
      – Temporal lobe epilepsy is characterized by automatisms, altered consciousness, déjà vu, complex partial seizures, and olfactory hallucinations
      – Occipital epilepsy can cause visual phenomena and headaches
      – Occipital epilepsy should be differentiated from migraine

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 39 - What is the classification of bulimia nervosa according to the ICD-11? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the classification of bulimia nervosa according to the ICD-11?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vomiting is not necessary for a diagnosis of bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      To diagnose bulimia, weight reduction methods are necessary, but vomiting is not the only method used. Some individuals with bulimia may opt for laxatives of excessive exercise instead. The SCOFF questionnaire is utilized to screen for both anorexia and bulimia, rather than the CAGE questionnaire.

      Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.

      Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.

      It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 40 - This stage of reasoning illustrates the conventional stage of moral development, where individuals...

    Incorrect

    • This stage of reasoning illustrates the conventional stage of moral development, where individuals make decisions based on social norms and expectations:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good Boy/Nice Girl orientation

      Explanation:

      The child’s reasoning demonstrates an understanding that actions are evaluated as either positive of negative by others, and that the appropriate course of action is one that is deemed positive (of not negative) by the society.

      Kohlberg’s Six Stages of Moral Development

      Kohlberg’s theory of moral development consists of six stages that can be categorized into three levels. The first level is the preconventional stage, which is characterized by obedience and punishment orientation, where the focus is on the direct consequences of actions and unquestioning deference to power. The second stage is the self-interest orientation, where right behavior is defined purely by what is in the individual’s own interest.

      The second level is the conventional stage, which is characterized by interpersonal accord and conformity, where the focus is on how the individual will appear to others. The behavior should accord with a consensus view on what is good. The second stage is the authority and social order obedience driven, where what is lawful is judged to be morally right. Right behavior is dictated by societal rules, and there is a greater respect for social order and the need for laws.

      The third level is the postconventional stage, which is characterized by the social contract orientation, where individual rights determine behavior. The individual views laws and rules as flexible tools for improving human purposes. The fourth stage is the universal ethical principles orientation, where the right action is the one that is consistent with abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles.

      It is important to note that the age ranges for Kohlberg’s developmental stages are rough guides, and sources vary widely. Kohlberg developed his stage theory following an experiment he conducted on 72 boys aged 10-16. However, the theory is criticized as sexist as it only included boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 41 - A devoted mother has a son with autism. She spends every free moment...

    Incorrect

    • A devoted mother has a son with autism. She spends every free moment researching the latest treatments and therapies, as well as the underlying neurological causes of his condition.
      What defense mechanism is she exhibiting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intellectualisation

      Explanation:

      Intellectualisation involves disregarding the emotional aspect of a situation, such as a daughter’s severe illness, by concentrating solely on factual information and particulars. This behaviour is classified as a neurotic defence mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
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  • Question 42 - A teenager reports that last week it became clear to them that they...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager reports that last week it became clear to them that they were the true son of Princess Diana and that the royal family were in fact lizards connected to organised crime. They deny abnormal perceptual phenomena. They deny that life has felt odd of strange over the past few months. They state their intent to dethrone the queen by any means necessary. They do not appear agitated whilst describing this.

      Which of the following is illustrated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sudden delusional ideas

      Explanation:

      Sudden delusional ideas are distinct from delusional perceptions as they do not arise from abnormal sensory experiences. There is no evidence of a paranoid environment. These delusions do not involve feeling persecuted. In persecutory delusions, the individual believes they are the object of aggression of surveillance. They may have delusions that they are in danger, insulted, ridiculed, monitored, of robbed by others who seek to harm their health, possessions, of life.

      Borderline Learning Disability

      Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 43 - Which medication is linked to priapism? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is linked to priapism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trazodone

      Explanation:

      The alpha adrenergic antagonism caused by Trazodone can lead to priapism. Trazodone is an antidepressant that is similar to tricyclics and is commonly prescribed for depression with anxiety and the need for sedation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 44 - What is the accurate formula for calculating BMI? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate formula for calculating BMI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mass (kg)/ height² (m)

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Management of Obesity

      Obesity is a condition that can increase the risk of various health problems, including type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, some types of cancer, and stroke. The body mass index (BMI) is a commonly used tool to assess obesity, calculated by dividing a person’s weight in kilograms by their height in meters squared. For adults over 20 years old, BMI falls into one of the following categories: underweight, normal of healthy weight, pre-obesity/overweight, obesity class I, obesity class II, and obesity class III.

      Waist circumference can also be used in combination with BMI to guide interventions. Diet and exercise are the main interventions up to a BMI of 35, unless there are comorbidities such as type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, osteoarthritis, dyslipidemia, and sleep apnea. Physical activity recommendations suggest that adults should accumulate at least 150 minutes of moderate intensity activity of 75 minutes of vigorous intensity activity per week. Dietary recommendations suggest diets that have a 600 kcal/day deficit.

      Pharmacological options such as Orlistat of Liraglutide may be considered for those with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 of more, of 28 if associated risk factors. Surgical options such as bariatric surgery may be considered for those with a BMI of 40 kg/m2 of more, of between 35 kg/m2 and 40 kg/m2 with other significant diseases that could be improved with weight loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 45 - What is included in the basal ganglia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is included in the basal ganglia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Putamen

      Explanation:

      The Basal Ganglia: Functions and Disorders

      The basal ganglia are a group of subcortical structures that play a crucial role in controlling movement and some cognitive processes. The components of the basal ganglia include the striatum (caudate, putamen, nucleus accumbens), subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus, and substantia nigra (divided into pars compacta and pars reticulata). The putamen and globus pallidus are collectively referred to as the lenticular nucleus.

