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  • Question 1 - The sensory innervation of the oropharynx is provided by which of the following...

    Correct

    • The sensory innervation of the oropharynx is provided by which of the following nerves:

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Each subdivision of the pharynx has a different sensory innervation:the nasopharynx is innervated by the maxillary nervethe oropharynx is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nervethe laryngopharynx is innervated by the vagus nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Head And Neck
      6.1
      Seconds

  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old girl is brought into the paediatric emergency room by her mother...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought into the paediatric emergency room by her mother in a state of high-grade fever and extreme irritability. She is also reluctant to urinate as it is associated with lower abdominal pain and stinging. She has no history of any UTIs requiring antibiotics in the past 12 months.

      The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. A clean catch urine sample is taken for urine dipstick, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leukocytes and nitrites. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be 40 ml/minute.

      Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for children and young people under 16 years lower UTIs are:
      1. Get a urine sample before antibiotics are taken, and do a dipstick test OR send for culture and susceptibility
      2. Assess and manage children under 5 with lower UTI with fever as recommended in the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.
      3. Prescribe an immediate antibiotic prescription and take into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results, previous antibiotic use, which may have led to resistant bacteria
      4. If urine culture and susceptibility report is sent
      – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available AND
      – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant and symptoms are not improving, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possible

      The choice of antibiotics for non-pregnant young people under 16 years with lower UTI is summarised below:
      1. Children under 3 months:
      – Refer to paediatric specialist and treat with intravenous antibiotic in line with NICE guideline on fever in under 5s
      2. Children over 3 months:
      – First-choice
      Nitrofurantoin – if eGFR >45 ml/minute
      Trimethoprim – (if low risk of resistance*)
      – Second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice not suitable)
      Nitrofurantoin – if eGFR >45 ml/minute and not used as first-choice
      Amoxicillin (only if culture results available and susceptible)
      Cefalexin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      35.9
      Seconds

  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man has been diagnosed with testicular cancer and has spread to the regional lymph nodes.

      The lymph from the testes will drain to which of the following nodes?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      Testes are retroperitoneal organs and its lymphatic drainage is to the lumbar and para-aortic nodes along the lumbar vertebrae.

      The scrotum is the one which drains into the nearby superficial inguinal nodes.

      The glans penis and clitoris drains into the deep inguinal lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      9.7
      Seconds

  • Question 4 - Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following muscles are primarily involved in passive inspiration:

      Your Answer: Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

      Explanation:

      Passive inspiration is produced by contraction of the diaphragm (depressing the diaphragm) and the external intercostal muscles (elevating the ribs). In inspiration, elevation of the sternal ends of the ribs (‘pump handle’ movement), elevation of the lateral shafts of the ribs (‘bucket handle’ movement) and depression of the diaphragm result in expansion of the thorax in an anteroposterior, transverse and vertical direction respectively. This results in an increased intrathoracic volume and decreased intrathoracic pressure and thus air is drawn into the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Thorax
      17.8
      Seconds

  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding potassium replacement? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding potassium replacement?

      Your Answer: Oral potassium supplements are often required for patients taking spironolactone.

      Explanation:

      It is very seldom that potassium supplements are required with the small doses of diuretics given to treat hypertension. Potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone (rather than potassium supplements), are recommended for hypokalaemia prevention when diuretics are given to eliminate oedema, such as furosemide or the thiazides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      64.8
      Seconds

  • Question 6 - Intravenous glucose solutions are typically used in the treatment of all of the...

    Correct

    • Intravenous glucose solutions are typically used in the treatment of all of the following situations except:

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      In hypokalaemia, initial potassium replacement therapy should not involve glucose infusions, as glucose may cause a further decrease in the plasma-potassium concentration. Glucose infusions are used for the other indications like diabetic ketoacidosis, hypoglycaemia, routine fluid maintenance in patients who are nil by mouth (very important in children), and in hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Fluids And Electrolytes
      • Pharmacology
      20.2
      Seconds

  • Question 7 - Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following muscles is most responsible for thigh extension at the hip joint?

      Your Answer: Hamstrings, gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

      Correct Answer: Hamstrings and gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      For hip extension, the gluteus maximus and hamstring muscles work together. To compensate for gluteus maximus weakness, the hamstring frequently acts as the primary hip extensor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      20.8
      Seconds

  • Question 8 - Bile acids are essential for the digestion and absorption of which of the...

    Correct

    • Bile acids are essential for the digestion and absorption of which of the following:

      Your Answer: Lipids and fat-soluble vitamins

      Explanation:

      Bile acids are synthesised from cholesterol by hepatocyte and excreted into bile. Bile acids are essential for lipid digestion and absorption. Of the bile acids excreted into the intestine, about 95% are reabsorbed into the portal circulation by active transport mechanisms in the distal ileum and recycled by the liver. Many of the bile salts are reabsorbed unaltered, some are converted by intestinal bacteria into secondary bile acids (deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid) and then reabsorbed and a small proportion escapes reabsorption and is excreted in the faeces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      6.2
      Seconds

  • Question 9 - You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry...

    Correct

    • You suspect that your patient with polycystic kidney disease has developed a berry aneurysm as a complication of his disease. The patient complains of a sudden, severe headache. You are guessing subarachnoid haemorrhage secondary to a ruptured berry aneurysm as the cause of his severe headaches. What is the most likely location of his aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Anterior communicating artery

      Explanation:

      One of the complications that polycystic kidney disease may cause is the development of a brain aneurysm.

      A berry aneurysm is the most common type of brain aneurysm.

      The Circle of Willis, where the major blood vessels meet at the base of the brain, is where it usually appears. The most common junctions of the Circle of Willis where an aneurysm may occur include the anterior communicating artery (35%), internal carotid artery (30%), the posterior communicating artery and the middle cerebral artery (22%), and finally, the posterior circulation sites, most commonly the basilar artery tip.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      23.3
      Seconds

  • Question 10 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Micelles are arranged so they have a lipid-soluble coat with a polar core.

      Correct Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

      Explanation:

      Dietary fat is chiefly composed of triglycerides (esters of free fatty acids and glycerol which may be saturated or unsaturated). The essential fatty acids are linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid, which cannot be manufactured in the body. Dietary fat provides 37 kJ (9 kcal) of energy per gram. Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested.
      Pancreatic lipase is the most significant enzyme for fat digestion. In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Micelles are arranged so that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by bile acids arranged such the outer region is hydrophilic. Dietary and synthesised lipids are incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      27.3
      Seconds

  • Question 11 - Platelet alpha granules release which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Platelet alpha granules release which of the following?

      Your Answer: Thromboxane A2

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand factor (VWF)

      Explanation:

      There are three types of storage granules contained in platelets. These are dense granules which contain the following:
      -ATP
      -ADP
      -serotonin and calcium alpha granules containing clotting factors
      -von Willebrand factor (VWF)
      -platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
      – other proteins lysosomes containing hydrolytic enzymes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      8.2
      Seconds

  • Question 12 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?
    ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Hodgkin's lymphoma?

      Your Answer: Most patients present with painless asymmetrical lymphadenopathy, with cervical nodes involved most commonly.

      Explanation:

      Lymphoma is a cancer of the lymphatic system, which is part of the body’s germ-fighting network. They are a group of diseases that are caused by malignant lymphocytes. These malignant cells accumulate in lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissue, giving rise to the characteristic clinical feature of lymphadenopathy.
      They can be subdivided into Hodgkin lymphoma (HL) which are characterised by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL).
      Characteristics of HL include:
      1. can present at any age but is rare in children and has a peak incidence in young adults,
      2. almost 2:1 male predominance.
      3. presents with painless, asymmetrical, firm and discrete enlargement of superficial lymph nodes.
      4. cervical node involvement in 60-70% of cases,
      5. axillary node involvement in 10-15%
      6. inguinal node involvement in 6-12%.
      7. modest splenomegaly during the course of the disease in 50% of patients
      8. may occasionally have liver enlargement
      9. bone marrow failure involvement is unusual in early disease.
      Approximately 85% of patients are cured, but the prognosis depends on age, stage and histology.
      Two well‐known but rare symptoms in HL are alcohol‐induced pain and pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      25.3
      Seconds

  • Question 13 - During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is...