      The basal ganglia are connected in a complex loop, with the cortex projecting to the striatum, the striatum to the internal segment of the globus pallidus, the internal segment of the globus pallidus to the thalamus, and the thalamus back to the cortex. This loop is responsible for regulating movement and cognitive processes.

      However, problems with the basal ganglia can lead to several conditions. Huntington’s chorea is caused by degeneration of the caudate nucleus, while Wilson’s disease is characterized by copper deposition in the basal ganglia. Parkinson’s disease is associated with degeneration of the substantia nigra, and hemiballism results from damage to the subthalamic nucleus.

      In summary, the basal ganglia are a crucial part of the brain that regulate movement and some cognitive processes. Disorders of the basal ganglia can lead to significant neurological conditions that affect movement and other functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 46 - A 68 year old woman with heart disease has recently been started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old woman with heart disease has recently been started on fluoxetine for a moderate depressive illness. She visits her GP complaining of tiredness and muscle cramps. The GP contacts you for advice, which of the following is most likely to reveal an abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: U & E

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the women’s medical history is SIADH, which is believed to be caused by the antidepressant she recently began taking. This condition would be reflected in her U & E results, which would indicate a low level of sodium.

      Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients

      Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 47 - Which receptors does clozapine have a high affinity for? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptors does clozapine have a high affinity for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: D4

      Explanation:

      Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 48 - What is the most consistently observed pathology in schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most consistently observed pathology in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced total grey matter volume

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is associated with the presence of Hirano bodies.

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 49 - You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric ward who presents with sudden dizziness and vomiting. During your examination, you notice that the right side of her face seems to have lost sensation, and her left arm and leg also appear to have lost sensation to pain and temperature. What is your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion/infarct, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome of lateral medullary syndrome, can cause a sudden onset of dizziness and vomiting. It can also result in ipsilateral facial sensory loss, specifically for pain and temperature, and contralateral sensory loss for pain and temperature of the limbs and trunk. Nystagmus to the side of the lesion, ipsilateral limb ataxia, dysphagia, and dysarthria are also common symptoms. Additionally, this condition can cause ipsilateral pharyngeal and laryngeal paralysis.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 50 - What was the primary issue faced during the initial application of electroconvulsive therapy...

    Incorrect

    • What was the primary issue faced during the initial application of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spinal and limb fractures

      Explanation:

      Delayed Seizures in Metrazol-Induced Convulsions

      During the early development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), chemical convulsions using Metrazol were commonly used. However, this method was associated with a high risk of fractures due to the violent seizures induced. To address this issue, various forms of muscle relaxation were introduced, leading to the replacement of chemical convulsions with ECT.

      Despite the risks associated with Metrazol-induced convulsions, they were noted to be effective for severe depression. However, delayed seizures were a common occurrence with this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 51 - What is the meaning of animus in the context of Jungian therapy? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the meaning of animus in the context of Jungian therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The unconscious male aspect present in every female

      Explanation:

      According to Jung, every individual possesses a concealed bisexuality. He referred to the feminine traits within a man as anima and the masculine traits within a woman as animus. The shadow represents the embodiment of our undesirable characteristics, while the persona is the facade we present to society.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
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  • Question 52 - What is the appropriate approach for paternalistic intervention in preventing teenage suicide? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate approach for paternalistic intervention in preventing teenage suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beauchamp views paternalism as applying only to autonomous individuals

      Explanation:

      Beauchamp (1993) argued that paternalism only applies to individuals who are capable of making decisions for themselves. In cases where an individual lacks autonomy, healthcare staff have a duty to make decisions on their behalf in their best interests. This includes preventing non-autonomous individuals from attempting suicide.

      Deep autonomy provides further justification for paternalistic suicide prevention measures. While acknowledging an autonomous person’s right to take their own life, it could be argued that intervening in a suicide attempt allows the person to reflect and reconsider their decision.

      The ‘cry for help’ model can also justify paternalistic interventions as individuals can be given help in finding happiness rather than resorting to suicide in a moment of hopelessness.

      However, longer-term suicide prevention measures are generally criticized in the literature, especially in the case of autonomous individuals. Detaining an autonomous individual in a psychiatric hospital for an extended period solely to prevent suicide would be an unjustifiable abuse of civil liberty in the vast majority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Ethics And Philosophy Of Psychiatry
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  • Question 53 - What structure's reduced asymmetry has been linked to schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What structure's reduced asymmetry has been linked to schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Planum temporale

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 54 - A Kayser-Fleischer ring is a characteristic sign of which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • A Kayser-Fleischer ring is a characteristic sign of which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.

      The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.

      The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.

      In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 55 - A 25-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of anxiety and you believe that an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of anxiety and you believe that an anxiolytic medication may be helpful. What is a true statement about medications used to treat anxiety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine causes few anticholinergic side effects

      Explanation:

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) increase levels of noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine by inhibiting one of both of the monoamine oxidase enzymes, MAO-A and MAO-B. This is different from selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclics, which primarily affect serotonin levels. Tricyclics have anticholinergic and noradrenergic side effects, while SSRIs cause fewer anticholinergic effects but may lead to gastrointestinal problems, agitation, insomnia, and headaches. MAOIs have their own set of potential side effects, including interactions with certain foods and medications, as well as possible hypertensive crises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 56 - What is the recommended approach by NICE for managing distress in patients with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended approach by NICE for managing distress in patients with delirium?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Delirium Management

      Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.

      Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 57 - What is the probability of an offspring being an asymptomatic carrier if both...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probability of an offspring being an asymptomatic carrier if both parents are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive trait?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      When two individuals who are heterozygous for an autosomal recessive condition have a child, there is a 25% chance that the child will be affected by the condition, a 50% chance that the child will be a carrier of the condition but not show any symptoms, and a 25% chance that the child will not carry the condition and will be completely normal.

      Inheritance Patterns:

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions:
      – Can be transmitted from one generation to the next (vertical transmission) through all forms of transmission observed (male to male, male to female, female to female).
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Usually, one parent is an affected heterozygote and the other is an unaffected homozygote.
      – If only one parent is affected, there is a 50% chance that a child will inherit the mutated gene.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions:
      – Males and females are affected in equal proportions.
      – Two copies of the gene must be mutated for a person to be affected.
      – Both parents are usually unaffected heterozygotes.
      – Two unaffected people who each carry one copy of the mutated gene have a 25% chance with each pregnancy of having a child affected by the disorder.

      X-linked Dominant Conditions:
      – Males and females are both affected, with males typically being more severely affected than females.
      – The sons of a man with an X-linked dominant disorder will all be unaffected.
      – A woman with an X-linked dominant disorder has a 50% chance of having an affected fetus.

      X-linked Recessive Conditions:
      – Males are more frequently affected than females.
      – Transmitted through carrier females to their sons (knights move pattern).
      – Affected males cannot pass the condition onto their sons.
      – A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked recessive disorder has a 50% chance of having sons who are affected and a 50% chance of having daughters who are carriers.

      Y-linked Conditions:
      – Every son of an affected father will be affected.
      – Female offspring of affected fathers are never affected.

      Mitochondrial Inheritance:
      – Mitochondria are inherited only in the maternal ova and not in sperm.
      – Males and females are affected, but always being maternally inherited.
      – An affected male does not pass on his mitochondria to his children, so all his children will be unaffected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 58 - What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic of consequentialist theories?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The moral status of an act is determined by its outcomes

      Explanation:

      The exam will require you to differentiate between the three main ethical principles: consequentialism, virtue theory, and deontology. Consequentialism prioritizes outcomes over intentions, while virtue theory emphasizes character, and deontology focuses on motives. A deep understanding of ethics is not necessary, but a basic comprehension of these principles is required.

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 59 - Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance has the lowest taste threshold concentration, in other words which substance can be present in the lowest concentration before taste buds will respond?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Strychnine hydrochloride (bitter)

      Explanation:

      The lowest concentration of a gustatory stimulus to which the taste buds respond is considered to be the threshold concentration for that substance. The threshold concentration for strychnine is 0.0001 mm; this is because it allows the body to detect potentially dangerous substances (bitter plant components) at lower concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 60 - At what age does the transition from the holophrastic stage to the telegraphic...

    Incorrect

    • At what age does the transition from the holophrastic stage to the telegraphic stage typically occur in children's linguistic development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 18 months

      Explanation:

      Linguistic Development and Risk Factors for Delayed Speech and Language

      The development of language skills is an important aspect of a child’s growth. The prelinguistic period, from birth to 12 months, is marked by crying, babbling, and echolalia. From 6 to 12 months, a child responds to their name and can differentiate between angry and friendly tones. By 18 to 24 months, a child can use up to 40-50 words, mainly nouns, and starts to combine words in short phrases. By 36 to 48 months, a child has a vocabulary of 900-1000 words, can use plurals and past tense, and can handle three-word sentences easily.

      However, there are risk factors associated with delayed speech and language development. These include a positive family history, male gender, twins, lower maternal education, childhood illness, being born late in the family order, young mother at birth, and low socioeconomic status. of these, a positive family history is considered the most reliable risk factor. It is important to monitor a child’s language development and seek professional help if there are concerns about delayed speech and language.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 61 - What is a characteristic feature of Argyll Robertson pupils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a characteristic feature of Argyll Robertson pupils?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilation is typically poor with mydriatic agents

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained

      The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 62 - Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neurotransmitter is made from hydroxylation and decarboxylation of tryptophan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serotonin

      Explanation:

      Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then converted to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 63 - What ECG alterations are commonly observed in patients who are administered lithium at...

    Incorrect

    • What ECG alterations are commonly observed in patients who are administered lithium at therapeutic doses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinus bradycardia

      Explanation:

      When lithium levels become toxic, which is defined as being greater than 1.5 mEq/L, more serious ECG changes can occur. These include sinoatrial block, intraventricular conduction delay, ST depressions of elevations, the Brugada pattern, and atrioventricular conduction delays.

      ECG Changes Associated with Chlorpromazine

      Chlorpromazine is a psychotropic medication that has been associated with various ECG changes. One of the most notable changes is repolarization changes, which can be seen as ST segment and T wave changes. Additionally, chlorpromazine has been linked to heart blocks, which can be detected by a prolonged PR interval.

      Another significant ECG finding associated with chlorpromazine is QTc prolongation. This is a potentially dangerous condition that can lead to torsades de pointes, a type of ventricular tachycardia that can be life-threatening. Other medications that have been linked to QTc prolongation include a wide range of antipsychotics and antidepressants.

      It is important to note that not all patients who take chlorpromazine will experience ECG changes. However, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risks and monitor patients closely for any signs of cardiac abnormalities. If ECG changes are detected, the medication may need to be adjusted of discontinued to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 64 - What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?...

    Incorrect

    • What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ordering is the most common compulsion

      Explanation:

      In adults with learning disability, ordering is the most prevalent compulsion, whereas hand-washing, checking, and cleaning are more common in the general population. The prevalence rate of OCD in learning disability is higher at 2.5% compared to the general population. However, it can be challenging to distinguish OCD from other behaviors associated with learning disability syndromes, such as tics, stereotyped behaviors, and autism spectrum disorder. Additionally, assessing obsessional thoughts in individuals with learning disability can be challenging due to their difficulty in articulating them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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  • Question 65 - How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can we differentiate between a pseudohallucination and a true hallucination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Occurs in inner subjective space

      Explanation:

      The distinguishing factors between the two are based on personal interpretation and tangible versus intangible concepts.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 66 - Which option is the least appropriate for nighttime sedation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is the least appropriate for nighttime sedation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      It is advisable to avoid agents with longer half lives as they have a tendency to induce drowsiness in patients.

      Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.

      Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 67 - A team of scientists aims to perform a systematic review and meta-analysis of...

    Incorrect

    • A team of scientists aims to perform a systematic review and meta-analysis of the effects of caffeine on sleep quality. They want to determine if there is any variation in the results across the studies they have gathered.
      Which of the following is not a technique that can be employed to evaluate heterogeneity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Receiver operating characteristic curve

      Explanation:

      The receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve is a useful tool for evaluating the diagnostic accuracy of a test in distinguishing between healthy and diseased individuals. It helps to identify the optimal cut-off point between sensitivity and specificity.

      Other methods, such as visual inspection of forest plots and Cochran’s Q test, can be used to assess heterogeneity in meta-analysis. Visual inspection of forest plots is a quick and easy method, while Cochran’s Q test is a more formal and widely accepted approach.

      For more information on heterogeneity in meta-analysis, further reading is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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  • Question 68 - Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lofepramine

      Explanation:

      Among the tricyclic antidepressants, Lofepramine has the lowest potential for causing cardiotoxicity.

      Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects

      SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.

      Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 69 - At what level of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg's theory is a teenager...

    Incorrect

    • At what level of moral reasoning according to Kohlberg's theory is a teenager who believes stealing is justified if it is done to provide for one's family, and when asked why, responds with because it's common knowledge?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Good interpersonal relationships

      Explanation:

      Sophie has entered the phase of conventional morality where she comprehends that morality is determined by motivation rather than outcomes. However, societal norms still dictate what is considered moral rather than individual beliefs. This is exemplified by the emphasis on everyone in moral reasoning. Additionally, children begin to recognize the significance of portraying themselves as having virtuous intentions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 70 - What is the most probable reason for the mixed martial artist's motivation to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable reason for the mixed martial artist's motivation to become a champion despite experiencing humiliation from his father as a child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      The man’s mother’s stance against violence prevented him from acting aggressively towards his father. Instead, he found an outlet for his aggression through martial arts, which was deemed socially acceptable. His success as a champion suggests that he sublimated his aggression into a positive pursuit, rather than displacing it onto others, which is a less mature defense mechanism. There is no indication that he repressed his feelings towards his father, as he was able to channel his aggression in a constructive manner.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 71 - What is the drug that primarily acts through the GABA system? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the drug that primarily acts through the GABA system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs

      Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 72 - A 25-year-old woman presents with significant weight loss and you suspect she may...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with significant weight loss and you suspect she may have anorexia nervosa. You decide to conduct a series of screening tests. Which of the following results would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low white cell count

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa can lead to various biochemical and haematological abnormalities, such as hypokalaemia, hypochloraemic alkalosis (caused by vomiting and/of diuretic/laxative abuse), and hypercholesterolaemia (whose mechanism is unknown). However, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) remains normal of decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
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  • Question 73 - A male patient in his 40s has been tried on several oral antipsychotics...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient in his 40s has been tried on several oral antipsychotics but has been non-compliant. He remains psychotic and the team feel a depot antipsychotic is indicated. He has had a number of EPSE's whilst on oral medication. Which of the following options would be the most sensible choice bearing in mind his history of EPSEs?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole depot

      Explanation:

      , coma, respiratory depression (rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 74 - You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 35-year-old male in your office. He has been referred by his primary care physician due to symptoms of increased appetite, weight gain, excessive sleepiness, feeling physically heavy, and sensitivity to rejection. He asks you about the most effective treatments for his condition. What would be the best response to his question?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenelzine

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to a classic case of atypical depression, which is best treated with phenelzine, a MAOI. While imipramine and other TCAs have some evidence for treating atypical depression, they are not as effective as MAOIs. Nowadays, SSRIs are commonly used as a first-line treatment, but they have a weaker evidence base compared to MAOIs and TCAs. Vortioxetine is a new antidepressant that has complex effects on the 5HT system, but it has not been studied for its efficacy in treating atypical depression. Similarly, venlafaxine has not been studied for this indication either.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 75 - Which statement accurately describes the neurobiology of schizophrenia? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the neurobiology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Structural brain abnormalities are present at the onset of illness

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 76 - In terms of educational psychology, what is the term for a reinforcement schedule...