    Correct

    • During the second and third trimesters of her pregnancy, a 36-year-old woman is given a drug to treat a medical condition. The foetus has developed hypoperfusion and the oligohydramnios sequence as a result of this.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause of these side effects?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence are all linked to ACE inhibitor use in the second and third trimesters.

      The oligohydramnios sequence refers to a foetus’ or neonate’s atypical physical appearance as a result of oligohydramnios in the uterus. It’s also linked to aortic arch obstructive malformations and patent ductus arteriosus.

      The inhibitory effects on the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system appear to be the cause of these defects. To avoid these risks, ACE inhibitors should be stopped before the second trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      7.1
      Seconds

  • Question 14 - Regarding thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding thalassaemia, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Beta-thalassaemias are usually caused by deletion of a beta globin gene.

      Correct Answer: Screening for thalassaemia in pregnancy is offered to all pregnant women.

      Explanation:

      Beta thalassemia is caused by mutations in one or both of the beta globin genes. Alpha thalassemia is caused by a deletion or mutation (less commonly) in one or more of the four alpha globin gene copies. β-thalassaemia is more common in the Mediterranean region while α-thalassaemia is more common in the Far East.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      25.8
      Seconds

  • Question 15 - You are going to prescribe a NSAID to a 50-year-old male patient for...

    Correct

    • You are going to prescribe a NSAID to a 50-year-old male patient for his back pain. Which of the following NSAIDs is least likely to cause gastrointestinal side effects:

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are associated with serious gastrointestinal irritation and drug-induced ulcers.

      Among the NSAIDs included in the choices, ibuprofen has the lowest risk.

      Piroxicam, ketoprofen, and ketorolac trometamol are associated with the highest risk of serious upper gastrointestinal side effects.

      Indomethacin, diclofenac, and naproxen are associated with an intermediate risk of serious upper gastrointestinal side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      • Pharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds

  • Question 16 - A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year old male is taken to the Emergency Room for a lacerated wound on the abdomen, situated above the umbilicus. A short segment of the small bowel has herniated through the wound.

      Which of these anatomic structures is the most superficial structure injured in the case above?

      Your Answer: Aponeurosis of internal oblique

      Correct Answer: Camper’s fascia

      Explanation:

      The following structures are the layers of the anterior abdominal wall from the most superficial to the deepest layer:

      Skin
      Fatty layer of the superficial fascia (Camper’s fascia)
      Membranous layer of the superficial fascia (Scarpa’s fascia)
      Aponeurosis of the external and internal oblique muscles
      Rectus abdominis muscle
      Aponeurosis of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis
      Fascia transversalis
      Extraperitoneal fat
      Parietal peritoneum

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Abdomen And Pelvis
      • Anatomy
      27.5
      Seconds

  • Question 17 - Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate:

      Your Answer: The two variables are inversely related

      Explanation:

      A negative correlation coefficient means that the two variables are inversely related e.g. socio-economic class and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      10
      Seconds

  • Question 18 - You are teaching a group of medical students about cardiovascular examination. You are...

    Correct

    • You are teaching a group of medical students about cardiovascular examination. You are discussing heart sounds and the cardiac cycle. Which of the following stages of the cardiac cycle occurs immediately after the aortic valve closes:

      Your Answer: Isovolumetric relaxation

      Explanation:

      Immediately after the closure of the semilunar valves, the ventricles rapidly relax and ventricular pressure decreases rapidly but the AV valves remain closed as initially the ventricular pressure is still greater than atrial pressure. This is isovolumetric relaxation. Atrial pressure continues to rise because of venous return, with the v wave of the JVP waveform peaking during this phase. Rapid flow of blood from the atria into the ventricles during the ventricular filling phase causes thethird heart sound, which is normal in children but, in adults, is associated with disease such as ventricular dilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      24
      Seconds

  • Question 19 - Regarding probability distribution, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding probability distribution, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: In a negative skew, the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right.

      Explanation:

      Distribution of data is usually unimodal (one peak) but may be bimodal (two peaks) or uniform (no peaks, each value equally likely). The normal distribution is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve. The mean, median, and mode of a normal distribution are equal. In a positive skew, the right tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the left; mean > median > mode. In a negative skew, the left tail is longer and the mass of distribution is concentrated on the right; mean < median < mode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      10.8
      Seconds

  • Question 20 - A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened...

    Correct

    • A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened and externally rotated following slipping and falling on a wet bathroom floor. There is an intracapsular fracture of the neck of femur seen on imaging studies. She is at risk of avascular necrosis of the head of femur.

      This is caused by lack of blood supply from which of these arteries?

      Your Answer: Medial circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The primary blood supply to the head of the femur is from branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery.

      The superior and inferior gluteal arteries supply the hip joint but not the head of femur.

      The lateral circumflex artery anastomoses with the medial femoral circumflex artery and assists in supplying the head of femur.

      The obturator artery is an important source of blood supply in children up to about 8 years. It gives rise to the artery of the head of femur which runs in the ligamentum teres and is insufficient to supply the head of femur in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      30.7
      Seconds

  • Question 21 - Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?
    ...

    Incorrect

    • Which family of receptors does the glucagon receptor belong?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G-protein coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Glucagon binds to class B G-protein coupled receptors and activates adenylate cyclase, increasing cAMP intracellularly.

      This activates protein kinase A. Protein kinase A phosphorylates and activates important enzymes in target cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 22 - A 24-year-old student with red and painful right eye presents. Conjunctival erythema, mucopurulent...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old student with red and painful right eye presents. Conjunctival erythema, mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting are seen on examination, and patient denies presence of itching of the eye. All his observations are normal, he has no fever and is otherwise well.

      Which of these is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of red eye is conjunctivitis. It is caused by inflammation of the conjunctiva which can be infective or allergic and accounts for about 35% of all eye problems presenting to general practice.

      Viral conjunctivitis is commonly caused by adenoviruses and it is the most common infectious conjunctivitis.

      The common bacterial causes of conjunctivitis are Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Staphylococcus aureus.

      The clinical features of infective conjunctivitis include:
      Acute onset of conjunctival erythema
      Feeling ‘grittiness’, ‘foreign body’ or ‘burning’ sensation in the eye.
      Watering and discharge which may cause transient blurring of vision

      The discharge for viral conjunctivitis is less than that of bacterial conjunctivitis and usually watery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Specific Pathogen Groups
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 23 - A 64-year-old man presents with an acute episode of gout. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man presents with an acute episode of gout. He has a history of chronic heart failure and hypertension. His current medications include ramipril and furosemide.
      Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of gout is true? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Colchicine has a role in prophylactic treatment

      Explanation:

      In the absence of any contra-indications, high-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is a commonly used and effective regime.
      Aspirin should not be used in gout as it reduces the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Naproxen, Diclofenac or Indomethacin are more appropriate choices.
      Allopurinol is used prophylactically, preventing future attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. It should not be started in the acute phase as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms.
      Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks. It also has a role in prophylactic treatment if Allopurinol is not tolerated.
      NSAIDs are contra-indicated in heart failure as they can cause fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. Colchicine is the preferred treatment in patients with heart failure or those who are intolerant of NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 24 - Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery

      Explanation:

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is a fusiform muscle in the posterior forearm. It spans between the elbow and base of the little finger. This muscle belongs to the superficial forearm extensor group, along with anconaeus, brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi muscles.