    Incorrect

    • In terms of educational psychology, what is the term for a reinforcement schedule where reinforcement is provided consistently but the amount of responses needed varies from one instance to the next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Variable ratio

      Explanation:

      BF Skinner’s theory states that behavior is influenced by its consequences, which can be positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, of punishment. The frequency and consistency of these consequences, as determined by different reinforcement schedules, can shape and maintain behavior in various ways. Common reinforcement schedules include continuous reinforcement, fixed interval, fixed ratio, variable interval, and variable ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Psychological Processes
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  • Question 77 - What is a true statement about depersonalization? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about depersonalization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is associated with emotional numbness

      Explanation:

      Ego (Boundary) Disturbances

      Ego (boundary) disturbances refer to experiences where there is a disturbance in the perception of self as distinct from the environment of the integrity of self. It also includes instances where bodily processes, personal thought processes, feelings, and actions are experienced as being externally directed. These phenomena are referred to as passivity phenomena, and some of the symptom characteristics are classified as bizarre delusional phenomena in the DSM.

      Derealization is when a patient experiences their surroundings of time as if they are unreal and changed, losing all feelings of familiarity and trust in the environment. People, objects, and surroundings appear unreal, unfamiliar, of spatially altered. The sensations may be intense of weak in nature.

      Depersonalization is when a patient perceives themselves as alien, unreal, changed, of as a stranger. The disturbances of depersonalization may be of a transient nature only of become more persistent over a longer period of time. It is generally felt to be both strange and unpleasant.

      Thought broadcasting is when a patient’s personal thoughts are experienced as no longer belonging to the patient alone but accessible by others who will know what the patient is thinking (mind reading). Thought withdrawal is when a patient’s thoughts are being removed of stripped from them. Thought insertion is when patients experience their thoughts and ideas as being externally influenced, made externally, controlled, directed, entered/ of externally imposed.

      Other feelings of alien influence refer to feelings, intentions, behavior, of bodily functions that are experienced as externally controlled of made by others (passivity phenomena). The patient feels externally compelled to say something specific, to scream, to act of behave in a particular way, to attack someone, to throw a tantrum, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 78 - What defense mechanisms are present in individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What defense mechanisms are present in individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magical thinking

      Explanation:

      OCD can trigger various defence mechanisms, such as repression, reaction formation, magical thinking, undoing, and isolation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dynamic Psychopathology
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  • Question 79 - Through which opening in the skull does the cranial nerve exit, which is...

    Incorrect

    • Through which opening in the skull does the cranial nerve exit, which is known as the internal auditory canal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 80 - Which cranial nerve reflex is most likely to be impacted by a vagus...

    Incorrect

    • Which cranial nerve reflex is most likely to be impacted by a vagus nerve lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gag

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerve Reflexes

      When it comes to questions on cranial nerve reflexes, it is important to match the reflex to the nerves involved. Here are some examples:

      – Pupillary light reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Accommodation reflex: involves the optic nerve (sensory) and oculomotor nerve (motor).
      – Jaw jerk: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory and motor).
      – Corneal reflex: involves the trigeminal nerve (sensory) and facial nerve (motor).
      – Vestibulo-ocular reflex: involves the vestibulocochlear nerve (sensory) and oculomotor, trochlear, and abducent nerves (motor).

      Another example of a cranial nerve reflex is the gag reflex, which involves the glossopharyngeal nerve (sensory) and the vagus nerve (motor). This reflex is important for protecting the airway from foreign objects of substances that may trigger a gag reflex. It is also used as a diagnostic tool to assess the function of these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 81 - What is the hypothalamic nucleus that is responsible for regulating heat generation and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the hypothalamic nucleus that is responsible for regulating heat generation and conservation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Hypothalamus

      The hypothalamus is a vital part of the brain that plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. It receives and integrates sensory information about the internal environment and directs actions to control internal homeostasis. The hypothalamus contains several nuclei and fiber tracts, each with specific functions.

      The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms. Neurons in the SCN have an intrinsic rhythm of discharge activity and receive input from the retina. The SCN is considered the body’s master clock, but it has multiple connections with other hypothalamic nuclei.

      Body temperature control is mainly under the control of the preoptic, anterior, and posterior nuclei, which have temperature-sensitive neurons. As the temperature goes above 37ºC, warm-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering parasympathetic activity to promote heat loss. As the temperature goes below 37ºC, cold-sensitive neurons are activated, triggering sympathetic activity to promote conservation of heat.

      The hypothalamus also plays a role in regulating prolactin secretion. Dopamine is tonically secreted by dopaminergic neurons that project from the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus into the anterior pituitary gland via the tuberoinfundibular pathway. The dopamine that is released acts on lactotrophic cells through D2-receptors, inhibiting prolactin synthesis. In the absence of pregnancy of lactation, prolactin is constitutively inhibited by dopamine. Dopamine antagonists result in hyperprolactinemia, while dopamine agonists inhibit prolactin secretion.

      In summary, the hypothalamus is a complex structure that regulates various bodily functions, including circadian rhythms, body temperature, and prolactin secretion. Dysfunction of the hypothalamus can lead to various disorders, such as sleep-rhythm disorder, diabetes insipidus, hyperprolactinemia, and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 82 - What is the likely diagnosis when a patient exhibits a normal accommodation reflex...

    Incorrect

    • What is the likely diagnosis when a patient exhibits a normal accommodation reflex but an absent light reflex during a pupil examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Argyll Robertson pupil

      Explanation:

      Argyll Robertson Pupil: Accommodation Retained

      The Argyll Robertson pupil is a notable topic in medical exams, as it is associated with tertiary syphilis, which is a crucial differential diagnosis for various psychiatric conditions like mood disorders, dementia, and psychosis. This type of pupil reacts poorly to light but normally to near stimuli, such as accommodation and convergence. They are typically small and irregular in shape, but they do not usually affect visual acuity. Mydriatic agents are not effective in dilating the Argyll Robertson pupil. Although this type of pupil is often considered pathognomonic of tertiary syphilis, it has also been observed in diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 83 - A child undergoes a lower limb amputation. She comes to clinic, talks about...

    Incorrect

    • A child undergoes a lower limb amputation. She comes to clinic, talks about her favorite toys and resists your attempts to discuss her operation. When you ask her how her leg is feeling, she replies by saying that she has no pain and that there is nothing wrong with her leg. She says that she used a wheelchair to get to clinic as she wanted to try it out.
      Which defense mechanism is being used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denial

      Explanation:

      The man’s denial was evident as he refused to acknowledge the external reality that his legs had been amputated. On the other hand, if he tried to change the subject and only reluctantly accepted the truth when pressed, it would suggest that he was suppressing his emotions and thoughts about the amputation.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 84 - How would Marcia classify the following as identity foreclosure? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would Marcia classify the following as identity foreclosure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A teenage boy tells you that they will be a doctor when they are older. It is clear that this represents the preference of the boy’s parents who have applied pressure and that the boy has not yet explored his options

      Explanation:

      Erikson and Marcia acknowledge that identity development is a lifelong process, but they also agree that adolescence is the period of most significant growth in this area. Individuals who are in a state of identity foreclosure have already made a commitment to an identity without fully exploring their options. This often occurs during early adolescence when individuals may feel anxious about uncertainty of change, of when they face pressure from their parents, peers, of cultural norms. As a result, they may make a preliminary commitment to an identity without investing in the exploration process.

      Development: Erikson and Marcia

      Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development outlines eight stages of ego growth, each marked by a specific crisis that must be resolved for positive development. These stages range from trust vs. mistrust in infancy to integrity vs. despair in old age. Successful resolution of each crisis leads to positive growth and development.

      Marcia expanded on Erikson’s theory, focusing on identity formation during adolescence. He described four separate identity statuses, which represent the four possible combinations of commitment and exploration. Identity confusion/diffusion occurs when adolescents neither explore nor commit to any identities. Foreclosure occurs when an individual commits to an identity without exploring options. A moratorium is a state in which adolescents are actively exploring options but have not yet made commitments. Individuals who have explored different options, discovered their purpose, and have made identity commitments are in a state of identity achievement.

      Overall, both Erikson and Marcia’s theories emphasize the importance of positive resolution of developmental crises and the role of exploration and commitment in identity formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 85 - Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes the FAST questionnaire for alcohol misuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be stopped after first question depending on the answer

      Explanation:

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 86 - The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual...

    Incorrect

    • The tectum as part of the Midbrain contains which structure important in visual reflexes.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior colliculus

      Explanation:

      The tectum is a part of the midbrain, specifically, the dorsal part of the midbrain. The tectum consists of the superior and inferior colliculi. The superior colliculus is involved in preliminary visual processing and control of eye movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neuro-anatomy
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  • Question 87 - What neuroimaging result is typically seen in individuals diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder?...

    Incorrect

    • What neuroimaging result is typically seen in individuals diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypermetabolism of orbitofrontal area

      Explanation:

      This question is a common one, but it is worded in various ways each time.

      Neuroimaging Findings in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental disorder characterized by intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors (compulsions). Neuroimaging studies have been conducted to investigate the underlying neural mechanisms of OCD. Two commonly used techniques are 18 Fluorodeoxyglucose PET (FDG-PET) and Technetium-99m (99mTc)-hexamethylpropyleneamine-oxime SPECT (HMPAO-SPECT).

      Studies using FDG-PET have reported increased glucose metabolism in several brain regions among OCD patients, including the orbitofrontal cortex (OFC), caudate, thalamus, prefrontal cortex, and anterior cingulate. These regions are involved in cognitive and emotional processing, decision-making, and motor control. The increased activity in these regions may contribute to the symptoms of OCD, such as repetitive behaviors and difficulty controlling intrusive thoughts.

      On the other hand, studies using HMPAO-SPECT have found both increased and decreased blood flow to various brain regions in OCD patients compared to normal controls. These regions include the OFC, caudate, various areas of the cortex, and thalamus. The inconsistent findings may be due to differences in the severity and subtype of OCD, as well as the specific task of stimulus used in the imaging studies.