      Like all the muscles of this compartment, extensor carpi ulnaris works as an extensor of the wrist. Moreover, due to its specific course, this muscle also acts to adduct the hand.

      Extensor carpi ulnaris is innervated by the posterior interosseous nerve (C7, C8), a branch of the deep division of the radial nerve. The radial nerve stems from the posterior cord of the brachial plexus.

      Blood supply to the extensor carpi ulnaris muscle is provided by branches of the radial recurrent and posterior interosseous arteries, which stem from the radial and ulnar arteries, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old carpenter presented to the emergency room with a laceration of his upper volar forearm. Upon further exploration and observation, it was revealed that the nerve that innervates the pronator teres muscle has been damaged.

      Which of the following nerves is most likely damaged in the case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The median nerve

      Explanation:

      Pronator teres syndrome (PTS) is caused by a compression of the median nerve (MN) by the pronator teres (PT) muscle in the forearm.

      The median nerve, C6 and C7, innervates the pronator teres.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Upper Limb
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 26 - Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It occurs during forced expiration.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs because as the expiratory muscles contract during forced expiration, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume). Physiologically this is important as a completely deflated lung with collapsed alveoli requires significantly more energy to inflate. Dynamic compression does not occur in normal expiration because the intrapleural pressure is negative throughout the whole cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 27 - Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for...

    Incorrect

    • Infection with Campylobacter jejuni is one of the most common risk factors for which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      One of the most common risk factors for GBS is infection with Campylobacter jejuni, which causes diarrhoea.

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system attacks the nerves, resulting in muscle weakness and paralysis.

      Infection with Streptococcus pyogenes can cause acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever.

      Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is commonly linked to E. coli infection.

      Following measles infection, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man is feeling unwell following his return from a business trip....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is feeling unwell following his return from a business trip. He is diagnosed with a vector transmitted disease.

      Which of these organisms is commonly spread by vector-borne transmission?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      Borrelia burgdorferiis, primarily spread by ticks and lice, is a zoonotic, vector-borne organism that causes Lyme disease.

      Neisseria meningitidis and Bordetella pertussis are droplet borne infections (airborne particle > 5 µm)

      Vibrio cholerae and Ascaris lumbricoides are spread by the faeco-oral route

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Principles Of Microbiology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 29 - Regarding fibrinolytics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding fibrinolytics, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrinolytic drugs act as thrombolytics by directly degrading the fibrin mesh and so breaking up thrombi.

      Explanation:

      Fibrinolytic drugs act as thrombolytics by activating plasminogen to form plasmin, which degrades fibrin and so breaks up thrombi.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

  • Question 30 - A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 -year-old man is tested to have low calcium levels . After additional questioning, it becomes clear that he has a calcium-deficient diet.

      What is the daily calcium intake recommendation for a healthy adult?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1300 mg

      Explanation:

      A daily calcium intake of 1,000 to 1,300 mg is advised for adults. Women have a slightly higher calcium need than men and are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis as they age.

      Calcium-rich foods include the following:
      Milk, cheese, and butter as dairy products.
      Broccoli, spinach, and green beans as green veggies.
      Bread, rice, and cereals as whole grain foods.
      Sardines, salmon, and other bony fish
      Eggs
      Nuts
      The following foods have the least calcium:
      Carrot
      Fruits such as kiwis, raspberries, oranges, and papaya
      Chicken and pork in meats.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (4/7) 57%
Head And Neck (1/1) 100%
Infections (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (5/5) 100%
Abdomen And Pelvis (0/2) 0%
Thorax (1/1) 100%
Fluids And Electrolytes (2/2) 100%
Lower Limb (1/2) 50%
Gastrointestinal (1/2) 50%
Physiology (2/4) 50%
Central Nervous System (1/1) 100%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Pathology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (2/2) 100%
Statistics (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
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