      Overall, neuroimaging studies have provided valuable insights into the neural mechanisms of OCD. However, further research is needed to better understand the complex interactions between different brain regions and how they contribute to the development and maintenance of OCD symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 88 - Which extrapyramidal side effect is the most difficult to treat? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which extrapyramidal side effect is the most difficult to treat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Akathisia

      Explanation:

      Treating akathisia is a challenging task, as there are limited options available. In many cases, the only viable solution is to decrease the use of antipsychotic medication.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 89 - A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is admitted to a medical ward for an alcohol detox. She has a history of memory lapses. Upon examination, there are no significant cognitive impairments. What nutritional supplement should be considered to decrease her chances of experiencing neuropsychiatric complications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B1

      Explanation:

      For individuals undergoing treatment for alcohol dependence, it is recommended to administer prophylactic Vitamin B1 (thiamine) to prevent the development of neuropsychiatric complications such as Wernicke’s of Korsakoff’s syndrome. The administration of intravenous of intramuscular thiamine (Pabrinex) is effective in reducing the risk of such complications. However, a lower dosage is used for prophylactic purposes compared to the dosage used for individuals with established cognitive deficits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Prevention Of Psychological Disorder
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  • Question 90 - What is one of the five major personality traits? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is one of the five major personality traits?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroticism

      Explanation:

      The Big Five Personality Traits, also known as OCEAN, are five broad categories that can be used to describe an individual’s personality. These categories include Openness to Experience, Conscientiousness, Extraversion (also known as Surgency), Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (also known as Emotional Stability). Each of these traits can be further broken down into specific characteristics that help to define an individual’s personality. For example, Openness to Experience includes traits such as imagination, creativity, and a willingness to try new things. Conscientiousness includes traits such as organization, responsibility, and dependability. Extraversion includes traits such as sociability, assertiveness, and energy level. Agreeableness includes traits such as kindness, empathy, and cooperation. Finally, Neuroticism includes traits such as anxiety, moodiness, and emotional instability. Understanding these personality traits can be helpful in a variety of settings, such as in the workplace of in personal relationships.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 91 - A senior citizen is sharing a thorough recollection of their military experience with...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen is sharing a thorough recollection of their military experience with their therapist. The therapist wishes to shift the discussion and suggests, I believe you've provided me with ample information on that topic. Shall we discuss your medication now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transition

      Explanation:

      Interview Techniques: The Importance of Transition

      Effective communication is crucial in any healthcare setting, particularly in psychiatry where patients may be hesitant to share personal information. One technique that can aid in the interview process is transition. Transition involves signaling to the patient that the interviewer has gathered enough information on a particular topic and is ready to move on to another subject.

      Transition can be especially helpful when discussing sensitive of uncomfortable topics, as it allows the patient to feel heard and validated while also providing a sense of structure to the interview. Additionally, it can prevent the interview from becoming too focused on one topic, which may not be the most pressing concern for the patient.

      It is important to use clear and concise language when transitioning to a new topic, and to ensure that the patient is comfortable with the change in direction. This can be achieved by asking if there is anything else they would like to add of if they have any questions before moving on.

      Overall, incorporating transition into the interview process can improve communication and help patients feel more comfortable sharing their experiences and concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 92 - What is the term used to describe sudden muscle movements that cannot be...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe sudden muscle movements that cannot be controlled or stopped?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myoclonus

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that myoclonus is a common occurrence when individuals are falling asleep and is not considered abnormal in this context. Tics share similarities with myoclonus, but one key difference is that tics can be partially suppressed.

      Movement Disorders: Key Features

      Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:

      Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

      Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.

      Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.

      Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.

      Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.

      Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.

      Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.

      Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.

      Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.

      Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.

      Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.

      Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.

      Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.

      It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 93 - What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult...

    Incorrect

    • What is the maximum duration of a normal QTc interval in an adult male?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 440

      Explanation:

      While the upper limit technically reaches 439, it is evident that 440 is the optimal choice among the options provided.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 94 - What is a true statement about dystonia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about dystonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It can occur on withdrawal of an antipsychotic

      Explanation:

      Maudsley Guidelines: Dystonia

      Dystonia is a type of adverse reaction that can occur in patients taking typical antipsychotics. It is characterized by symptoms such as torticollis and oculogyric spasm. About 10% of patients who are exposed to these medications may develop acute dystonia. This reaction is more likely to occur in the early stages of treatment of after a dose increase. Additionally, it can also happen when the patient stops taking the drug. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients closely for signs of dystonia and adjust the medication as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 95 - Which of the following examination findings is not consistent with chronic alcohol abuse?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following examination findings is not consistent with chronic alcohol abuse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Thyroid disease is typically linked with pretibial myxoedema.

      Hepatomegaly

      Chronic alcohol abuse can lead to hepatomegaly, which is an enlargement of the liver. This can be detected on physical examination by palpating the liver below the right ribcage. Hepatomegaly can also be associated with other signs of liver disease, such as jaundice, spider naevi, and caput medusa. It is important for psychiatrists to be aware of these physical findings in patients with alcohol use disorder, as they may indicate the need for further medical evaluation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 96 - What is the definition of sleep latency? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of sleep latency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The time taken to fall asleep after going to bed

      Explanation:

      Sleep Stages

      Sleep is divided into two distinct states called rapid eye movement (REM) and non-rapid eye movement (NREM). NREM is subdivided into four stages.

      Sleep stage
      Approx % of time spent in stage
      EEG findings
      Comment

      I
      5%
      Theta waves (4-7 Hz)
      The dozing off stage. Characterized by hypnic jerks: spontaneous myoclonic contractions associated with a sensation of twitching of falling.

      II
      45%
      Theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles (short bursts of 12-14 Hz activity)
      Body enters a more subdued state including a drop in temperature, relaxed muscles, and slowed breathing and heart rate. At the same time, brain waves show a new pattern and eye movement stops.

      III
      15%
      Delta waves (0-4 Hz)
      Deepest stage of sleep (high waking threshold). The length of stage 3 decreases over the course of the night.

      IV
      15%
      Mixed, predominantly beta
      High dream activity.

      The percentage of REM sleep decreases with age.

      It takes the average person 15-20 minutes to fall asleep, this is called sleep latency (characterised by the onset of stage I sleep). Once asleep one descends through stages I-II and then III-IV (deep stages). After about 90 minutes of sleep one enters REM. The rest of the sleep comprises of cycles through the stages. As the sleep progresses the periods of REM become greater and the periods of NREM become less. During an average night’s sleep one spends 25% of the sleep in REM and 75% in NREM.

      REM sleep has certain characteristics that separate it from NREM

      Characteristics of REM sleep

      – Autonomic instability (variability in heart rate, respiratory rate, and BP)
      – Loss of muscle tone
      – Dreaming
      – Rapid eye movements
      – Penile erection

      Deafness:

      (No information provided on deafness in relation to sleep stages)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 97 - Which of the following substances strongly activates CYP3A4? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following substances strongly activates CYP3A4?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine is known for its ability to induce CYP3A4, which can lead to increased metabolism of not only itself but also other drugs. This often necessitates dosage adjustments for other medications. Alcohol, on the other hand, induces CYP2E1. Fluoxetine and paroxetine are potent inhibitors of CYP3A4, while reboxetine is an inhibitor of CYP3A4 with minimal clinical significance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 98 - What is a personality disorder that falls under cluster A? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a personality disorder that falls under cluster A?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paranoid

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorder Classification

      A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.

      Course

      Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.

      Classification

      The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 99 - Which medication should be avoided by patients who are taking phenelzine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication should be avoided by patients who are taking phenelzine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broad bean pods

      Explanation:

      There is conflicting information regarding whether people should avoid only the pods of broad beans of both the beans and their pods.

      MAOIs: A Guide to Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Dietary Restrictions

      First introduced in the 1950s, MAOIs were the first antidepressants introduced. However, they are not the first choice in treating mental health disorders due to several dietary restrictions and safety concerns. They are only a treatment option when all other medications are unsuccessful. MAOIs may be particularly useful in atypical depression (over eating / over sleeping, mood reactivity).

      MAOIs block the monoamine oxidase enzyme, which breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, as well as tyramine. There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MOA A are mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MOA B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      The most common adverse effects of MAOIs occurring early in treatment are orthostatic hypotension, daytime sleepiness, insomnia, and nausea; later common effects include weight gain, muscle pain, myoclonus, paraesthesia, and sexual dysfunction.

      Pharmacodynamic interactions with MAOIs can cause two types of problem: serotonin syndrome (mainly due to SSRIs) and elevated blood pressure (caused by indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines releasers, like pseudoephedrine and phenylephrine). The combination of MAOIs and some TCAs appears safe. Only those TCAs with significant serotonin reuptake inhibition (clomipramine and imipramine) are likely to increase the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      Tyramine is a monoamine found in various foods, and is an indirect sympathomimetic that can cause a hypertensive reaction in patients receiving MAOI therapy. For this reason, dietary restrictions are required for patients receiving MAOIs. These restrictions include avoiding matured/aged cheese, fermented sausage, improperly stored meat, fava of broad bean pods, and certain drinks such as on-tap beer. Allowed foods include fresh cottage cheese, processed cheese slices, fresh packaged of processed meat, and other alcohol (no more than two bottled or canned beers of two standard glasses of wine, per day).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 100 - A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friend who...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his friend who found him at the bottom of his stairs in his flat. The medical team have identified a tibial fracture and noted a strong smell of alcohol.

      Which of the following tools, designed specifically for emergency department settings, would be most appropriate for use in this case to assess for hazardous drinking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paddington Alcohol Test

      Explanation:

      The Paddington Alcohol Test (PAT) is a quick and efficient tool designed to identify alcohol-related problems in emergency department settings. Unlike other questionnaires, such as AUDIT, the PAT features a table of commonly consumed beverages coded in British units, which allows for a more accurate estimation of alcohol consumption. The PAT also takes into account the relative strengths of different products, providing a better indication of total units consumed. Overall, the PAT is a valuable tool for identifying hazardous drinking patterns in the UK. (Reference: Patton R, Alcohol and Alcoholism, 2004)

      Alcohol screening tools are available to assist in the diagnosis of alcohol problems. One such tool is the AUDIT (Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test), which consists of 10 questions and covers harmful use, hazardous use, and dependence. Another tool is the FAST (Fast Alcohol Screening Test), which has just 4 questions and was developed for use in a busy medical setting. The CAGE is a well-known 4 question screening tool, but recent research has questioned its value. Other tools include SASQ (Single alcohol screening questionnaire), PAT (Paddington Alcohol Test), MAST (Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test), and RAPS4 (Rapid Alcohol Problem Screen 4). These tools can help identify hazardous of harmful alcohol consumption and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (4/6) 67%
Genetics (0/2) 0%
Psychopharmacology (2/5) 40%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (2/2) 100%
History Of Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Description And Measurement (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (0/1) 0%
Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments (0/1) 0%
Neuro-anatomy (1/1) 100%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
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